#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 297 of 1
hm to be honest i remember being paranoid about varying definitions too and learnt some stuff from a uni course lol
but honestly i wouldn't really worry about the different definitions since there are quite standard things (all rings have units and maps preserve units)
i learnt most things through Atiyah-Macdonald's Commutative algebra, but, as its name suggests, it only treats commutative rings and does expect some ring theory already (I kinda learnt backwards using this which was good in some ways but ye)
There's also Lang's algebra I guess though perhaps that's not the most popular suggestion lol
yeah, makes sense 👍 i would expect it to be pretty standard and here i should have just inferred it
to be honest i think the ideal vs left/right ideal thing may be slightly less standard but i would generally assume ideal means two-sided
though i'm no expert on the terminology there (i basically work only with commutative rings)
I'd say it's context dependant. If I'm in a context where I'm only interested in left ideals I'll just say ideal to refer to left ideal.
If I'm in a context where I'm talking about both left ideals and two-sided ideals I might use "ideal" to mean two-sided ideal.
i think i understand this now, prime powers are always coprime to each other, and the LCM of coprime numbers is their product which is maximal
correct me if i'm wrong
Yep! So computing Landau's function is about relating the sum and product of (powers of) primes.
The fact that RH comes in hopefully doesn't seem out of left field, at least.
that makes sense, thank you!
hm wait also
does this mean the cycle lengths of every partition of S_n whose LCM is L(n) consists of prime powers only
is there an easy enough proof for this that I can figure out
I don't know if any example that achieves L(n) necessarily must break down into prime powers.
But it's fairly easy to prove that given any permutation you can find a permutation with the same order that is the product of cycles of prime power orders.
I care about if everything that achieves L(n) breaks down into prime powers
Well then consider S6
the largest is legnth 5 and length 1 iirc
? What is largest length 5?
L(6) = 5 is formed from LCM(5, 1) and 5 + 1 = 6
yeah
... And 6 > 5
but that's valid because 5 is a prime power
Okay, I have no idea what you're talking about
just thought about it... should I do artin's exercises section by section or chapter by chapter?
I'm feeling kinda stupid rn cus just realised I've been doing it chapter by chapter even tho the exercises are separated into sections
the first sentence here
damn that's why I've been feeling headaches reading this I've been reading the entire chapter before doing the sections' exercises I just have to acumulate so much information damn
Yeah, so I'm trying to tell you that you should consider S6 because it will give a counter example
Take cycles of length 2 and 3 and 1
Or a cycle of length 6
oh whoops sorry i meant to say L(6) = 6
but 2 3 and 1 is fine because the non trivial cycles have lengths of prime powers
Yes, but 6 is not a prime power.
I think L(11) can be achieved as a 6-cycle and a 5-cycle
ah, you're right i just wrote some code and 11 gave 6 and 5
then this is false, thanks for the help
If something has a 5 cycle and a 3 cycle, you'll find a permutation of the same order with a 15 cycle (for large enough n)
partitions of S_6, S_11, S_18, S_22, S_46 seem to be the only ones that violate this property for n < 80
L(15) is 105 and corresponds to 3+5+7
I have no idea what's special about the groups
the results from some short code i wrote[ [ 3, 2, 1 ], [ 6 ] ] 6 [ [ 5, 3, 2, 1 ], [ 6, 5 ] ] 11 [ [ 7, 5, 4, 3, 1, 1, 1 ], [ 7, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 ], [ 7, 5, 4, 3, 3 ], [ 7, 6, 5, 4 ] ] 22 [ [ 13, 11, 7, 5, 4, 3, 1, 1, 1 ], [ 13, 11, 7, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 ], [ 13, 11, 7, 5, 4, 3, 3 ], [ 13, 11, 7, 6, 5, 4 ] ] 46
Well in all cases you have [3, 2, 1] that gets replaced by a [6]
i didn't see that, that's true!
so every partition with a sequence of primes whose sum is their product could potentially have a maximal LCM partition with a non-prime power
let me try to figure out if [3,2,1] and [6] is the only replacement
I'd guess it's either 2 and anything, or the fact that 2 and 3 are the only consecutive primes
maybe with larger N there become three trivial cycles in the maximal LCM partition
so then 5 2 1 1 1 becomes 10
3 is a prime power so 3 is fine
To prove, if n ≥ 5 then S_n has no subgroup of index t, 2< t < n.
Let H be a subgroup of index t, then there exists homomorphism S_n to S_t such that ker \subset H, now we know that only non-trivial proper normal subgroup of S_n is A_n if n≥5.
S_n cannot be imbedded into S_t so ker must be A_n but then it contradicts that H has index t > 2.
Is it correct?
Any hint? Given hint : use the fact {(12),(123..n)} generates S_n
Is there any way to do this one by group action?
Yes
Any p-cycle generates a subgroup of order p, where every non-identity element is a p-cycle
Sorry I get this point but I don't know how to go further
Note that it suffices to generate every single transposition since everything can be written as the product of transpositions
Yes
But if transposition is (ij) and p - cycle is (a_1,...,i,..,j...,a_p) then if I can show there exists a p-cycle such that (i j,...,a_p) then I am done
** transposition of neighboring elements
There are multiple ways to do this question, but working in the finite field $\mathbb F_p$ is probably the easiest way
Sleepybear
How does the finite field help here?
So if $k$ is the difference $j-i$ between the two elements in our transposition $(i\ j)$, then we can generate all elements of the form $(1\ 1+qk)$ for $q\in \mathbb N$
Sleepybear
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
and then from here noting that $q$ has an inverse modulo $p$ finishes the problem
Sleepybear
does this make sense?
I am thinking about defining some action
i think you should look at conjugation
and what transpositions you can get from that
In ii) I proved that the intersection of all conjugation of H is the normal subgroup of G.
Since H has a finite index so it has finite conjugation, right?
If H has a finite index then xHx^-1 has a finite index, I think yes
Then I can do induction on i)
I don't get it why { H } is an orbit of size 1, G acts transitive on X by conjugation, right?
Me too
Maybe you let H act on X
Cuz H is also a p-group
But idk
And then {H} is an orbit
Yes
What is that?
122 pages
search for key words
Kinda stuck on this last case for this problem
Like all I have is that the sum of the square is composite and I don’t see the line to produce the decomposition of a+bi
If p = 1 mod 4, then there exists c with c^2 =-1 mod p cuz (Z/pZ)^x = Z/p-1Z and you want a c of order 4.
So p divides (c-i)(c+i), but it doesn’t divide c-i or c+i so p isn’t prime.
This means you can write p = a•b for Gaussian integers an and b, and they aren’t units. But then
p^2 = N(p) = N(ab) = N(a)N(b), but then N(a) = p so a is a Gaussian prime. But N(a) = a•a-bar so when you write a in the form c + di you get it
This is kinda half of it, you need to do a little more to say any Gaussian prime is of the forms in the above
I’m not sure what work you’ve done so far so it’s hard to say how you can show any prime not of the other two types is that a + bi thing
oh i showed before this that a prime is the sum of 2 squares iff it is 4k+1 or 2
that was a bit hard but yeah this makes a few cases quite easy
im mostly stuc for when a^2+b^2 is composite
Oh well
Okay
Say x is a Gaussian prime
Then find a rational prime p dividing N(x)
Then by construction there is a Gaussian prime y dividing p
If p is 2 it’s 1 + i
If it’s 3 mod 4 then it’s p
And if it’s 1 mod 4 you do the other thingy to find that pair of primes
So now you have
y | p | N(x) = x•x-bar
So y divides x or x-bar
So y or y-bar divides x
And since those are all Gaussian primes, up to a unit you know x = y or y-bar
Where y or y-bar is either 1+i, 1-i, p for p = 3 mod 4, or a + bi where N(a+bi) = a^2 + b^2 = p
Where p is 3 mod 4
anything interesting you get from localizing a ring at its nilradical?
You can’t
Wait
Can xy be nilpotent when x and y aren’t?
Yes they can
k[x,y]/(xy)^2
Yeah
But the complement of the nilradical isn’t multiplicative
Unless you mean set S = N(R)?
But then you localized at a set with 0 in it so it just becomes 0
what is N(R)?
okay. i totally forgot how localization works then. just running through some concepts on my own atm since im super out of practice
a/x = b/y if there is u in S where
u(bx - ay) = 0
If 0 is in S you set u = 0 and then everything is equal to each other, so you’re the 0 ring
If it's prime, then you get a perfect ring.
If R is also Noetherian you get a local artinian ring.
How can you even localize a ring at the nilradical
Or is the second sentence contingent on the first
Yeah if the nilradical is prime you can localize at it
Actually I'm a bit unsure if you get a perfect ring, might just be semiperfect actually.
0-dimensional local ring at least
Yeh
I have to work thru atiyah macdonald and im kinda not looking forward to it too much
Comm algebra does feel a bit boring sometimes
The start can be kinda meh I guess
Without understanding why it’s necessary or the geometric consequences
But Atiyah MacDonald can be done pretty quick
So think of it like taking medicine
my comm algebra class is using it next semester and i’m excited
A primitive polynomial with no integer roots is irreducible in $\mathbb{Z}[X]$ correct? The same goes for a polynomial with no rational roots in $\mathbb{Q}[X]$ and those with no real roots in $\mathbb{R}[X]$ right?
Kroros
Consider for example (x^2 + 1)^2
Is it irreducible? Does it have integer/rational/real roots?
yeah true, i flipped through and noticed many of the chapters seem quite short
Can every ideal of a one-dimensional noetherian integral domain be generated by at most 2 elements?
I want to say no, because you have to show this is true for a Dedekind domain via nontrivial methods
For Dedekind domains it is true because the quotient by an ideal is a PIR (edit: need not be an integral domain lol)
That’s a really Monka way to prove it
But I just think it can’t be true for all 1-dim Noetherian rings
If u gotta prove it for Dedekind domains using some facts about Dedekind domains
How about
Z[w] where w^3 = 16.
Can the ideal generated by 4w, 2w^2 and 16 be generated by just two elements?
It doesn't seem like it to me, but I could be wrong.
Okay, so by this MSE
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/110734/306319
The ideal (8, 4x, 2x^2, x^3) in Z[x] cannot be generated by less than 4 elements.
This ideal contains x^3 - 16, so modding this out the image ideal cannot be generated by less than 3 elements. And the image ideal is (8, 4w, 2w^2)
And I guess this generalizes to give ideals with arbitrarily many generators by just considering
Z[w] with w^n = 2^n+1
btw, just to sanity check, if I=(a1, a2,...,an) is an ideal and I is generated by m elements, say m<n, then it need not be true that these m elements are a subset of a1,..,an, right?
Yeah
Yeah, it should be possible that {a1, ..., an} is minimal (meaning you can't remove any of the ai's) without n=m
I guess (2, 3) in Z is a good example
Is there a nice way to bound the number of generators of ideals? I'm only interested in orders of number fields really (aka a subring of O_K that contains a basis of K over Q)
in terms of the degree, for example
I think the answer is no
I found at some point examples of noetherian rings where you have arbitrarily many generators for certain primes
I mean I found them online lol
An order of a number field?
no it's a different rings but still noetherian
idk what the situations is for orders
help pls
Hello! Could someone explain how the highlighted approach works to prove the theorem below
The theorem I am reffering to is "The sum of the cubes of any three consecutive integers is divisible by 9"
You’re asking a statement about some equation being equal to a fixed value (0 in this case) mod 9
The way modular arithmetic works, you can simply ask if
(n mod 9)^3 + (n + 1 mod 9)^3 + (n + 2 mod 9)^3 = 0 mod 9
If you modify n by a multiple of 9, whatever you have changed the equation by after doing all these powers and sums will still be a multiple of 9, so it doesn’t change the value when you’re already working mod 9
So you only need to handle the case where n = 0,1,…,8 because these are the 9 different values that exist mod 9
Gal(L/sigma K) are precisely the elements of Gal(L/F) which fix sigmaK
{2,3} is a basis for Z as a Z-module? But {1} is also a basis, and since Z is commutative I thought it had IRP
Omg nvm lol
{2,3} is not linearly independent 3x2+(-2)x3=0
But this does show an example of how modules differ from vector spaces tho right. In a vector space every generating set contains a basis
How can I prove(if it's even true) that if a polynomial is irreducible in $\mathbb{C}(x)[y]$ then it's irreducible in $\mathbb{C}[x,y]$?
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
C[x,y] is a subring of C(x)[y] so any factorization in the former would automatically be a factorization in the latter
So you have to be a little careful, since something like xy is irreducible in C(x)[y], but reducible over C[x, y].
But if you require that the coefficients don't have any common factors (for example if it's monic in y) then a polynomial is irreducible in C[x, y] if and only if it is irreducible in C(x)[y].
This is Gauss lemma.
(this is indeed wrong, as i forgot that nonunits in C[x,y] can become units in C(x)[y])
Isn't Gauss lemma is polynomial is irreducible in Z iff it's irreducible in Q? @rocky cloak
Gauss' lemma is that a primitive polynomial is irreducible over a UFD iff it is irreducible over its field of fractions.
In particular Z is a UFD yes
Yes, though the direction you're asking about is the easy one. As Matteddy pointed out, and doesn't need any UFD stuff.
Any factorization in C[x, y] will give a factorization in C(x)[y] so you just have to exclude the case where one factor is a unit.
And for example monic would do that for you
Ok. Ill try(to prove it)
Thank you both
And of course you need your polynomial to actually be in C[x, y], otherwise the question doesn't make sense
https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/ringtheory/euclideanrk.pdf i have trouble making example of lemma 4.3
i consider 4=2*2=(1+sqrt(-3))(1-sqrt(-3))
but both 2 and 1+-sqrt(-3) are irred
From the lemma you get a strict inclusion of ideals
(a) < (b)
applying the lemma again you get
(a) < (b) < (c)
and so on.
So whatever ring you consider would necessarily have to be non Noetherian
Since in a Noetherian ring a chain of ideals cannot increase forever
so this is under assumption non noetherian
Well the theorem is also true for Noetherian rings. But a consequence is that every element is a product of irreducibles. So you can't find interesting examples
cuz this is from our proof PID->UFD, is this proof wrong?
a required to be non irred, but (1+sqrt(-3)) irred
The proof isn't wrong, it's just pretty rare that you can't write an element as a product of irreducibles
One example could be
Q[x^2^-i : i in N]
Then x = x^1/2 * x^1/2
and x^1/2 = x^1/4 * x^1/4 etc
x cannot be written as a product of irreducibles
so such examples are usually "non discrete" enough for the chain of ideals to keep ascending
Sure, I mean the example can still be fairly "discrete" it just has to be pretty infinite / unbounded
I hate ambiguously worded questions in math
Does (2) mean "R_0 is a noetherian Z-module" or are we assuming R_0 is a field from the outset and (2) means "R_0 is a noetherian ring"?
The second interpretation makes it trivial but the first one sounds false
M an A-module with Ann(M)=A, then M = 0?
Yea i was thinking smth about q
1
If xM = 0 x is in Ann(M), but if x is a unit then since Ann(M) is an ideal it should be all of A?
For context if it matters i am looking at nakayama lemma kind of things
R0 should be a Noetherian ring. Your not assuming that it is a field, but if it is a field then it is Noetherian, so the condition would hold.
The point is that corollary 1.3 is about algebras over a field, so they're explaining the connection to that.
But what you're asked to prove is more general
And I guess in general when you have a ring and someone says it's Noetherian they mean it's Noetherian as a ring, not as a Z-module.
How do we know R_0 is a ring?
if we have a polynomial of the form $y^2 + y \cdot s(z) + t(z) \in K[y, z]$ that is reducible, can we conclude that a factorization must be of the form $(y + p(z))(y + q(z))$
Why must it contain 1?
eggman
It means R_0 is a Noetherian ring
R_0 is always a ring
I don’t really think this is ambiguous
Why must R_0 always be a ring? I see nothing in the definition implying that
1 has to be of degree 0
Because it multiples everything to itself
If it has any other parts of any other degree it wouldn’t be able to do that because it would push some homogeneous element outside of the degree it’s supposed to live in
R_0 multiplies itself into itself
And is closed under additio
And has a 0
I think the answer is yes, and requires you to recognize that k[y,z] = k[z][y], and that reducible is a condition that can be stated purely ring theoretically. So to be reducible as a poly in y and z is the same as being reducible as a poly in y, over the ring k[z]. Then you notice that over k[z] this is a monic quadratic in y, and so has to factor as two linears in y
oh i get it, thanks
Np
ah that figures, thanks
Np
person2709505
Correction: Lambda is the set of $P$-orbits of $\Sigma$. Also, can I write $\Lambda=^P\Sigma$?
person2709505
hey guys
can someone help me with a problem from gallian
i don't understand the solution and the final is in 45 minutes
chat i need help:
the problem asks to prove that a group of order 375 has a subgroup of order 15
💀
we gonna fail together
🙏
ok so there's only 1 sylow 5-subgroup
and there's 1 or 25 sylow 3-subgroups
if theres 1 its trivial
if there's 25 sylow 3-subgroups
the solution says that if there are 25 sylow 3-subgroups, then the index of the normalizer is 25
why is that?
isn't that just one of the sylow theorems?
really?
doesn't seem to be one
OH I AM SO SORRY
its listed on the wikipedia page and in the lecture notes we got at least
yeah
I DIDN'T SEE THAT
embarassing!
i agree 😔
good luck with your final
its chill we both got bamboozled
Good luck with the final folks
thank you eggman
thank you person2709505
😭 that actually isn't stated in our book
we have the weird version of sylow
yeah gallian doesn't have it
What is the foregoing argument we are applying to P (the supposed element of Pi \setminus Sigma)? Surely not the one that starts "let P be in Sigma"? Does Sigma refer to the same thing on the second page as on the first?
Is it just me or is this proof written rather compactly
There is literally no other place in the proof where we have some chain of reasoning that starts with a Sylow p subgroup of our choosing
I mean, the problem isn't asking for the subgroup to be normal.
So just take the product of your sylow 5-subgroup and one of the sylow 3-subgroups and that's a subgroup of order 15
It's not so much a sylow thing as just in general the index of the normalizer is equal to the number of conjugates of a subgroup.
All the sylow subgroups are conjugate so then the number of conjugates is the number of sylow subgroups
It's a little confusing that they reuse the symbol P.
But yeah Sigma is the same set as before, and the foregoing argument is the one where a sylow p-subgroup only fixes itself.
So if P is not in Sigma, then Sigma has no P-orbits of size 1, which means |Sigma| is 0 mod p.
But it's not 0 it's 1, hence contradiction.
Hm I think another way of saying this is that on the first page we let the new P (not in Sigma) partition Sigma into orbits right?
Yes exactly. We partition Sigma into P-orbits each of which has size p^k for some k. But importantly not k=0
I noticed that in the definition of prime ideals we recuiqre the ideal to live within a commutative ring. I'm a confused as to why we recquire this.
Ok, thanks. Your description is clearer I think
You can define prime ideals for noncommutative rings (and people do), but they don't play any particularly interesting role in noncommutative algebra.
Their importance is for commutative algebra and algebraic geometry / algebraic number theory, so that's the setting most people define it in
I see, thanks a lot for the insight!
Is there a minimally error-prone way to find the sign of a permutation? (Trying not to lose marks on an exam)
Finding a determinant seems finicky
why are you doing a determinant lol
What is your definition of sign @coral steeple
Determinant of the permutation matrix
ok yea there are a bunch of other definitions you should know
proving these are equivalent takes some work but at the least you should know some other characterizations
So one classic theorem is that every permutation can be expressed as a product of transpositions (I recommend you prove this at least, it's not hard)
Is that a good method, expanding everything out as in the proof that the transpositions generate Sn?
I'd need to check how many steps we used
For a permutation $\sigma$, the minimum number of transpositions needed to express $\sigma$ is called the length of $\sigma$. If $\sigma$ has length $\ell$, then it's sign is $(-1)^\ell$
Spamakin🎷
But arguably the quickest way is to count the number of inversions
Oh hey I remember that from intro linear algebra (not this course though)
For a permutation $\sigma$, an inversion is a pair $(i, j)$ where $i < j$ but $\sigma(j) < \sigma(i)$. If the number of inversions of $\sigma$ is $k$, then it's sign is $(-1)^k$
these are all equivalent, but it isn't immediate that these are all equivalent
Spamakin🎷
So we have 2^n pairs to check?
n^2 pairs
A little less, cause i < j
n choose 2
so like you don't need to check both (2, 3) and (3, 2)
@tardy hedge ? am i correct in saying it as an antihomomorphism
why did you tag me
Im assuming mistake?
i thought u meant something by hearting the message
im sorry
no worries
I suppose xy could be 1
In C4, there are no two distinct elements of order 2
Not necessarily, take D8 = < s, sr >
Well anyhow G is contained in {1,x,y,xy}, so it has order 3 or 4. With what you said in mind it is C3 or C_2^2. 2 doesn't divide 3 so it's C_2^2. No?
But what if xy≠yx ?
can you think of a presentation of the latter that would make sense as a dihedral group?
No, which is why I was confused...
think about the dihedral group
how do we usually construct it
or any example of a dihedral group i mean
I had convinced myself that xy=yx somehow
theres a way to do that
pretty easily from the givens
||whats the inverse of xy?||
glad i could help
If A is a subset of a group G, and gAg^-1 is contained in A for all g in G, is <A> necessarily normal? This seems obvious but I can't prove it
My guess would be to look at the intersection of all normal subgroups containing A. I couldn't get that to work
Obviously if A is not finite then explicitly writing down elements of <A> is not possible
Yes
They are all of a certain form
$\langle A\rangle=\prod_{\substack{a\in I\subseteq A\I;\text{ finite}}}a^{\pm 1}$?? Really?
person2709505
Well that might not be right but I mean finite products of powers of elements of A
Somehow I thought that you could only do this when A was finite, or otherwise G or A could be sufficiently big/unwieldy that you can't represent elements of <A>
What is the simplest way to see Q(cbrt 2)!=Q(cbrt 3)?
This always holds
You can also argue this abstractly
Conjugation by any element is an automorphism and preserves conjugacy classes
And A is a union of conjugacy classes
So the intersection <A> of subgroups containing A is preserved under this automorphism
I was trying to keep it simple, but I don't think this approach can lead to something that works, but I'll post the attempt so far anyways.
for the sake of contradiction, suppose they're equal and call L= Q(cbrt 2) = Q(cbrt 3). Because it contains both cbrt(2) and cbrt(3) it contains their product, so L must contain K = Q(cbrt(6)) as a subfield.
[L:Q] = [L:K][K:Q]
But [L:Q]=3 and [K:Q]=3 means [L:K]=1 and so L=K.
I had thought it would be more obvious from this step now that all 3 fields are equal, but nothing stands out to me here.
Thanks
Hello all. If N is normal in G, a finite group and H is any subgroup of G, why does the order of pi(H) (pi the projection map G to G/N) divide the order of H?
pi(H) is isomorphic to H/HcapN by the first isomorphism theorem.
So |H| = |HcapN| * |pi(H)|
Oh... of course I should have been thinking about ker pi|_H. Thanks!
An A-module M can only be given a natural A/a-module structure when the ideal a is subset of Ann(M) right?
If you have an A-module M with maximal ideal m subset of Ann(M), M can be given an A/m-module strucutre so M is a vector space now, but if you take x in Ann(M)\m (so x is nonzero in A/m) and m in M, then xm = 0 for nonzero m, but i thought this cannot happen in a vector space?
What am I missing?
If I have a decomposition of a permutation into disjoint cycles, then I can write each cycle (i1 i2 ... ik) as (j ik) ... (j i1) for j not among the i_l. Hence sgn(i1 ... ik) is (-1)^k. Doesn't that mean that the sign of a permutation is (-1)^(length of the cycle decomposition)?
The first two assertions are slightly wrong
The third depends on how you define length
My supervisor told me I got A+ on the module theory course and exam. Pretty much i owe it to u guys 😂
Im not sure where i would be knowledge wise if it werent for this server
1st small detail: sgn(i_1 ... i_k) is equal to (-1)^(k-1), not (-1)^k. Otherwise you'd be saying that any 2-swap is an even permutation
If m is maximal and contained in Ann(M), then m=Ann(M).
So there is no such x
but yes, if the cycle type decomposition of of some permutation sigma is rho_1 rho_2 ... rho_k, then sign(sigma) = sign(rho_1) * sign(rho_2) * .... * sign(rho_k) = (-1)^[(n_1-1) + (n_2 - 1) + ... + (n_k-1)] as you'd expect
it's not the length of the cycle decomposition. unfortunately just knowing that tells you nothing about whether if a permutation is even or odd. Specifically, you need to know the cycle type of the permutation, i.e. the length of each disjoint cycle, which is what you need
Well, sometimes you have canonical ring homomorphisms from A/a to A.
For example Q[x]/(x) is canonically a subring of Q[x]. So I guess in those cases you could make M into an A/a module without a being in the annihilator.
This is sort of a rare case though
Ah right of course. Well that claim was right up to constants at least 
Nice! This seems easier than counting inversions assuming you have the cycle decomposition as well...
UGOBEL
A4 is the standard counterexample for "converse of lagrange's theorem"
6 divides 12, but A4 doesn't have a subgroup of order 6
There are two non-commuting elements of order two in S_3
(12) and (23)?
Yes
It’s a proof that S_3 isn’t a subgroup of A_4
As all the order 2 elements of A_4 commute
Thank you!
Yeah but prooving that S3 isn’t a subgroup of A4 dosn’t mean that A4 doesn’t have a subgroup of order 3!
My english is so bad lmao
That C_6 isn’t a subgroup either is easy
C ?
Z6 ?
Yes, that’s another way of denoting the same thing
We don’t have the same notation lol
C_6, Z/6Z and (in an irritating clash of notation) Z_6 can all denote the same thing
I generally use C_6 for the group, Z/6Z for the ring (if you don’t know what that is, it’s just a different type of structure) and don’t use Z_6
The groups of order 6 are C_6 and S_3 (prove this if you haven’t seen it)
Don’t call me bro
Oh ok ok i forgot it
A_4 doesn’t have an element of order 6 (prove this) so can’t have a subgroup isomorphic to C_6
A_4 doesn’t have two non-commuting elements of order 2 (prove this) so can’t have a subgroup isomorphic to S_3
Why ? Sorry but it’s not bad
And I’d prefer not to be called bro
Ok ok mb
I got it thx
is D_3 isomorphic to S_3 then?
Yes (assuming you use the convention where D_3 is the symmetry group of the triangle)
although the other convention doesn't make sense here so lol
Lol yes
Another neat argument - a subgroup of order 6 would be index 2 and therefore normal. Now, in A_4 there are two distinct conjugacy classes of the 3-cycles (work out what these are yourself). In particular, a 3-cycle in A_4 is never conjugate to its inverse. But, if such a subgroup H is normal and contains a 3-cycle x, x must necessarily be conjugate to x^-1 since H is normal, a contradiction.
I like this a lot because it doesn’t invoke the fact that the only groups of order 6 are S_3 and Z_6
Why does H normal => x, x^-1 conjugate?
Because of [G : H] = 2
This actually isn’t correct I think off the top of my head
My bad
A better way to do it is to consider a 3-cycle a not in H
Then H, aH partition A_4
So a^2 must be in H since a is in aH but then a^2 a^2 = a a^3 = a in H
A contradiction
Thanks for pointing out the error
Either way the argument is still nice bc it doesn’t invoke anything specific about groups of order 6
Hmm I guess it’s true
Because SOME 3-cycle in H must be conjugate to x^-1
And then since the 3-cycles in H are conjugate to each other (exactly one conjugacy class is contained in H) we’re done
By composition of conjugation
Why?
gHg^-1 = H by normality
But H contains x^-1 if it contains x
And 3-cycles can ONLY be conjugate to 3-cycles (since conjugation preserves cycle decomposition in S_4 it does so in A_4)
So only the 3-cycles in H can be possibly conjugate to the 3-cycle x^-1
And we know it is conjugate by normality
So at least one of the 3-cycles is conjugate and we’re done
(I’m not very good at group theory if you can’t tell)
One of the three cycles is conjugate to x^-1, but we don't know that it's x
Yeah, but all the 3-cycles are conjugate to each other in H
Since H contains the conjugacy class
So then we can compose the conjugations
We don't know that
Hmm
The 3-cycles could be a union of two (or more) conjugacy classes
Then we have too many elements
Each conjugacy class has 3 elements and H is of order 6
So if we have two classes we automatically have at least 6 elements not including the identity
conjugacy class has 3 elements
How?
Just computing it
How are you computing it?
Just by writing out the conjugations
I have an abstract proof in my abstract algebra homework somewhere
For the fact that x isn’t conjugate to x^-1
But idr the argument off the top of my head
Each ccl of 3-cycles in A_4 has size 4
But these could split in H
Direct computation works though
H is normal, so gHg^-1 = H and so conjugation by anything fixes H
So if we have anything in the conjugacy class
We have the whole conjugacy class
Yes
My point is that while |ccl_{A_4}(x)| = 4, we could have |ccl_{H}(x)| = 2 (as the element conjugating x to half of the conjugacy class is in A_4 but not H)
It doesnt matter if it’s in H
By normality
Right?
Normality means gHg^-1 = H for all g in G = A_4
I mean yeah the whole A_4 ccl will be in H
But that won't necessarily be one ccl in H
Yeah but it doesn’t need to be conjugate in H
Being conjugate in A_4 is enough
Because if x and y are conjugate to each other and y is our element such that y is conjugate to x^-1
We compose the conjugations in A_4
Which gives the contradiction
UGOBEL
Oh dang ok it was confusing me looking at the rings of fractions construction in d/f versus in atiyah
In d/f they assume the multiplicatively closed subset ALSO has no zero divisors
they dont do this in a/m
That's weird. So d/f never defines localization at primes?
Eh?
They dont in section 7.5 which is what i was looking through
Surely that can’t be true…
I think they revisit the topic in chapter 15
I feel like every time I learn about the ring of fractions thing, there is some added detail that I learn that I didnt know about before lol
the first time i learned about it, it was only for an ID so it was the field of fractions
Well I guess it makes sense to define it first for non-zero divisors, before jumping in to the added complexity
then i saw that oh the ring doesnt have to be a domain and u can just add in some fractions etc
yea
But either way the constructions are pretty similar.
You just need to be careful that
a/b = sa/sb
in the zero divisor case
I think I aced my group theory final. Many thanks to everyone who's helped me on here.
wdym by this?
When you are putting the relation on A x S where S is just a mult closed subset (could have zero divisors), the ring of fractions still has inverses for any pair (a,b) where a and b are in S right?
Like if sa = 0 for some s, then a/b should be 0, because
a/b = sa/sb = 0/sb
oh ok so you cant say that every (a,b) has an inverse just when a,b are in S
I'm not sure I totally follow what you're saying, but to construct the localization you still look at AxS, except you mod out by the ideal of things annihilated by something in S.
my question is, in the ring of fractions on A x S, is every element (a,b) where a and b are in S a unit?
No, right?
because of this problem, some (a,b) pairs are actually just 0
They're units yes. The inverse is (b, a)
If a unit is 0 then every element of the ring is 0.
But that could happen sure
You'll notice this only happens if 0 is in S though
I think i got hung up on ur example with the zero divisor in S
in that case we have a unit being 0
(a,b) ~ 0
but that came from simply just having a zero divisor in S?
(a, b) is only a unit if a is in S
Oh
Otherwise there is no (b, a)
yes
I think what you're confused on is the construction of the field of fractions. if S is a ring, then we "want" to say that its field of fractions is the set of all elements of the form a/b, but you're discovering right now that it doesn't work out when S has zero divisors
so, in practise, the field of fractions of S is constructed as S^2 / <R>
where R is the ideal generated by the equivalence relation on the ordered pairs
I guess a nice example might be
A = k[x, y]/(xy) and S = {1, x, x^2, ...}
Then for example y/x = 0 because y/x = yx/x^2 = 0/x^2 = 0
The localization is isomorphic to k[x, x^-]
You can always think of localization in two steps:
killing of everything annihilated by S. Then in this new quotient ring the elements of S are no longer zero-divisors.
Then you do localization as you would without zero divisors.
so if a is in S and it is a zero divisor then (a,b) is a unit but its also 0 so the ring of fractions is 0?
oh wait
Not all zero-divisors become 0.
Just those annihilated by some s in S
You may note in the example above that x is a zero divisor in S.
Thanks, these are unexpectedly subtle details to me that i didnt notice at first
so that bs is still in S so u can write (a,b) = (as, bs)?
Yup that's the idea
I'm trying to show x^4+x^2 y^2 +y^3 is irreducible over C. I don't see a nice way to apply eisenstein. I was figuring maybe I can prove it has no root in C[x] since it is degree 3 over C[x] but I don't see why this couldn't be true either.
I've also considered trying to reduce mod some convenient ideal but I have gotten nowhere with that either.
Any tips or ideas?
I mean looking for roots is not so bad.
It can't have degree 3 or higher, so you just have to plug in a + bx + cx^2
That feels kinda rough having to cube that square that and so on
The end result would just be to try and get an inconsistent system of equations in a,b and c right?
Yeah, I mean it's kinda immediate that a=0, then from there it shouldn't be much work
I could have sworn you said later that you didn't care if it required more high tech machinery but was too busy to respond at the time. Example I was gonna give was in the 31-adics you have cbrt(2) but not cbrt(3) which can be checked by modular arithmetic. So the even larger field Q_31 has Q(cbrt(2)) as a subfield but not Q(cbrt(3)), so they can't be equal.
Okay, pretty sure I see it. I was making this way too complicated lmao. Thank you for the help! 
Okay, I have spoken too soon. Why can't it have degree 3 or higher?
Well what happens if you plug in something of degree 3 or higher?
Leading term degree too big to cancel
Bingo
Oh doot congrats on pink mod (or apologies? Both are kind of appropiate tbh)
gemini gave an explanation which roughly works out to this, I'm curious if it's right or I'm missing something
x^3-2 is irreducible over Z[cbrt(3)] by Eisenstein's and thus over Q(cbrt(3)) by Gauss's
I guess you now have to prove Z[cbrt(3)] is an integral domain
well its a subring of R
nice
nvm you need it to be a UFD to apply gauss'
which, maybe it is but good luck proving
Wdym, can you elaborate?
Ah nvm, I confused what was the polynomial ring and what was the coefficient ring
nice, then the 31-adic way is undefeated 😌
Yeah I did realize
This is fine as long as you pass to a completion. But some care is needed, because this doesn't work if you do this the other way around (ie, try to apply Eisenstein's criterion to x^3-3 from Z[cbrt 2]). So in the end you have to compute ramifications, but you might just notice that the ramifications are different in the first place (I said this but I deleted idk why)
oh you can construct a field of fractions even when S is not an integral domain?
I never knew that 👀
Your method is somewhat computational tho, a priori you don't know which prime will work (I haven't checked if 31 is the smallest). Let n>1 an integer, a, b distinct positive integers free of nth powers. Then I think Q(a^(1/n)) and Q(b^(1/n)) should be distinct. Can you find a prime p such that x^n-a is irreducible mod p while x^n-b splits completely mod p, both being separable?
Bruhh... the dual of A4 isn't trivial at all :///
it is for n >= 5 lmao i'm unlucky
No. If you had a non-integral domain R you can pick an x,y in R-{0} where xy=0. If R had a field of fractions F, R embeds into F, so xy=0 in F and this is impossible in a field because every field is also an integral domain.
The general trick is called localization. It's similar but because of the issue I mentioned it won't always give you a field.
You do it relative to a multiplicatively closed subset of your commutative ring. In the special case where your ring is an integral domain and your subset is R-{0} you get the field of fractions.
The elements of the multiplicatively closed subsets become units when you do the construction.
The equivalence relation is sorta different but I think by cancellation in the integral domain case they end up being the same relation.
I could be mixing some of this stuff up tho
If you allow 0 as a denominator in ring of fractions then you get the zero ring right
yeah
Going through basics of group theory
Assume N is a normal subgroup of G
Then there is a correspondence of subgroups of G containing N and subgroups of G/N
This correspondence also preserves quite a lot of structure
A < B iff mapping(A) < mapping(B)
A normal in B iff mapping(A) normal in mapping(B)
Anyone got intuition on the properties being preserved?
This feels pretty important to grok, and it hasn't really clicked for me yet
Given a property, I wouldn't know how to easily check if it's being preserved by the correspondence
Is it easier to think about normal/quotient groups through homomorphisms?
As in, ker Gamma instead of N, Image of Gamma instead of G/N
Well the first Isomorphism theorem gives you the latter about why homomorphisms are important when discussing normal and quotient groups
the correspondence theorem is further in that if you have a subgroup H that containsN normal in G and a homomorphism Phi: G to G/N the image of the subgroup is also a subgroup
theres more to it than that
we get a nice bit of lattice theory for free from it, and its like the trees by inclusion of subgroups (disregarding the converging node of the whole group) with a root that is the normal subgroup are (almost) perserved across homomorphisms with the normal group as its kernel
How important is the material on tensor products in atiyah macdonald? In my reading course, it doesnt look like my professor is assigning me questions about tensor product stuff so id rather skip some stuff for now if i can
I dont mean important generally, i imagine tensor products are important (although atm i havent seen really how yet lol), i just want to be able to read through a/m and if I can safely ignore some tensor product stuff then i would like to know
It kinda seems like they just pop up in a/m to illustrate how tensor product interacts with whatever construction the chapter is introducing
Personally if the content is well written I see no reason to pass it up but if you feel its kind of flagrantly put there and its not critical to your course dont pay it much mind
Yeah, honesty its mostly because i need to get this reading course done asap
Normally i would like to spend ample time understanding everything
Flagrantly is a good word
Tensor products are worth a visit, mostly because tensors show up everywhere when you want to multilinearize complicated systems
,av
Wow
Jay Cutler evolution
When you localize at p, the ring Ap has exactly one maximal ideal, but it can have other proper ideals right?
@abstract rock TY for the writeup, atm when I have questions like "is something preserved under the correspondence", I'll start off asking "is it preserved under preimage of a homomorphism", feels pretty natural from some examples I worked through
the unfortunate thing anout the correspondence theorem, and why i said almost, is that the correspondence is simply a bijevtion
it may not preserve the edges of the tree i mentioned
this makes it act like a dual sword, you cant make too explicit a statement without using more information
Yah
In particular, I believe the ideals contained in your ideal you localize remain ideals of your localization
Yes, every ideal of a localization A_S looks like I_S = IA_S
But you can have non equal ideals I and J with IA_S = JA_S
This is not true however if you assert that I and J are prime (or primary)
yeah it's a bit computational, but it's sorta simple compared to the other diophantine stuff I think you were suggesting earlier. I just tried finding the smallest p where only one of 2 or 3 was a cubic residue.
I'm thinking it might be possible to prove for every pair a,b with gcd(a,b)=1 and fixed n that there exists a prime p where exactly one is an nth power residue and the other isn't. At least if that ends up being relatively easy to prove we get the more general statement about field extensions from it
maybe the gcd condition isn't necessary lol idk I just made this up 
Do solvable finite groups with a trivial center exist?
Like S3 for example
Trivial group
I'm doing some exercises in Naive Lie Theory, is $$\begin{bmatrix} \cos(\theta) & -\sin(\theta) & 0 & 0 \ \sin(\theta) & \cos(\theta) & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$$ correct for 2.6.1?
sheddow
(and 2.6.2 would be the same but swapping rows/columns 1, 2 with 3, 4, right?)
That seems right to me
For 2.6.3, is it enough to just observe that $$\begin{bmatrix} \cos(\theta) & -\sin(\theta) & 0 & 0 \ \sin(\theta) & \cos(\theta) & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$$ and $$\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & \cos(\theta) & -\sin(\theta) \ 0 & 0 & \sin(\theta) & \cos(\theta)\end{bmatrix}$$ are both subgroups isomorphic to $S^1$ with trivial intersection?
sheddow
No
You need to observe that they commute as well
Then you’re essentially done
I see, thanks 
I know that topologically, S^3 is clearly different from S1 x S1 x S1 (the latter is not simply connected for one), but I'm not seeing a group theoretic argument. Any hints?
Figured it out, S^3 is not abelian
(Answering the second paragraph) Take a=1 and b=2^n lol. Recall also that 16 is an 8th power mod every p. Anyway, there are some edge cases that need to be excluded.
Even for n=2 this seems not entirely obvious to me. Sure, you can use quadratic reciprocity. You can also use reciprocity for nth powers for the general case, although some more care would be needed here (for n an odd prime Eisenstein reciprocity would suffice). Ideally tho, we would want something simpler
I'm not surprised those conditions don't work
was just brainstorming 
personally I'm satisfied with this proof being simple enough, at this point I'd only be interested in trying to generalize the idea to come up with a lemma to show "there exists a prime p" without having to actually cook it up, but that'd definitely be more work
like I guess the annoying generalization to go for would be, given f,g polynomials irreducible over Q, does there exist a Q_p where one stays irreducible and the other splits completely?
I am pretty sure I can cook up counterexamples to that so don't waste your time lol
I think the Grunwald-Wang theorem might be a possible generalization? I have never payed attention to it until now, the statement in Neukirch was kind of cryptic when I first read it lol. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grunwald–Wang_theorem
It's also in Artin-Tate, chapter X (the screenshot is from Neukirch's cohomology of number fields)
interesting I'll think about it, better than wasting my time trying to put a condition on say, divisors of the resultant of f, g or some random garbage lol
16 being an 8th power mod all primes is pretty much the only exception (this is accounted for in the GW theorem). In Theorems 0.6 and 0.7 here https://ishanina.github.io/PROMYS/Local-Global Principle for nth Powers/Local-Global_Principle_for_nth_Powers.html the result is stated carefully.
Morally a similar statement to what you are suggesting is the one that follow from Chebotarev, that says that if Spl(K)=Spl(L) for L,K Galois number fields then L=K. There are examples where Spl(K)=Spl(L) but L!=K, but in that case L and K are not both Galois over Q. So probably this kind of problems are harder in the non-abelian case, or even the non-solvable case. But dunno, I have to do other things now
cool, thanks. Yeah I'm tired so won't be thinking about this tonight either
R(+,•)
a+b=a+b-1
a•b=a+b-1
Can this be a field cuz it is following all the axioms?
+and- on the rhs in both is std ones
is your + and * the same operation?
They are addition and multiplication respectively but yes I have defined them so as to give the same result
a+b=a•b
The only ring for which + = * is the trivial ring
every element under + has an inverse, but not every element under * has an inverse, so they can't be the same in a field.
But
a+b = a + b - 1
a*b = ab - b - a + 2
is a field
Yes the additive identity shouldn't be having a multiplicative inverse .here also the additive identity 1 is not having an multiplicative inverse
I see
As for the axioms, distributivity fails in your example
Oh shit yeah missed it...thanks
Hey. How can i show that the induced representation of the identity (Ind^G_H 1) is reducible?
What do you mean when you say "the identity" here?
Like the trivial representation?
It's not so hard to see that the induced representation contains the trivial representation as a subrepresentation, so unless H=G this would give a proper subrepresentation
(assuming H has finite index relatively prime to the characteristic of your field)
I still dont understant very well induced representations,
I am strugling a bit to get the concept.
I am a master student on theoretical physics and thought it would be fun to take a group class. But, i didn't thought how hard it would be since my mathmatical background is a little bit different. Ahahahhahahah
So if V is a representation of H, then one construction of the induced representation is to pick representatives g1, ..., gm for the cosets gH.
Then the induced representation is the direct sum of m copies of V (one for each coset). Then g in G acts on (gi, v) by first picking gj such that ggiH = gjH, then h in H so that ggi = gjh. Then
g(gi, v) = (gj, hv).
If V is the trivial representation, then we can ignore the action of h. So you just have G acting on a vector space with basis G/H
I would recommend looking at some examples if you find it difficult
Okok thank you 🙂
What’s the fastest way to find the dual of Sn ?
Knowing the dual of Sn is isomorph to the dual of Sn/An which contains 2 elements, we can find it quickly
But I guess that we have to know the signature morphism
$$\frac{1}{1+x}= \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}(-1)^{k}x^{k}.$$
yeshua
Is there a name for the elements of U(1) with finite order
roots of unity
Is there a name for the group of all roots of unity
it's just called the group of roots of unity I don't believe there's a special name
well it makes sense because the RHS is a finite sum
so there aren't any convergence problems
alr, so my guess was true, now what should i write for the proof
if x is nilpotent, 1+x is a unit, so is 1-x
mentioning this will suffice ?
you can just write 1 = 1 - x^n = (1-x)(1+x+x^2+... + x^{n-1})
So 1-x is a unit
is this closed under *
0<1+xy<2 so 1/(1+xy)>1/2 with no upper bound
and -2<x+y<2 so x*y need not be an element of (-1;1) right ?
in fact, it doesn't necessary need to make sense just when x is nilpotent - but of course it has to make sense that way if we're restricted to only taking about polynomial rings
from the algebraic point of view, power series can be considered independently whether if the sum strictly "converges" or not
specifically what I'm talking about right now is the ring of formal power series, denoted R[[x]]
and in that ring, (1+x)^-1 = sum (-1)^k x^k
(note that I'm choosing to write (1+x)^-1 instead of 1/(1+x) here - because even though they functionally behave the exact same, I want you to think about it as the inverse function of 1+x, and not as the fraction)
another way of approaching this, is that you can view sum (-1)^k x^k as the result you get by solving for the generating function of the inverse of 1+x
one slick way to make this final step, by the way, is to notice that f(x) = -x is an automorphism of any polynomial ring
and thus since 1+x is a unit, f(1+x) = 1-x must also be a unit :)
very slick
hmm i see, that would be overkilling of the problem hypothesis here
a neat way of thinking about this, and yeah it's probably very much outside the scope of whatever the original problem was, is that the inverse of 1+x always exists inside of R[[x]]
i have heard just a lil bit about that ring, but it never made sense to me
But as R[x] is contained within R[[x]] as a subring, if you substitute your x to be nilpotent then that inverse "collapses" into the lower polynomial ring
lol, you just throw any notion of convergence out the window
that's it
may i ask for a good text and problemset for rings
you just purely think of power series as objects satisfying some algebraic properties
i wanna be better at it
hmm
im trying to solve undergraduate algebra by lang rn
let me check it out first real quick I didn't even know there was an undergrad version lmaoo
haha, me neither then i found it in my folder
I used artin alegrba, which is free online
the content is roughly the same, but lang split the chapter on rings into a chaper on rings + a chapter on polynomial (..rings, lol)
as far as I could tell the content is roughly the same, so you can just focus on the problems I think
http://www.alefenu.com/libri/artin.pdf
oh yeah, im aware about that one, ok i will solve these two then
well, G after being an abelian group with +
how can it mess up to not form a ring
There’s lots of answers but here’s just one example
Say every element in G has finite order, but this is unbounded
Then it can’t be a ring, because 1 would have some finite order k but then
0 = 0•x = k•x = x + x + … + x
So the order of every element x in R is <= k
But by this assumption you have some x with order > k cuz it’s unbounded
An example of an abelian group with this property is like, Q/Z
Q/Z type beat ?
Hahaha
well a tangent, but can we generalise the construction of Q/Z via free groups ?
Most would just call it Q/Z if you just care up to isomorphism
Hi, I am confused as to why the gcd assumption is necessary for the converse of this result:
More specifically, I don't see why I cannot argue it in this manner (which doesn't use the gcd assumption): Suppose p(x) in R[x] is reducible. Then there exists a(x), b(x) both non units in R[x], such that p(x) = a(x)b(x). Now, since a(x), b(x) are non units in R[x], they are non constant (since R[x] is an integral domain) so the same factorization shows that p(x) is reducible in F[x]
here is our definition of irreducible and reducible:
^ i misread as "the god assumption", was confused and intrigued
2x is reducible in Z[x] but not Q[x]
I don't see how R[x] integral domain implies a(x),b(x) nonconstant
without assuming gcd requirement
Here is my argument: In an integral domain, deg ( pq) = deg p + deg q as long both p and q are nonzero. If x is a unit, then there exists x^-1 such that deg(xx^-1) = deg(1) = 0. Thus both x and x^-1 must be of degree 0, and thus constant.
Now since, a(x) and b(x) are both non unit they must be nonconstant polys (i think)
why
your proof does not show that
oh wait
I see my mistake now
constants can be non unit too
thanks for the time and help
np
why are extension and contractions of ideals make my brain stop
so annoying
Not sure about proof of iii)
Dont know what implication is coming from where
too short
Can we decompose a inner porduct between two characters into to inner products?
Being a non-unit doesn’t mean non-constant
Consider 2 in Z[x]
But the problem is if you factored as a•b(x) with a constant, then the gcd of the coefficients wasn’t 1
So this forces the factorization to actually use two non-constants
does anyone recognise the minus symbol at the botton right?
$\ominus$
jagr2808
i mean the meaning of the symbol
Presumably it's the inverse with respect to oplus
And indeed that checks out with the formulas
hm im trying it out now but why would $(x,y)+(x,y+x^2)=(x+x,y+y+x^2+x^2)=(0,0)$
somethingwrong
So x+x = 0, and similarly y+y and x^2 + x^2 so it becomes (0, 0) which is the identity
oh cause GF(q) is just C_2*C_2...C_2 a times so everything is an involution
okay thank you i got it
For a monomial $\overline{x}^\alpha$, let $|\alpha| = \sum_{i = 1}^n \alpha_i$ for $\alpha \in \mathbb{Z}_{\geq 0}^n$.
An ordering $>$ on monomials is \emph{degree-anticompatible*} if $|\alpha| \leq |\beta| \implies \overline{x}^\alpha \geq \overline{x}^\beta$.
Exercise 4.4.3 of Cox, Little, and O'Shea's \emph{Using Algebraic Geometry} is the following:
Let $>$ be a degree-anticompatible ordering on either of the local rings $k[\overline{x}]_{\langle x_1, \ldots, x_n\rangle}$ or $k[[\overline{x}]]$.
Show that any nonempty set of monomials $\mathcal{S}$ is bounded below.
This should be straightforward but after mulling over it for some time it's not coming to me. It also isn't clear why we need to consider just these local rings when we can have degree-anticompatible orderings over any polynomial ring.
Spamakin🎷
is there any canonical construction of a two sided ideal in a noncommutative ring ?
I think yes, there is no reason for no
The ideal generated by a single element x consists of sums of things of the form rxs with r and s in your ring.
But note that these sums can't necessarily be simplified down to one term as in the one sided case, as in for example
rxs + txu
might be the simplest form of this element.
Is there a notion of ring presentation like there is for groups?
I was thinking about the integers and it seemed like the way a ring would naturally arise without extra relations
In the same way that for groups, the free group on one element is isomorphic to the integers
Yes there is
There’s also a “natural map” I saw in class from the integers to any ring and it was pretty clearly unique and I’m not sure if there’s another ring that has something similar to this
When I say map I mean ring homomorphism here
Usually one says a map of commutative rings A -> B is of finite presentation if there exists some n and a surjection A[x1,...,xn] -> B with finitely generated kernel
The free ring is the ring of noncommutative polynomials over Z (or just polynomials if you're rings are commutative).
So in particular Z is the free ring on 0 generators
Are the x’s the generating elements of the kernel
I feel like this is kinda cheating cause Z is already in the definition but that does make sense
I mean that's not the definition of free ring, that's just what it happens to be
The definition is the adjoint to the forgetful functor
Oh so the definition comes from category theory?
I mean this definition of free ring does seem natural
I’m not sure how it’s formulated
L+M might not be the union of the subsets i.e. L\cupM, right ?
then whats is the technical distinction bw the cases when it is vs when it is not, is that distinction recognised in the literaure as anything ?
Pretty sure that the sum is the union iff one is contained in the other
seeing one direction was not that hard
So in general for some algebraic object, say rings
The free ring on a set X is the ring F(X) such that homomorphisms F(X) -> R are exactly given by functions (between sets) X -> R.
So for example a map Z[x] -> R is exactly given by choosing one element in R that x maps to, and you can choose this element arbitrarily.
The definition is the same for groups, abelian groups, monoids, etc.
For 3, if x is in a^ec then xs is in a for some s right
.
Can I say that the permutation representation is the S_n representation?
I mean Sn has many representations. Though I guess that one stands out in particular
We could show that, if something is a permutation representatio, it's always reducible making as an argument the Sn group being always reducible for n>1? This makes sense?
I don't know that you mean by "the Sn group being always reducible".
And if you're just talking about permutation representations of arbitrary groups, then they don't have that much to do with Sn anymore. Although you can involve Sn if you like.
Oh okok
are we talking abuot representation theory ?
Yea
I am trying to show that the Induced representation of the trivial representation is reducible.
oh ok then, higher echelon stuffs
And since i found that the induced representation of the trivial representation is the permutation representation, maybe i could argue that since its that I could conclude that is reducible.
No sure if this is true tho.
Can someone please tell me what “meets” means
So G acts on G/H by multiplication on the left. And inducing the trivial permutation from H gives you the permutation representation of G/H.
One way to show that this is reducible is to show that the trivial representation is a subrepresentation.
I.e. you have to find an element in the span of G/H that is fixed by the action of G. Are you able to do that?
Has non-empty intersection with
M is an ideal of a C.R. ( M^2 \subsetneq M ),
equality holds when M is idempotent.
yeshua
true ?
If we know that Sn have only An as a normal none trivial subgroup for n =3 and n >= 5, we can get quickly D(Sn) because D(Sn) isn't trivial, and Sn/An is abelian.
Hmmmmm... not sure.
n = 4 is borring but it's ok
What if we take an example.
Say G = {g, 1} is a cyclic group of order 2, and say H is the trivial group.
Then we're just looking at CG = {ag + b} where G acts by left multiplication. Can you find an element that is fixed by the action of g?
Ok, I may sound dumb but I am struggling a bit here. Ahhahahah can you say the element and give me another example? Sometimes I need a concrete example.
Well, maybe I can give you one more hint first.
g * (ag + b) = ag*g + bg = bg + a
So when will
ag + b = bg + a
Okkk, so... every element when a=b?
Indeed, and maybe you can make a guess at the general pattern here as well
A general pattern for a cyclic group larger than 2 or?
Or for any group and permutation module
Ok, so here... let me think...
Ok, first thing first. Using this definition I can show that the induced representation of the trivial representation gives the permutation representation because when acting g on φ(x) = will give φ(xg), since φ(g,h⁻1)=1(h)φ(g)=φ(g)?
Ahh I see, thx a lot
Is it the sum?
It makes sense, since the permutation dont change the sum.
That's right, the sum of all the basis vectors remains the same if you permute them
To be fair I was researching and saw that. Then i thought, ohhhhhhhhhhhhh of course.
There is still one thing bugging me... that is, where the induction representation of the trivial representation takes place.
I am probalby confusing things.
The induced representation of the trivial representation of H, is the permutation module of G/H.
But how can i show that?
I think you now understand that i dont understand induced representations. Ahahahhah
Depends on your definition/construction of the induced representation
hmmmm...i use the defenition of the serre's book.
I'm afraid I don't have his book memorized
Part e. is giving me more trouble than I'd like to admit 💀. Any thoughts would be appreciated on how to show that any set with 3 or more vectors must have a linear dependance in R
Is S^-1A/S^-1p = Sbar^-1(A/p) just a straightforward application of first iso thm?
Nvm its in a prev prop. i will look
well actually that was for modules
Actually, like I was thinking about this earlier
The text showed that formation of modules of fractions is exact
does that apply to exact sequences of rings? I also never even seen exact sequence for rings
I know a ring R can just be viewed as an R-module , so probably right?
Not sure what exact sequence of rings should mean, as the kernel of a ring homomorphism is not a ring
yeah
We have
- group acting on a set: G-set
- ring acting on an abelian group: R-module
- field acting on an abelian group: k-vector space
what are some other examples of actions
Semigroup S acting on an object: S-act
Group linearly acting on a vector space: Representation
Group acting on a ring: G-ring
Group acting on a topological space: G-space
and so on
ooh yes, that's a good one
the other ones I haven't heard of
the collection of actions from a group on an object form an action groupoid (ala group with a partial operation)
do you have an example for this
a field lol
hmm
to be fair im leaving out some adjectives
And Im not exactly an expert on those kinds of objects
yeshua
i think this is true ?
can we generalise this for any number of finite ideals in an arbitrary CR ?
then can we lose the hypothesis of PI and finitely generated as well ?
it's true, because L \cap M = <lcm(a,b)> and LM = <ab>
so if LM = L \cap M, lcm(a,b) = ab and so gcd(a,b) = 1
I'm pretty sure the argument used can be generalised to PIDs to show that if $\prod_{j=1}^k I_j = \bigcap_{j=1}^k I_j$, then $\gcd(n_1, \cdots, n_k) = 1$
HChan
what do you mean by "lose the hypothesis of PI"? because if L and M are no longer PIs the question kind of loses its meaning, no?
oh i meant what if instead of generated by one element they are general ideals
but i wanted to take one step at once to see what is going on
Let G,+ be a group and H a subgroup off G such that [G:H] = 3 and such that there exists an x in G\H with x+H=H+x. Prove that H is a normal subgroup
i have no clue how to start on this
also i used + as my operation but it isnt like the normal + it is just a random operation. If i used * discord would make my text go italic
<@&286206848099549185>
How many cosets are there in G\H? Are there any you can name specifically? How many are left after you do that?
a coset is x+H right? im dutch so we use a completely different word lol
oh yeah so that would mean 3 cosets
one of which has to be e+H where e is the neutral element
oh wait for one of the three x+H= H+x
and that would obv be the one where x=e cuz e+H=H=H+e
OMG WAIT IM SO DUM
x is part of G\H so like x cant be equal to e obv
so e+H=H=H+e
x+H=H=H+x
so there is only one left that we need to prove it for
but
bc the cosets form a partition must y+H = G(e+H U x+H) = G(H+e U H+x) = H+y
so it goes for all three cosets which means H is a normal subgroup
@bitter rover epic that was exactly that small little push i was looking for
thanks
🙂
Bumping this
Thought about it some more and I don't have anything
Just pass to the field of fractions.
Then you see the its a submodule of a 2d vector space
Suppose $U \subset R$ is a multiplicatively closed subset of a ring. My book asks me to show that for any ideal $J \subset R$ we have $R \cap J R\left[U^{-1}\right]=\sum_{f \in U}\left(J: f^{\infty}\right)$ where $\left(J: f^{\infty}\right):=\cup_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(J: f^n\right)$.
How does the intersection $R \cap J R\left[U^{-1}\right]$ make sense? If the localization map is not one-to-one, what does it mean?
EdgarAlnGrow
The preimage by the localization map would be the natural thing to consider, but I'd agree it's a fairly big abuse of notation if it's not injective
Nah
This is defined in Matsumura for example
Given any algebra S you defined I\cap R to be the preimage
I like the notation so it isn’t an abuse of notation

Chmonkey has spoken! The abuse is no more

Im still reporting all of ur accounts for abusive behavior
What
why does chuchu like it?
Simple
Often times you say S is an R algebra without naming the map
So if u wanna do preimage you need to then go back and say f:R -> S
To write f^-1(I)
RAHHHH
wdym? is I a submodule of S over R and you're taking its preimage under the scalar multiplication map R -> S?
Yeah exactly
so what are $S$ and $I$ in $R\cap JR[U^{-1}]$? I would assume $JR[U^{-1}]$ is $S$, but it's not an algebra if $J$ doesn't contain $1$
EdgarAlnGrow
Yeah
It’s push pull
You’ve extended the ideal into the localization
And then contracted it back
You fatten up the ideal as a result
Guys it may be a dumb question, I'm still new to this.. if I have a ring, how can I verify if it's a principal ideals ring without checking every single ideal?
My guess is, if it's a field, it's a PID, then it's a principal ideal ring..
How can you verify every number is even or odd without checking every single number?
If it's divisible by 2 I guess
Well, it's not like you check every number. You prove it using induction and the fact that the natural numbers are well-ordered, or the like.
In other words, you can't prove it without relying on something else you know about the natural numbers.
Same with a PIR. You'll need to be given something else about a ring (beyond it merely being a ring) to say anything definitive.
This highly depends on the ring
For example you can prove ℤ is a PID with little work because you know things about integers
You can prove polynomial rings in general aren't PIDs, such as ℤ[x], because you know things about polynomials
But there is no general algorithm to do this
Just apply the most basic dimension theory 
so true that's totally what I was implying they should do
Also realistically speaking every ring I know being a PID
where's that thread on complicated proofs of basic facts
Is because you showed it’s a Euclidean domain
I think the only exception is a Dedekind domain where every prime is prinicipap is a PID
Cuz u got ideal factorization
My dimension theory is that dimension go up by at least 1 when u do [x] and PIDs r dimension 1

I am completely stuck on this stupid idiot problem
The idea of "such that PA" basically implies I am only alotted row operations
and it's rather easy to understand how you can go down the line, and for each column vector, get the gcd of the column terms below it to the diagonal, and wipe out the lower terms. However i cannot think of an easy way to get the condition that the value of the diagonal terms are the largest in the row
oh wait no it's naturally like that using as I mentioned, misread on the indicies
Use row operations R_j → R_j - c R_i to change the ji^th entry for j < i?
do we have cases where the group operation distributes over the moniod operation
as opposed to a ring
If you loosen monoid to semigroup, then you have something like the positive real numbers (with the roles of addition and multiplication reversed).
As for the monoid case, if + is the monoid and * is the group, then
x*0 = x*(0+0) = x*0 + x*0
so your monoid cannot be cancelative.
Another property you would need if 0^- is the inverse of 0, then
x = 0*0^-*x = (0+0)*0^-*x = 1*x + 1*x = x+x
A similar idea is a distributive lattice, where you will have two monoids that both distribute over eachother.
??
what
Hello guys
Greetings
Jobs bro jobs 😭😭
I wanna proove that there is no surjective morphism from Sn to Sn-1 for n >= 5
UGOBEL
Ye
@slim wren you are loved
what does that mean ?
I don't get why An is simple => Ker phi = An
because ker phi intersection A_n is normal subgroup of An and nontrivial
Why of An ? The intersection of ker phi and An should be a normal subgroup of Sn no ?
well its a subset of An
and its the intersection of two subgroups so a subgroup of An (taking An as a group in its own right)
Try proving that it is also a normal subgroup of A_n
so taking An as a group in its own right you have ker phi interseciton An a subgroup of An (moreover normal)
Imagine G = Z/27, H = 9Z/27 and N = 3Z/27, then H is simple, but N intersection H = H so it's a subset of H and N, but we don't have H = N even if H is simple
Indeed, there is a further fact you need.
You need to show that the kernel is not bigger than An
Is it correct? (I don't think so but oh well)In the b), can I say something like "since fi is the canonical projection (or at least it seems so(?)), it is surjective, and since I is a two-sided (bilateral? Idk in english) ideal of Z[x], it is the ker of the
canonical projection. From this, and since the image of fi is Z (because it's surjective), using the first homomorphism theorem, I can say that Z[x]/I is isomorphic to Z"? Still new to the subject
Just a sec and I'll send the exercise
Hint: there is only one subgroup of S_n that is bigger than A_n
Sn but you mean normal ?
No
I do not mean normal
Recall the theorem of Lagrange and think about the order of A_n. If you have some group between A_n and S_n, then what?
The question is can there be a subgroup of Sn that contains An (other than An and Sn)
why contains An ?
So this subgroup should have more than n!/2 elements . Now think about the consequence that has wrt lagranges theorem


