#groups-rings-fields
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but M is not an element of R_n so I don't see how the corollary applies
M is an n x n matrix, no?
R_n is used to denote the space of n x n matrices over R in this paper. it’s in the intro
oh, that's weird notation
it’s a bit compact, but i think it works for the paper since they don’t ever make use of R^n. also, the subscripts and superscripts never interact, so it’s fine notation
but yeah, def needed to look it up in the paper
wait, isn’t this exactly what u want to prove
yes the one I posted is a proof
I just don't quite understand all of it
and I didn't want to copy
ah, i see
i haven’t read the argument in the McCoy paper, i would guess it’s similar
It omits entirely the reason that detM being a zero divisor implies that some minor admits a common annihilator
the McCoy paper? or the proof u posted
I think they are the same right
I mean the proof I just posted
I didn't think to go read McCoys paper
i think it talks about this
Do you know where I can find it, it doesn't cite the paper in the proof
this link
lol all good
Is this why we can say that there is some minor admitting a common annihilator
its my attempt at replicating the beginning of the proof
Lol oh
but uh. if it’s any indication of how useful that paper is for this problem, i was able to piece together an argument for u without even knowing what an adjoint matrix is. i would scan it again for any details u might be missing in case
I would have to define nearly everything and then reprove theorem 1 to use the paper
the other proof atleast uses all vocabularly we've covered, albeit it is less explanatory
try to translate between the proof u posted and the paper. it looks like they are saying similar things in different language
H is normal group of G, [G:H]=m, |H|=n, (m,n)=1, prove that H is the only one subgroup of G whose index is n?
I have no idea how to do it.
Oh I get it
I have this question and
say that F_s is generated by {x_1, ... x_s}
I want the isomorphism from Fs mod it’s commutator to Zs to be x_1^(r_1)...x_s^(r_s) maps to (r_1, .., r_s)
since the quotient by the commutator subgroup is abelian we can always write it this way
but I have to show its well-defined
what I tried is
supposed two elements of the quotient were equal, then did some manipulations
I am wondering if once I get to the step circle in green I am allowed to conclude what I did, by "freeness"
and then if that actually gives well-definedness
I'm wondering how we get the "in particular" line from the line above
I understand why the "in particular" line is true, but what's the relation
A representation of G on M is exactly a homomorphism G -> Aut(M).
So you're just replacing M by something specific.
I'm interested in the definition of algebraic integers and their minimal polynomial. If alpha is an algebraic integer, then there must be a monic polynomial with integer coefficients that has alpha as a root (as per the definition of integral elements).
Why does it follow from this that the minimal polynomial of alpha also has integer coefficients?
but if I have an integral element, and I explicitly find a minimal polynomial for it, how do I know that (without multiplying by anything, assuming it is monic) its coefficients are integers?
ok I think I found it
The minimal polynomial of an element is always with respect to some base ring
Commutative unital rings work too
i adore that handwriting, btw
the base field of alpha is the rationals here
so the minimal polynomial has rational coefficients and is monic
Well i dont think you can assume coefficients are integers if it's monic
2x - 3 is a nonmonic minimal polynomial over Q
But you cant "make" it monic with the coefficients still in the base field
but it isnt the minimal polynomial of an algebraic integer
maybe I'm confused
In algebraic number theory, an algebraic integer is a complex number that is integral over the integers. That is, an algebraic integer is a complex root of some monic polynomial (a polynomial whose leading coefficient is 1) whose coefficients are integers. The set of all algebraic integers A is closed under addition, subtraction and multiplicati...
what I'm having trouble with is the computation of the ring of integers of Q[sqrt(d)]
Thats the monic polynomial
x^2 - d
the argument at some point is that for a = m + n*sqrt(d), the minimal polynomial is (x - a)(x - conj(a))
where a is an integer of Q[sqrt(d)]
and then the claim is that the coefficients of this polynomial must be integers
the argument uses the fact that the coefficients should be integers to determine what m and n can be
I just want to know why we can claim that they are in fact integers, the definition of integers of a number field requires there to exist a monic polynomial with integer coefficients, not specifically the minimal polynomial for instance
A monic polynomial is the product of two monic polynomials
In particular, over the integers, if p(x) is a monic polynomial in Z[x] then all the minimal polynomials which divide are also monic
what's the base ring for your minimal polynomials here?
Because if
p(x) = q(x) h(x)
Then p(x) is monic => q(x) is monic and h(x) is monic or both negated monic
that's not what I'm interested in
Because thats what youre using for your algebraic integers
(x - a)(x-conj(a)) is not a minimal polynomial in Z, otherwise we would already be assuming that it has integer coefficients
But if there any monic polynomial p(x) with root a in Z[x] there exists a monic minimal polynomial q(x) with root a in Z[x]
sure, by multiplying the denominator
once again though, I don't care about any minimal polynomial, I want this specific one since I'm interested in its specific coefficients, without multiplying them by the denominators
No-
I think I misunderstood your statement
Let me change my question
I actually found what I was looking for in my course script
this is the claim that I wanted a proof for
Can multiplying an irreducible polynomial by a constant yield a reducible polynomial?
suppose p(x) is a monic minimal polynomial of a in Z[x]
And n * p(x) = h(x) q(x) for some h(x), q(x) in Z[x]
Then either h(a) = 0 or q(a) = 0
Sps wlog that h(a) = 0
=> deg gcd(p(x), h(x)) > 0 has Z[x] is a UFD
=> p(x) | h(x) as p(x) is irreducible in Z[x]
=> deg h(x) = deg n * p(x)
=> q(x) = m for some integer m
Suppose now p(x) is a monic minimal polynomial of a in Z[x] but can be factored through h(x) * q(x) in Q[x]
Then there exists integers n, m such that n * h(x), m * q(x) in Z[x]
=> nm * p(x) = n * h(x) * m * q(x) in Z[x]
But this wlog means that m * q(x) = k for some integer k
=> q(x) = k/m
=> p(x) = k/m * h(x)
Hence p(x) is also minimal for a in Q[x]
Sorry that took a bit im not the greatest at ring theory
But here you see p(x) minimal in Z[x] => p(x) minimal in Q[x]
In particular h(x) | p(x) => h(x) in < p(x) > the ideal generated by p(x) in Q[x]
Why is this not an integral domain? Can somebody tell me how one can generally prove that such rings are not integral domains?
Notice that
2^3 + 2 * 2 + 3 = 8 + 7 = 15 = 0 mod 5
Thus (x - 2) divides (x^3 + 2x + 3) in F_5[x] and therefore that quotient ring contains zero divisors
oh yes, thank you, I'm a bit rusty on algebra, so didn't really see the reason
Ofc!
In quotient algebras like this there's a zero divisor <=> the polynomial isn't irreducible
So try to see if you can either find a root or factor the polynomial
So does it mean that if I have R[X]/(f) where f is a polynomial, then the quotient is not an integral domain if f is not irreducible
Exactly
and when f is irreducible then R[x]/f is an integral domain
(Provided R is an integral domain)
It makes sense now, need to brush everything up a bit haha
Good idea
Im also just getting properly into polynomial stuff cuz i wanna learn galois theory
Spoiler: I did, was damn satisfying, but forgot EVERYTHING
Im sure itll be fiinee
I'm actually studying commutative algebra rn
Oh? How's that going
Commutative algebra is cringe
Thought it was cring
Think you would need it to be a UFD actually. Otherwise you can have irreducibles that are not prime
I guess if f is always assumed monic there's no issue
For example f = 2x^2 - 2x + 3 is irreducible over Z[sqrt(-5)], but 2f factors as (2x - 1 - sq(-5))(2x - 1 + sq(-5))
So (f) is not prime
ohh okay thanks :>
I have another question, If I want to show that a =>b, I know that R has only one prime ideal, therefore $P = \sqrt{(0)}={a \in R \mid \exists n \in \mathbb{N}: a^n = 0},$ so I know that P contains all nilpotent elements. But what does hold for R \ P? I only know that there are no nilpotent numbers there
damn_guuurl
Can you say that this is true for all groups?
I guess a hint: ||maximal ideals are prime||
I have no clue how that should help me
Well, what do you know about units / non-units?
For example, do maximal ideals usually contain units?
invertible elements I guess
Unit means invertible element yes.
I'd say no.....
And can you back up that claim?
I mean I see that all the units have to be contained in R \ P, but I do not understand why it has to be an equality
suppose a unit u is in a maximal ideal I
what is the defining property of an ideal?
Well, let's think about what else we know.
What do you know about maximal ideals, are there rings without any?
nope
Alright, so then for example R/P would need to have a maximal ideal
What could that ideal be?
Maybe you know something about what the ideals in a quotient ring is....
are we winning ?
I think we are having a misunderstanding because I'm wondering about R without P
I'm not misunderstanding you at all
any even commutative group
Why did you write thenR/P?(This would be the quotient right)
not following
Just trying to make sure we are talking about the same thing
It is clear to me that R\P also needs to have a maximal ideal
OH WAIT
oh right I'm kinda dumb lol nevermind
R\P is not a ring. If you want to understand the structure of the elements you should start with R/P
it is true what am I on
now I am real confused lol, what is true?
Do you see what is being used at each step here, and do you know the axioms of a group?
I mean it has a maximal ideal, which is itself, because otherwise R would then have more then one prime ideal, since very maximal ideal is also prime(?)
Since also P is prime, R/P is an integral domain
Yes, so a maximal ideal of R/P would correspond to a maximal ideal in R containing P. Since maximal ideals are prime, and P is the only one, P must be maximal!
Let a, b, c ∈ G , a group.
if bc = a^−1b, is c = a^−1?
Yes I know what is being done at each step, I did it given this question but I am not sure whether this holds for all groups
The axioms are associativity, closed, invers and identity
I get it now, sorry for taking so long and thank you very much ✨
❤️🔥
Take the time you need to figure things out
no, because groups do not commute in general
wrong question sorry
So bc = a^-1 b does not imply c = a^-1
But that is not used anywhere in your image
This was the question
if (bab−1)^2 = 1, then a^2 = 1?
A: Yes, B: No, not in all groups
No, in general this will not hold. Simplifying your question, you are asking:
if ab = bc, does a = c?
And this is not true.
this is true
Yes, this holds in all groups.
that is what I meant by wrong question
that is what I thought because there is no reason for it, but it's lecture note so I have no way to be sure when I asked chatGPT it said no
whats nilpotent i forgot
and gave a weird examples with symmetric groups
Do not ask ChatGPT for help with math.
I can imagine it was weird considering it was false.
But it actually gives good help on theory
nil = zero, potent = exponent
it's x such that x^n = 0
it literally just told you something that was wrong
Yeah I don't believe it for questions or just chatGPT answers as true. But if you know what is going on and have a good basic knowledge I really think it can help. I sometimes just let it explain theorem from the book worded in weird way and it really does help.
OR I'm just learning crap
True, I think it is only bad if you just post the slides and be like explain and just take it for facts. I read the book but usually it is really worded in werid way so when I ask chatGPT it gives me simple examples of the theorem and it clicks
Ok but it literally just makes things up and if you already don’t understand the material you won’t pick up on that and you’ll just end up more confused
I agree but you can't really access live humans 2:00 am at night
People are on here 24/7
yeah and thats even better
I thought you meant TAs but yeah you are right, discord is really awesome in that way.
ikr I barely sleep
Hey my fellow humans, I have another question.
Is the symmetry group G_triangle of the triangle isomorphic to (Z 7 ∖{0},×)
How should I think here?
Isomorphism is a bijection β(g ∗ g ′) = β(g ) ◦ β(g ′).
but I really find doing computation with triangle group confusing
you mean the dihedral group D_3?
that's noncommutative
but (Z7 \ {0}, x) is commutative and isomorphic to Z6
so an isomorphism can never be made
not really following
If two algebraic objects are isomorphic then they share all the same algebraic properties, they’re essentially indistinguishable
So if you can find a property that one group has, and the other doesn’t, this suffices to show there can exist no isomorphism between them
In Z6 it doesn’t matter which way round we add our elements, but this isn’t true in D3, it matters if you do a reflection before or after a rotation for example
in fact, the center of D3 is trivial so it's as noncommutative as it gets lol
i don't think this is the way to go about it. here is what i think you should do:
if s = t, then Fs and Ft are isomorphic. this much is clear.
suppose for contradiction that Fs and Ft are isomorphic but s != t. since Fs and Ft are isomorphic, then Zs and Zt are isomorphic. but Zs is simply the direct sum of s copies of Z and Zt is the direct sum of t copies of Z, so the two cannot be isomorphic as groups
True but probably doesn’t mean much to him haha, quite easy to picture why it matters the order in which you apply your rotations and reflections to a triangle though
yeah I mean the center being trivial is a direct consequence of that
as the subgroup of rotations is prime
Yeah I mean I know this, but I can’t imagine that any of these terms mean anything to someone just learning what an isomorphism is lol
What sort of computations are you being asked to do with D_3?
If you're not to the point where you're comfortable thinking of "group-wide" properties like commutativity, you can look at element-wise properties, too.
For example, (Z 7 ∖{0},×) has elements of order 6, namely 3 and 5, while the "triangle group" has no elements of order 6.
Also worth looking at the "Groupprops" website: https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Groups_of_order_6
You believe it clicks, but ChatGPT is optimized to make you nod your head in agreement.
Make sure you put that feeling to the test by attempting some relevant exercises. If you really do understand then the exercises should be straightforward. If they're not then that "clicking" feeling must have been a false positive.
that was the whole question
I see — my mistake!
When you said "but I really find doing computation with triangle group confusing" I thought that was a more general remark about manipulating the elements of the triangle group.
True but I meant it in a sense, I don't ask chatGPT hey explain what "Group" is. I just post the entire theorem and tell it to give me an example when I feel unsure and it gives me an example which feels in the void, not always tho. But if it is math, I always do exercises regardless who I learn it from.
As long as you are able to check for yourself whether the example is correct!
(And you do check)
Yeah i learned a lot just by trying to prove theorems
Right.. but I have to show that Fs mod it’s commutator is isomorphic to Zs to use that, and that’s what my question was about
use the universal property instead:
show that for any map out of {x1,…,xs} into an abelian group A, there is a unique map out of the quotient of the free group which factors through the standard inclusion
That gives me a homomorphism from Fs to Zs but not an isomorphism
Tbh, I think it would be easier to just solve this exercise more directly without going through the abelianization, but I guess that's part of the exercise...
Yeah
Fs is not supposed to be isomorphic to Zs though
it also shows u that the quotient of the free group is uniquely isomorphic to Zs
I mean mod it’s commutator
How does it show this?
If something satisfies a universal property it's unique up to unique isomorphism.
I thought the universal property for free group’s guaranteed a unique homomorphism
Talking about the universal property of abelianizations
But you can also think about the universal property of Zs.
Like A = Fs/[Fs, Fs] is generated by (the image of) s right. So just take the map from Zs mapping onto s.
This is an inverse to the map A -> Zs, so it's an isomorphism
By the image of s? Where s is the generators of Fs and the map is the quotient map?
Yup
I’d also have to show that that is well defined which comes back to my original question
I can write any element in Fs/F’s as
x1^(p1)…xs^(ps)F’s
I map this to Zs as
(p1, … , ps)
And this is an isomorphism
It only remains to show that it’s well defined and all representatives of the same coset get mapped to the same thing in Zs
you don't have to show anything.
there is a unique map out of F(S) into Z(S) whose kernel is exactly the commutator subgroup [F(S),F(S)] by using the universal property of the free group over S.
now you can apply the universal property of the quotient group to F(S)/[F(S),F(S)] to get a unique isomorphism from F(S)/[F(S),F(S)] to Z(S)
so conjugation of any subgroup by any element gives another subgroup (maybe not distinct) of the same size. and so being normal means that it's always fixed by conjugation. what is the significance of this? like conjugation keeps coming up over and over, so it seems like conjugation is more than just something you can do with elements.
How do you know about it’s kernel being the commutator? I’m imagining the triangle for the universal property
S
F(S) Z(s)
Normal subgroups are the kernels of group homomorphisms
We get a unique homomorphism from F(S) to Z(s) from this
But idk how to see it’s kernel is the commutator
sure but I'm asking more generally about conjugation
Write out a permutation using cycle notation and conjugate it by another element. What happens to the original permutation?
Which map is it you're questioning being well defined
This one
Theere is a tip that i can give you think of isomorphism as the same elements but having diffrent names:
Three ways to check if that is the case:
- Cardinality of both is the same so not then clearly its not an isomprphism:
- if the set is abelian then the other set must be as well abelian
3)Both have the same number of elements of the same order
that is a tip
@rocky cloak correct me if im wrong but those are tips that i use most of the time
They’re correct
But you already know that you have a map Fs -> Zs and that this maps Fs' to 0. So then you get a map Fs/Fs' -> Zs
A VERY important concept of group theory, but often taught without any intuition, so much that it often confuses a lot of people when they first learned it (including me). Conjugation can be visualised easily with a (literal) change of perspective! This video also lays the foundation for quotient groups, which gives rise to some unexpected relat...
How do we know it maps Fs’ to 0? I was wondering this earlier
I know we’re guaranteed a unique homomorphism by the universal property of free groups but I don’t know why it’s kernel must be Fs’
Well, Fs' is by definition generated by commutators. The image of a commutator is a commutator, and commutators in Zs are 0
Ohhh
So it’s very similar to this
N is normal and in the kernel of alpha
So we get an isomorphism
This is like obviously different groups and sets and stuff
But same idea?
Sure
Oh okay
Where is this from?
I’ll try working it out
Nicely formatted
Thank you I’ll try working this out now
And thank you @kind temple
the way that you get exact equality is a bit lengthy, which is what i was trying to write out. but one thing should be clear: the kernel certainly contains the commutator subgroup, and maybe that is enough. it seems like you figured this out tho.
this is incredibly helpful. so it seems like it really is just sort of change of basis.
Yes I think in the universal property for quotients we only need N subset ker(alpha)
Change of basis is conjugation :3
Mm, fair
Linear algebra is used almost everywhere anyhow
Representation theory for example
We went too abstract and now we're backtracking and trying to link everything to linear algebra loll
Strongly recommend doing what I suggested: conjugate a permutation written in cycle notation. That conjugation acts like a change of basis will be immediately apparent.
yeah i did that, it's pretty cool
Other reasons it's important...
In general, if you have a structure, it's worth looking at automorphisms of that structure. So for a group G, the set of all isomorphisms from G to itself forms a group denoted Aut(G).
Conjugation corresponds to an "inner automorphism": https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inner_automorphism
What
I have to show that a set is algebraic or not
but its in C^3
and during my thought I wonder how the general form look like for (x,y,z) zero of a polynomial f
just interested
there is a set which is not algebraic and I thought it would help if I know the generel form
do u have any tricks to show that a set is not algebraic?
are there some helpful tricks or tools
There isn't really a general form since there are so many different sets
Often you just want to use intuition about polynomials (e.g. they are continuous) and restrict to lines so they become polynomials in one variable
is {id, (124), (142)} ⊆ S4
I answer no because (124) * (142) = (1 4) which doesn't belong to the subgroup {id, (124), (142)}
Well it's certainly a subset, and you used the subset symbol
I think you miscalculated the product in any case.
I can tell you right now that that's definitely a subgroup.
I guess the easiest would be to check if it fails any of the properties that all algebraic sets satisfy.
Like if it isn't closed, or if when you intersect it with a line you get something infinite (that isn't the entire line)
I think that I may have been wrong about the commutator being a subgroup being enough
It may need to be the entire kernel
1->4->1
2->1->2
4->2->4
Damn it you are right
:)
thx
ok ty^^
{(1 2)(3 4), (1 3)(2 4), (1 4)(2 3)} ⊆ S4
Is there an easier way to check or do I have to check all combinations?
no wait
there is no idenitity
nm
Copied it from slides
but if we say there was an indentity element in the subgroup
is there an easier way to find out? Or do I have to check each combination to check if it belongs to the subgorup?
For groups of small order, you can figure out which groups it has to be isomorphic to.
For example, there's exactly one group of order 3 up to isomorphism.
not following, can you explain a little more
Have you learned about group isomorphisms?
Yes
bijection f : G1 -> G2 where for all a,b in G1, f(a+b) = f(a) * f(b)
aha wait
Are you telling me to try and find a group that the potential "subgroup" is isomorphic too?
If yes, isn't that harder than just computing the x*y for all x,y in subgroup?
That's a very specific way to write it and makes me unsure whether you understand, but that's correct if you think of + and * as two different group operations without any other association to the operations we usually denote with + and *.
yes I was gonna use the circle notation
but didn't know how to use that on my keyboard
so I used + instead
Any two groups of order 3 are isomorphic to each other. So in particular any group of order 3 is isomorphic to (ℤ/3ℤ, +), i.e., the integers-modulo-3 with addition.
So that tells you exactly how the products need to behave in order for things to work out.
Guess that depends wether you think it's actually a subgroup or not.
If it isn't a subgroup it might be a relatively fast way to show it isn't. But if it is a subgroup it probably won't save you much time.
In particular, if (1 2 4)(1 2 4) = (1 4 2) then you're good.
Shoudn't it be the other way around, that if it is a subgroup it is easy to show by just finding an isomorphic, but if it isn't.
I mean how can we make a conlclusion that there are no isomorphic groups to a group just because we have not found one
Because it's not isomorphic to any group of the same order.
yeah
And each of those groups has a particular element structure that you can check.
Because for small numbers we know what all the groups are
but aren't there like endless of groups with the same order
There's usually quite few, but for orders like 2^n there are quite many
For example, add id to that second example:
{id, (1 2)(3 4), (1 3)(2 4), (1 4)(2 3)}
Well, the other elements all consist of disjoint 2-cycles. That means if you square any individual element you get the identity element.
So, you are looking for a group of order 4 where each element is its own inverse.
ah, my favorite group of all time
We didn't go thru it in class but I watched a YT video on it where a guy explained that in cayley's table there is like this pattern to see if two groups are isomorphic. I am gonna rewatch it but Ig what you guys are saying is that if I find an actual group of that order and if I can prove that that my "subgroup" isn't isomorphic to that group then I can conclude that it is not a subgroup.
Otherwise I am lost
Well, there are only two groups of order 4 up to isomorphism:
ℤ/4ℤ and ℤ/2ℤ×ℤ/2ℤ
this is actually a subgroup of S3 embedded in S4
as in, take the subgroup of S3
{ id, (1 2 3), (1 3 2) }
(you can check this is a group, one interesting thing to note that if we notice that S3 is isomorphic to D3, then this subgroup is precisely the subgroup of rotations of a triangle)
this looks a whole lot like the subset which you defined above and, indeed, the map
id -> id
(1 2 3) -> (1 2 4)
(1 3 2) -> (1 4 2)
is an isomorphism
btw guys you know that I am talking about this right
{(1 2)(3 4), (1 3)(2 4), (1 4)(2 3)} ⊆ S4
if it had an identity element
then it would be my favorite group of all time 
Can this be isomorphic to ℤ/4ℤ? Why or why not?
yea, this is what i was hoping u would be able to avoid. but maybe there is a slick way to see it
and yet four reduced Latin squares of order 4, how come? Z4 greedily takes 3 of them leaving Z2xZ2 to be left with 1
at least it's normal, unlike Z4
let me work on it and get back to you
All you need to know is that each element in your set would have to be its own inverse (why?) and then ask whether that's also true of ℤ/4ℤ: #groups-rings-fields message
If two (finite) groups are given by their multiplication tables then determining whether they are isomorphic is equivalent to the graph isomorphism problem, which is not trivial: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graph_isomorphism_problem
It's certainly not something you can do by just "looking".
I honestly have no clue how to do that
so can I answer Idk?
😔 better start permuting those rows and columns
So, while I believe you know the definition of a group isomorphism, I suspect you don't really understand the consequences of it.
If f: G → H is a group isomorphism and an element g in G has order n, what is the order of f(g)?
I guess n?
Sure. Can you prove it?
no
If the order of g is n, what is f(g)^n?
the only cyclic groups that have every element as a generator is Zp right?
Idk, I would guess the identity element e
every element except the identity
and yeah that's saying gcd(n, m) = 1 for all 1 < m < n
which is only true for n is prime
I mean I suppose the trivial group
That's Z_0, yet another reason why 0 is prime
i hate that 0 being prime makes sense with the definition of prime ideals
Say the order of g is 2, so that g·g = e.
What is f(g·g)?
Is there a difference between R/I as a R-module and R/I as a R/I-module?
not much
if we're talking universal algebra then in fact they're polynomially equivalent
(which means basically basically the same)
f(g)*f(g)
i mean its the same set, but Z/pZ as a Z-module is just an abelian group, but Z/pZ as a Z/pZ-module is now a vector space
. i mean its kind of trivially different still
it was already a vector space, since it was a field 
if we think about the modules as representations of rings (namely the slice category (Ring V End_Z(R/I)) where R/I is taken to be the underlying abelian group) then there exists an epimorphism (R, m) -> (R/I, m')
that causes the modules to be basically basically the same :>
What is f(e)?
Can you explain to me where we are going at cuz I'm a bit lost atm.
Didn't you say f is an isomorphism
Yes. What do isomorphisms do with group identities?
Don't assume; prove it. Or look at a proof.
It's almost certainly one of the first things you prove about group homomorphisms in general.
Anyhow, if you don't know many basic facts about homomorphisms or isomorphisms, then no, you won't be able to use those facts in other situations.
It's fine if you don't! Your class will cover them, I'm sure.
I don't know what to say. I am not at that level of understanding. I cannot prove it
Can you prove the identity element of a group is unique? That is, if e and h are two elements with the property that eg = ge = g and hg = gh = g for all g in a group, then h = g?
we have never even talked about homomorphism to begin with, it is fast paced course with multiple "math" parts unrelated to abstract algebra and we are done with group theory/ abstract algebra module so I am pretty sure we won't
Im impressed you had a group theory part without mentioning homomorphisms
Which is one of the most central parts of group theory
I did watch a YT video about it tho but don't really remember so gotta rewatch it
Interesting. Why were they introduced?
Is the course like a sampling of different math topics?
And now you're on to the next thing, never to talk about groups again?
I am taking a course in discrete math, we have graph theory, abstract algebra, error-correcting codes and modular arithmetic
Anyhow, many "basic" proofs in abstract algebra look like this one, which proves the identity is unique. Let e and h be two identity elements, then:
e = he (because hg=g for all g)
= h (because ge=g for all g)
interesting version of discrete math
, i haven't seen one like this before
If f is a group isomorphism then
f(e) = f(e·e)
= f(e)·f(e)
and you get f(e) is the identity in H by multiplying both sides by f(e)^-1. etc.
but earlier when you were saying
f(g)
what were you expecting me to do?
Sure, well, if the order of g is 2 then that means g·g = e
f(ge) = f(g)f(e)
So...
e_H = f(e)
= f(g·g)
= f(g)·f(g)
where e_H is the identity of H
So if g has order n then f(g)^n = e_H
If f is an isomorphism then, in fact, the order of f(g) is n.
A homomorphism is a function that preserves the structure but isn't necessarily a bijection. An isomorphism is a bijective homormorphism.
So if I can see from the cycle structure that every non-identity element of my set of permutations has order 2, then every non-identity element in a group it's isomorphic to will also have order 2.
So somehow I need to prove that if you’re in the kernel of alpha you’re a commutator of Fs
And that narrows down the possibilities of what groups it can be isomorphic to.
Seems not at all clear how is do that since I don’t know what alpha is explicitly
Anyhow, never mind this stuff unless you're interested. Your class wouldn't skip over it if it is critical later.
I'm curious if groups come up again, though!
Ah you see they take small but discrete chunks of math and pile them together 
hahaha
mine was like that too, but they felt somewhat more related i guess. i mean it also covered way fewer topics
(it was at a community college)
extremely basic propositional logic and truth tables, extremely basic elementary number theory things (even/odd proofs, divisibility proofs), induction, the well-ordering principle, and basic set theory and basic abstract definition of functions stuff
my gf's covered some of those topics but she also did some graph theory, i think? i later went to UT Austin, i don't know what their discrete math class was like, but it probably covered graph theory
I really apprecitate the help, I need a little break but will check it out letter.
No we are done with groups, that is that was the last part of the course
I like graph theory
Especially the algebraic side of it
:p
I like graph theory too
literally never taken a course on graph theory
, i think its too late for me now. maybe one day i'll end up reading up on it
kinda my favorite part of the course,
Same
no offense to yall but abstract algebra is my least lol
graph theory is top tier
We are also working on algorithms and graphs on another course it really helps with the understanding on this module
it's kind of ironic, because i have a publication from an REU i did (with others!) basically about graph theory and combinatorics (and group theory). but graph theory and combinatorics are like the areas i know the least about, other than probably stats and PDEs
But i fucked around with it when a yt'er asked me a question about graph theory lol
Mattbatwings the goat
So, Fs' is a subgroup of the kernel of this map but how do we know it is the entire kernel to actually get an isomorphism?
cries and sobs
Always better than stats
I honestly don't know what to say about that. I took stats on the most stressful times which made me hate it but I really found certain aspects of very interesting. But again no offense to yall but I really have not found any joy in abstract algebra so far haha.
Well because of the inverse map
Zs -> Fs/Fs'
stats is interesting tho specially if you connect it with machine learning
probability part is boring
I dont find machine learning to be terribly interesting either haha
I'm sorry but I don't know what the inverse map is
Honestly yes but that was the only part that I liked from stats, we did a little lab on data training which was interesting but tbh now that I think of it I would prolly pick abstract algebra over it
Yesss ill count that as a win
The one where you map s in Zs to the image of s in Fs/Fs'
I had to give yall something lol
Zs is free abelian, so you can map s wherever you like in any abelian group
"the image of s in Fs/Fs' " meaning the coset sFs'?
Yup
So I understand completely to here
And then you’re saying we get an inverse homomorphism so it must be an isomorphism
Is that right?
Is it specifically the inverse of alpha-bar
Yes that's right.
If we can it beta, then for x in s
alpha-bar(beta(x)) = alpha-bar(xFs') = x
So that composition is the identity. And beta is surjective, so then the other composition will be aswell
Loosely related to this channel? Notation i used when studying Latin squares as sets of permutations
How did i not go insane? Maybe i did and this was the result..
just to clarify, can we also just show easily that beta(alphabar(xF's))=Beta(x)=xF's
so beta really is the inverse of alpha-bar and it thus must be an invertible homomorphism hence an isomorphism
that is so clean
I am trying to follow the direction of "Det A is a zero divisor implies A is singular"
I am specifically confused about the k=n-1 case, (k defined as in the above image)
Why does such a column v exist?
is it because, if it did not, then all columns v of adjA would be annihilated by alpha?
I am concerned that in this case all of the columns v of adjA could just be 0
whats the definition of singular here? not surjective or not injective? i don't remember if they're equivalent for a matrix over a generic commutative ring.
not injective
it says at the beginning "we have to agree what singular means first.." and says for this it means not injectiv
so the idea of the adj when the rank is n-1 for A over a field is that we can suppose one column of A is a linear combination of the others vi=c1v1+...+cnvn (i not included), but the rest are independent. the cofactors of the ith column can't all be nonzero, because at least one of them is the determinant of an (n-1)x(n-1) invertible matrix (otherwise, they would be dependent). for the cofactors of the other columns say col j, we can do column operations to isolate the linear combination cjvj in the dependent column. so you get +-cj times the cofactor column of the ith column. so that's why it's rank 1. it becomes alpha wu^T where w generates ker(A) and u annihilates col(A) (i.e. u generates ker(A^T)).
so maybe you can generalize that to a commutative ring. i don't remember just how directly we can apply it.
why is this problem so hard 😭
i just don't know how finnickey determinants are in a commutative ring.
like could you take the det of independent columns and get a zero divisor? oh... wait that's what you want to prove 
I can even pretend to understand the step that I was stuck at
but the next part
is just worse
I've found, maybe 2/3 proofs of this? and they all look the same as this one
well 4 if you include a paper that has 26 pages and 25 pages of wedge product stuff and then a clean proof on pg 26
im curious to what extent the determinant is zero or just a zero divisor. like is it a matter of how dependent they are?
🤷♂️
i would conjecture that a zero det means linearly dependent with like non-zero divisor coefficients (like vector space independent). but perhaps if you could only get a nontrivial zero linear combination using zero divisors, perhaps the determinant reflects that.
so i'm wondering if you can use that idea to guarantee that the entries of the adj in the n-1 case are not all strictly zero, but simply zero divisors (with at least one nonzero).
but idk im not even really helping anymore sorry
its ok
my HW was hard but this problem is just really annoying me
its like way harder than the rest
what's a nontrivial zero???!??
If all are zero then they definitely have a common annihilator
Is (S3, ◦) a (non-trivial) direct product of groups?
But A x B doesn't need to be isomorphic to S3 tho?
"S3 is a direct product of two groups" is equivalent to "there are two groups the product of which is isomorphic to S3"
For groups G , H, {(g , 1_H ) | g ∈ G } is a subgroup of G × H?
How do I verify that, I mean how do I know if it contains the identity element
Like columns being independent is equivalent to the matrix being injective. Which Austin is showing is equivalent to determinant not being a zero divisor.
So if you take your ring and quotient out the annihilator of the determinant, the determinant now becomes a non-zerodivisor. So if you had some linear combination that resulted in 0. Since the vectors now become independent, the coefficients must have been in the annihilator.
So I'd wager if you take the ideal of coefficients that results in 0 linear combination, you'd exactly get the annihilator of the determinant. At least one direction is clear
Well, if you look at the definition, it tells you which elements it contains.
Namely those of the form (g, 1). And (1, 1) is indeed on that form
There is no nontrivial direct product of two groups
There is, however, a nontrivial semidirect producr of two groups
but
how do we know 1 is the identity element
Because it acts like the identity element and identity elements are unique
but 1 is not always the identity element tho, for example 0 is the id when operation is addition or etc.. I am confused
That's what 1_H means "the identity element of H". That's just what that notation means
aha
okay so now it makes a little more sense but they wrote just one without 1_H
then we cannot make the same conclusion either
1 in abstract groups are always implied to be the identity element
Because we are not working with rings
Unless you're explicitly working in Z/nZ you can assume that
but what aobut the case I mentioned about addition where 0 is the identity
Then 1 usually doesnt have any meaning
Wouldn't that contradict what you said earlier tho
Yeah, i guess
When you denote the operation using • then the identity is 1, or e
When you denote the operation using +, then the identity is 0
So I guess unless we are specifically talking about numbers and + where it means "adding", then 1=e which is a symbol for identity
If yes, I can live with that.
An abstract group here mean one you don't really know anything about.
Like if we say H is a group, then we need some symbol to refer to it's identity.
If we know that H is the integers under addition, then 0 is the identity, and we can just call it 0.
Yes but they didn't specify whether G or H was groups under addition or anything so how can we make the conlusion that 1 is idenitity was my confusion
I also use + and 0 for general abelian groups
It's always a thug of war between having a new notation for every concievable setting and having some notations overlap / contradict eachother.
It's common to use * and 1 and x^-1 for the operation, identity and inverse in an arbitrary group.
It doesn't mean that it has anything to do with multiplication or the number 1.
You could introduce new symbols for abstract groups, but we only have finitely many symbols, and it's much harder to get people to agree on completely unfamiliar symbols
how does one know that group isomorphism preserves properties like abelian, normal etc without explicit proof?
Try and prove some and see I guess?
It's not uncommon to prove these kinds of things in an intro course but a lot of the times people take them as obvious too.
YO does anyone have full solutions for abstract algebra by pinter? theres sols for chaps 2-4 and 15-28 online but the one for chaps 2-4 uses a different edition(diff exercises at least)
Might as well just do the problems and ask for hints when you get stuck.
here? or in a help forum?
ill just try asking lol, thank you
context, x * y = |x + y| and were asked if * has an identity in R
attached proof(?) is from https://yurrriq.codes/abstract-algebra-pinter/exercises.pdf.
isnt this wrong though? |-5 + 0| = 5 != -5
i thought this was discussion
yeah its wrong. not every element has an identity
thank you!
but just to clarify, its wrong for the reason i stated or smth else?
thanks a lot
im gonna keep asking questions btw
for the reason u stated. -5 theres no element that fixes it
Why do textbooks only define irreducible and prime elements in integral domains? Do they not make sense in more general rings?
This is not true. Usually one considers prime ideals, which are defined for any commutative ring with unit (you can probably define them for other more general rings too, but prime ideals for commutative rings with unit are used a lot)
I guess commutativity is important, because otherwise you would have to differentiate between left and right ideals
but D&F specifies that R must be an integral domain before defining what irreducible and prime elements are:
is there a symbol for <= but with nothing in between
Once you have zero-divisors it becomes a little weird.
Like say xy = 0, then x = x(1+y). So either zero-divisors are basically never irreducible or you would need to modify the definition. In either case the concept becomes less useful.
Prime I don't really see a problem with, but prime elements are less important than prime ideals anyhow.
Wikipedia suggests < with a dot in it for the covering relation. I don't know if this is standard, I haven't seen it before. I don't know what the appropriate tex would be.
It's $\lessdot$
jagr2808
I see, thanks 
Ive always kind of had a hard time interpreting what the difference is when you consider R as a ring and R as an R-module
Because i know R-mod homs and ring homs are not always the same here
I sort of have this feeling of ok in the module case the R multiplication is more some ambient thing versus more tightly connected to the structure in the ring case… or something like that
But yea as u can see i dont really have a good feel for what the difference really is
Yes, you will have to use that
I guess it makes sense to just look at what homomorphisms will look like.
Like a ring homomorphism should satisfy f(xy) = f(x)f(y), whereas an R-module homomorphisms should satisfy f(xy) = xf(y).
And that's the difference really.
The ring structure of R is about how elements multiply, the module structure is about how we can multiply by elements of R from the left.
Maybe also worth thinking about why kernels of ring homomorphisms are two-sided ideals, while module homomorphisms only left ideals:
If f(x) = 0 then also f(x)f(y) = 0, but you don't necessarily expect xf(y) to be 0.
The ring structure is slightly stronger than the module structure in a sense, isn't it? Like if you have a ring hom from R to S, then you can form S as an R-module, and you get an R-module hom from R to S, but I don't think you can recover a ring hom if you have an R-module homomorphism from R to S
or more generally, a ring R gives rise to an R-module, but I'm not sure you can create a ring from an R-module?
Well, the definition of an R-module already contains a ring (namely R) so I'm not sure it really makes sense to relate them in that way.
But yes a ring homomorphisms R -> S gives S a canonical R-module structure. But if for example S=R, then that R-module structure is probably different from the usual one
So I guess what I'm saying is that they are fundamentally different things, and you don't really need to say one is stronger than the other
I guess it kinda of seems similar as both deal with addition and multiplication which distribute
The thing is that modules have no inherent multiplicative structure
Yeah
It is instead the ring structure of it's endomorphisms which are studied
True, it doesn't make sense to compare them directly like that. But I think you can say that you lose (or atleast change) some structure when you turn R into an R-module over itself; for example, there is only one ring hom from Z to itself, but there are infinitely many Z-module homs from Z to itself. And between modules there is always a trivial homomorphism, which isn't the case for rings
I know there are connections between rings and modules over the ring, but i havent studied or seen too many of them yet. Ive heard of an R-module M equivalent to a ring homomorphism from R to End(M) i think it was?
Well you're also fundamentally changing your context aren't you?
Yes, thats called a ring representation
I played around with them a bit, really fun
Yeah its cool
yeah, which is why it doesn't make 100% sense to compare them like that. But you can compare their categories, and move between them somewhat
What i mean, it's different from the relation between modules and their underlying abelian groups
True..
I dont know if that would lead to anything useful though
But eh who cares really
@thorn jay you only recently joined this server right ?
Yeah, how so?
What can i say, im passionate about math
🥳
Maybe you can say that, but I still think it's a bit of a weird relation. Like the structure of an R-module contains the ring R, so it would be kind weird to say that it has less structure.
On the flip side, if you're just given a ring S there isn't really a way to turn it into an R-module. S would need to have some relationship with R first.
Slice category then
(R V Ring) could have an induced functor to R-Mod?
That's interesting because (Ring V End_Z(A)) is the category of ring representations in an abelian group A
Aka, modules with A as underlying abelian group
Yeah, I'm mostly just relating what I read in Aluffi, I know you can't compare different algebraic structures like that. But in the context of the original question, I think it's fair to say that there are more morphisms out of R as an R-module vs out of R as a ring
Oh that's cool im reading Aluffi rn
Maybe, but for example if R = Z[x1, x2, x3, ...] is the polynomial ring in infinitely many variables. Then the are only countable many module homomorphisms R -> R, but there are uncountably many ring homomorphisms.
Permuting the variables?
For example
Right
interesting, I need to think about this example 
Nice, chapter 0? I'm still on Notes from the Underground, to avoid overdosing on category theory 😅
Yeah, im a halfway through the group theory chapter
If im motivated ill finish it this month
But school stuffs 😔
Countably many module endomorphisms, but uncountably many module homomorphisms
But yeah, in general modules are nicer and less rigid structures. But things are not so black and white
Rings feel like such weird algebraic structures to me
I dont know why
Maybe its just coming from group theory
Can someone help me with this problem?
Let W = all nxn matrices with trace=1
Is W a subspace of V?
What is V?
Set of all existing matrices
I think I got it. It is not a subspace
I think I see my mistake now: if you have a ring homomorphism phi : R -> S, then you can realize S as an R-module M, and you get an R-module hom from R to M. If you have a different ring hom from R to S, then you don't necessarily have two module homomorphisms from R to M, it just means you can realize S as an R-module in two different ways.
So in your example there are uncountably many ways to realize R as an R-module, but not necessarily uncountably many module homs on the canonical realization of R as an R-module, is that correct? (And permuting the variables is ring hom, but not a module hom, since for example if phi is swapping x and y, then phi(x^2) = y^2, but x\phi(x) = xy)
Yeah, everything you said here is correct.
Not that you really said anything wrong before
I might not have said anything wrong, but I think I was thinking something wrong 
Im trying to show that the ore extension given by a derivation ( R[x;\delta] = R<x>/(xr-rx-\delta(r)) ) is freely generated by {1,x,x^2...}
My approach for this was to show that we have an isomorphism \bigoplus Rx^i to R[x;\delta], and im pretty sure ive shown that theres a surjection here, just by the fact that the words xr_1xr_2... generate the free ring, so I think we get a surjection just through the canonical map R<x> to R[x;\delta], but I have no idea how to go about showing this map is injective, I mean its presumably by showing the kernel is trivial but I really dont know how to go about showing this, would appriciate any pointers to somewhere to begin
Yis.
In this, what are a, b, c and lambda elements of?
I’m trying to understand tensor products
left of the tensor operation is from V, right of the tensor operation is from W
Lambda is a scalar from the base field
Is it necessarily a field or just a ring
(V and W implicitly share a base field)
Or a commutative ring
V and W usually denote vector spaces
In class we were doing tensor products with rings, I think in this video hes doing vector spaces but I’d like to understand the more general version
@golden turtle did you figure out the det zero divisors injectivity problem?
I had an idea for a proof while I was driving
I pieced together a solution, would you like to see
sure
my idea was to do the contrapositive
- suppose A is injective and detA is a zero divisor and mu detA=0 for mu nonzero
- then im(mu adjA) is contained in kerA which is trivial so mu adjA=0. thus mu annihilates the columns of adjA
- claim: adjA has a nonzero column.
- the det of a sub matrix of A being zero implies that the columns are dependent (so maybe this is a proof by induction)
- suppose for contradiction that all the cofactors of a column are 0 (wlog the last column).
- if the first cofactor of a column is zero, then we can take a linear combination of the other columns to eliminate the first n-1 entries. the last entry cannot be a zero divisor or the kernel is nontrivial. thus a scalar multiple of en is in the image. we can repeat this for the whole column to get scalar multiples of all the standard basis vectors
- take all those columns into a matrix B, and then we can multiply B by a diagonal matrix to get it in the form k detA I=A(kadj(A))
uhhhh that's as far as I got. Idk if that works but I have to do something. I'll keep thinking about it
seems very similar
it is by "induction"
Is there an easy way to see this? I'm not exactly sure how I can do it given an arbitrary set of generators and relators with only the knowledge that they define a finite group.
By "solvable word problem" it means that there exists an algorithm to tell whether a word in the generators represents the identity element in the group
There exists finitely many groups of a given order up to isomorphism
So you can just brute force all the possibilities till you find the right one ig
Yeah, embed it in S_n and then solve it there.
hmm, how do we check that a group we have enumerated is isomorphic to the presentation we are given?
from my understanding all we are given to start is a finite presentation, so I am picturing trying to solve it just from something like <x,y | x^2 = 1, y^3 = 1, yxyx = 1>
Embed it in S_n, which you could do by enumerating every possible homomorphism (if worse comes to worse). Then once you have an embedding, where each element is represented by disjoint cycles, check whether the image of your word simplifies to the identity.
thank you, that makes complete sense. is it cayley's theorem (that every group can be embedded as a subgroup of a symmetric group) which guarantees that we will eventually find an injective homomorphism?
Yes
appreciate it
Cayley's theorem <3
I'm just running this through in my mind, how can I tell if a homomorphism is an embedding?
once I've chosen targets in a symmetric group for my generators such that the defining relations are verified, I thought I need to show that there are no words other than the defining relations that are in the kernel
You can just check if it's injective, yeah?
Every permutation has a canonical decomposition into disjoint cycles blah blah
This is like the dumbest possible algorithm.
This is where I am going:
Let $G = \langle a_1,\ldots,a_m \mid r_1(a_1,\ldots,a_m),\ldots,r_n(a_1,\ldots,a_m) \rangle$ be a finite group. We find an embedding of $G$ into a subgroup of a symmetric group $S_k$. To define such a homomorphism on $G$, it suffices to choose targets in the symmetric group for the generators of $G$ and verify that all the relations $r_1,\ldots,r_n$ are verified in the symmetric group for the chosen targets. For each $k = 1,2,3,\ldots$, enumerate the finitely many $m$-tuples $(\sigma_1,\ldots,\sigma_m) \in (S_k)^m$ and find an $m$-tuple that satisfies $r_j(\sigma_1,\ldots,\sigma_m) = 1$ for all $1 \leq j \leq n$. Since every finite group can be embedded as a subgroup of a finite symmetric group, this process always terminates for some finite value of $k$ and produces an $m$-tuple $(\sigma_1,\ldots,\sigma_m)$ such that the mapping $a_i \mapsto \sigma_i$ is a homomorphism from $G$ to $S_k$.
maybe I am missing an easier way
Tushar
Find an element generating it
that is already the case
so idk if that is the good way
you have two elements generating it
hint: find the gcd of 13 and i-5
or maybe it simply suffices to say that it is solvable in finite symmetric groups (due to the existence of cycle decompositions), hence it is solvable in finite groups, like you said?
and all of my work is just overcomplicating
think I got it, thanks
He’s a beast
Fr
Wait, not really even i think
R -> M by r-> rm has a kernel call it I so R/I = M, so then u can just compare submodules of M and R/I directly, if M is irreducible then R/I has no nontrivial submodules so I had to be a maximal ideal ?
Well I guess u first argue that if R/I has no nontrivial submodules then there is no submodule N with I < N < R, and then u can translate that to rings to say I is a maximal ideal
I mean, that is exactly the lattice theorem yes? That submodules of R/I corresponds to ideals of R containing I
That is indeed just the lattice theorem rephrased in a very specific way
Lol
if u have a R mod hom from M to AxB, do u have information about homs M to A and M to B?
AxB just elements of form (a,b) not some internal sum or something
Oh, thanks
And this isnt even the nontrivial way - going from two maps f : M -> A, g : M -> B to a map fxg : M -> AxB lol
im trying to go from the fxg map to the f and g tho
Ye
Use the natural projections AxB comes equipped with
Like,
pi_1 : AxB -> A
pi_2 : AxB -> B
a,b in a ring R, 1-ab is invertible i want to find the inverse of 1-ba. I have a very not rigorous thought: (1-ba)^-1=Σ(ba)^k=1+b(Σ(ab)^k)a=1+b((1-ab)^-1)a. So this makes no sense but the result 1+b((1-ab)^-1)a indeed can be shown to be the inverse of (1-ba). I wonder if there is actually a way to formalize this idea so I don’t have to say i guessed the result.
Nvm it seems that lim R/(ab)^n
works, like p-adic integer
Still not done, if the intersection of all (ab)^n is 0 indeed this can be rigorous, but I don’t know whether this is always the case…
Wow, this is a great way to intuit about it!
Maybe you can think about the noncommutative polynomial ring S = Z<x, y>. Now the inverse of 1-xy lives in the noncommutative power series ring, so the localization S' = S[(1-xy)^-1] is a subring of Z<<x, y>>.
You have a map S -> R sending x to y, and by universal property it extends to the localization by mapping the inverse to the inverse.
Now inside the power series ring you can reason as before, and notice that the inverse of 1-yx is in S', so maps to an inverse of 1-ba
Thank you. I didn’t know non-commutative ring could have localization. But the inverse, 1+y(1-xy)^-1x, in S’, I tried to write it as 1/1+(y/1)(1/(1-xy))(x/1)=(1-xy)/(1-xy)+yx/(1-xy)=(1-xy+yx)/(1-xy), I multiplied it by (1-yx)/1 on the right but it didn’t become 1, what went wrong?
You seem to have assumed that the inverse of 1-xy commutes with x and y, if I'm following what you've written
I thought (a/1)(1/s)=(1/s)(a/1)=a/s, I mean inverse of 1-xy in Z<x,y>_(1-xy) is 1/(1-xy) right
Commuting with 1/s is equivalent to commuting with s.
So a * s^-1 = s^-1 * a is way too strong
Oh, when talking about localization I took the commutative case as granted….
I think I got this now, thanks a lot. I have another question, is there also a way to justify the case when A , B are matrices of size m times n and n times m respectively? I forgot the set of matrices over a field don’t form a ring…
Anyway, I guess this argument is slightly unhelpful. As you would have to prove that the localization is that subring of the power series ring. In which case you may have to prove that the localization satisfies such relations you're trying to prove in the first place...
In that case it's not true right.
Like if A = [1/2, 0], B = [2; 2], then 1 - BA is invertible, but 1 - AB is 0
But 1-BA=(0,0;-1,1) also not invertible
Ah, did I mess up the calculation
We can exam that this works for matrices, just I don’t know how to justify this reasoning in matrix case…
Oh non-commutative localization elements are no longer necessarily of the form r/s but sum of elements of the form r1 s1^-1 r2 s2^-1… right?
Yes, they're horrible
Right, so verifying the solution still works fine
Then S’ is contained in Z<<x,y>> should be trivial? Since we map f1 (1-xy)^-k1 f2 (1-xy)^-k2… to f1 (1+xy+xyxy+…)^k1 f2 (1+xy+xyxy+…)^k2…
There's a canonical map S' -> Z<<x, y>>, but I guess you have to show it's injective
How is elements being equal defined in localization of non-commutative ring?
So you just define the localization by universal property
But for Z<x, y> it's not hard to see it will be Z<x, y, z>/(z*f = f*z = 1)
(for f the thing you're inverting)
Oh I see. And can we have a direct description in general? Like commutative case r/s=r’/s’ when s”(rs’-r’s)=0 for some s” in S. Can we have a similar element wise description for non-commutative case too?
One usually consideres multiplicative sets that satisfies the Ore condition. In that case there is a description similar to the commutative case
In mathematics, especially in the area of algebra known as ring theory, the Ore condition is a condition introduced by Øystein Ore, in connection with the question of extending beyond commutative rings the construction of a field of fractions, or more generally localization of a ring. The right Ore condition for a multiplicative subset S of a ri...
Thank you. I’d never thought about non-commutative case
I think im missing something here but im not quite sure what, so id appriciate anyone pointing out where im going wrong, Im trying to show that assuming $k$ is a field of characteristic 0, then $A_n(k) \cong \Delta(k[x_1,\ldots,x_n]).\$
We get a surjection via the universal property by the map $\phi : k\langle x_1,\ldots x_n,y_1,\ldots y_n\rangle \to \Delta(k[x_1,\ldots, x_n])$ sending $x_i \mapsto \hat{x_i}$ and $y_i \mapsto \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}$ so we just need an injection.$\$
My first thought was to use the first isomorphism theorem though, since the differentials and $\hat{x_i}$ commute, these are in the kernel of phi, and then a quick compution shows that $x_iy_j - y_jx_i$ and $y_ix_i - x_iy_i - 1$ is too, so we certainly have that the ideal in $A_n(k)$ is a subset of $\ker(\phi)$ but I dont think that weve used the fact that $\text{Char}(k) = 0$ anywhere, so Im guessing that it must show up in the other direction showing that $\ker(\phi) \subseteq I$ but im not quite sure how to do this, I think im just being dumb and missing some really obvious approach but im missing it none the less
Nope
Whats the difference between jacobson radical and nilradical again? Nilradical is a subset of jacobson right
I guess im not sure what the jacobson radical is supposed to represent or be
Yea i guess i just havent seen what its used for
Yes, you're intersecting more things for the nilradical
Thx
non commutative rings are cool
Jacobson is x such that 1-yx invertible for all y. Nilradical is x such that yx is nilpotent for all y
jacobson is the intersection of all left primitive ideals in R
The Jacobson is also the common annihilator of all simple modules
(meaning the intersection of the annihilators)
the jacboson is also the only ideal such that every element is quasiregular
left or right
@rocky cloak will never forget ur proof when u helped me with showing End_R(S) is finite dimensional
where S is a simple R module and R is left artinian
u used this to consider wlog instead of R, R/J(R)
@void cosmos is that u in ur pfp
and then since this is artinain with 0 jacobnson this is semisimple
then u used some hom properties
it was so beautiful
Im excited for that
yeah
Algebra is my favourite
Lmao nice
algebra is cool yeah
I feel more comfortable learning algebra versus other math for some reason
Im in topology rn too and i do like it but it feels more daunting to me
Interesting
yeah im doing hatcher now and it diff can get very different
yeah its cool
Hi
very diff flavor for me ig
Interesting
u can feel it once u just like
skim the textbook
and see how even the textbook reads
and pics and stuff
Hatcher has the flavour of pain suffering and waffle
its totally diff
Yea i bought Hatcher its just been sitting pretty on my bookshelf lmao
yeah hatcher is the like
Yea cool, ill do that
hardest textbook ever
like its so funny how i struggled with covering spaces, read rotman and instantly figured out everything
The man manages to say so much without actually saying anything it’s genuinely frustrating, and the decision to just have 80% of the book be walls of text is wild
Lmao bruh
But hey it’s the most approachable AT book I guess?
no way bro
like no way not for me
at al
i think for me its rotman
but its def the most "standard"
yes literally
Most approachable in terms of lightest prereqs, rotmann takes a categories first approach no?
there is a certain like finnese people learn like
when skipping certain details in a proof or an argument
it's like a balance wehre u dont wanna skip a whole ass detail that very few readers can get
nor u wanna ike just write out everything
it's like playing pool
hatcher grabs the stick and shoves it
i think hatcher accompanied with pierrea lbins youtube lectures is great
- exercises
thje only good parrt
anyways this is #groups-rings-fields so i will just post a group theory problem for fun
prove or disprove G/Z(G) is abelian then G is abelian
no i dont remember that actually
Here’s a random fun ring theory problem…
but it is definitely self ocntained in the sense that i learnt cat theory for the first time from this
its not like may or something
where van kampen is the colimit
??
xd
If anyone has any suggestions as to why it has a K basis of monomials I’d also not be upset to hear some ideas
I don’t think it’s that because we’re not covering the diamond lemma for another couple of weeks I don’t think, could certainly be an approach but yeah…
I think I probably want to show that my maps injective rather than using first iso tbh, so I think I may need to show the monomial basis thing first
Because if I’m using the fact that k is characteristic 0 I’m going to want some sort of sum/product to claim is non zero
My prof assigned question 4
But not q2
Q2 is prob important isnt it
For q4 and in general probably
oh god i’ve still only done one problem in AM and we’re over halfway through the semester now 
I'm pretty sure it's not true, but I'm struggling to come up with a counter-example
Maybe some matrix group works?
yeah it isnt true
I see, we can take D4, which is non-abelian, and unless I'm mistaken its center is {e, r^2}, so D4/Z(D4) is Z4 or Z2xZ2 (can't be bothered working out which, but they're both abelian)
nvm, D4/Z(D4) must be Z2xZ2, since otherwise D4/Z(D4) would be cyclic and therefore D4 would be abelian
yeah
Could anyone give a small hint on showing the last part?
what does it mean if an element of K is fixed by an element of the automorphism group?
Yeah, I've tried that. The difficulty for me is showing that this would be fixed for all g in G. I was thinking about whether multiplying some g in G onto each of the sigmas would give a new partition of H in G as cosets, but I don't think so. Am I wrong in that?
Actually... maybe it does give a partition...
why wouldn't it give a partition?
Indeed it does seem to do so. Since g sigma_i must be represented by some sigma_{k_i} and g sigma_j must be represented by sigma_{k_j} and clearly g sigma_i H has empty intersection with g sigma_j H. So multiplying the sigmas by g essentially just gives a permutation
Yeah, it does. Nevermind
Technical question: when D&F originally defiend F(a), they defined it as F[x]/(p(x)) with p(x) being the minimal polynomial of a over F. But in this exercise, they say K1 != K2, which, by this definition they would be equal. I presume they here work a different definition? Should I understand F(a) as the smallest field containing F and a in the algebraic closure of F, or?
maybe it helps to see a simpler example, you know that x^3-2 is irreducible over Q right? You can adjoin a real root or imaginary root from it and get distinct fields
Yes, I understand how it intuitively works. But formally how does one define F(a) in this case?
that's just to say, adjoining a root from an irreducible polynomial does not get you all the roots
F[x]/(p(x)) is modding out by the ideal, it's not the same as adjoining a single root, so it's not equal
you'd have to go back to the definition in the book
the ( ) notation means F(a) is taking all rational polynomials in a with coefficients in F
I'm about to head out for a walk, I'm sure someone can jump in if you're still workin at it, good luck
Ah. I figured it out. I mistakenly said F(a) = F[x]/(p(x)) by definition. But it's simply the smallest subfield (of some extension K containing a) containing F and a
It's just that the fields F(a) and F(b) will be isomorphic if a and b are roots of the same irreducible polynomial which was what confused me cause I therefore thought one was supposed to think of the two fields as the same field F[x]/p(x), but I see that's not so
Thank you 🙂
yeah youre welcome!
Bro got enlightened
I.e posted the question, realized it, felt like a dumbass
I get to bully Nope to pretend I don’t do that all the time! 
Either im being stupid or this problems quite easy and im inclined to think its the former so if anyone could point out where im missing something id appreciate it. Im trying to show that a ring (non-com, unital) is left Noetherian iff all finitely generated left R-modules are Noetherian. $\$
My solution goes: The reverse implication is trivial, every ring is finitely generated as a module over it's self by ${1}$, so if all finitely generated left $R$-modules are Noetherian then $R$ is Noetherian as a left $R$ module.\
Let $R$ be Noetherian. If $M$ is Noetherian it is certainly finitely generated, so assume that $M$ is finitely generated. We know that a left $R$-module $K$ is Noetherian iff both $N$ and $K/N$ with $N\leq K$ are, but viewing $R$ as a left Noetherian module we see that $M$ must be Noetherian.\
Now im confident that im missing something because im not actually using the finitely generated assumption, but the exact place where im being dumb isnt jumping out at me
Nope
bro forgot he had to hold shift when pressing enter to take a new line
I wish i had found enlightenment
Left ideals are “left submodules” of the ring
Oh yeah thats where im being a dumbass
Spontaneous enlightenment
M does not need to be a submodule of R viewed as a module, why did I think that 
This homework has genuinley liquified my brain
TOO MANY WORDS OOOGA BOOGA ADD AND NO INFINITE CHAINS
Tbh I feel ya
I didnt even think to use the ACC tbh, I know that sounds silly for a question about showing something is Noetherian but the previous question was to show the N\leq M, M noetherian iff N and M/N are so I kinda just lazer foucsed on trying to use that
Theres probably a nice argument using chain conditions though, since M is finitely generated im guessing you like write each each of the submodules as a sum of the generating elements for M and that seems helpful
oh is it just that thats a submodule of R^n and so then we get a chain in R^n which stabilises because R is noetherian?
Actually im not even sure if its true that the direct sum of Noetherian modules is noetherian, but it feels true
it is
Finite direct sum yes
Ok well in that case i guess ive just about solved this? go prove the direct sum thing, work out the details in the R^n chain and hopefully be one question closer to never touching this homework again
I only have the actually difficult questions left after this 
Ok the direct sum thing is like one line, thats easy enough
I think the direct sum/product of finitely many noetherian rings is noetherian if you break down the ideals/submodules and can probably use that I guess
And then just quotient the ever loving fuck out of those products to get all finite-generated submodules
I just let M,N be Noetherian, took M+0 and quotiented that out of M+N which is just N then you use the lemma i mentioned earlier
M+0 \leq M+N etc and that should be enough
Pretty sure the finite chain conditions are preserved by direct sum and products?
@south patrol is this true?
I think so depending on how specific your prof is
Yeah the end is a little hand wavey but honestly for how long and difficult this homework has been I think shell need to be fine with it
I would’ve gone through if M is finitely generated then there is a surjective morphism R^N to M, and the chain conditions pass through R^N
As a sketch
Rm_1 + ... + Rm_n in general is very much not going to be a submodule of R^n
what if M has torsion that doesn't come from R-torsion?
I would prove that noetheriantiy is preserved under quotients and use the fact there's a surjection R^n->M
OK cool, ill go have another crack at it
e.g. Z/2 is a finitely generated Z-Module but it most certainly does not embed in Z
I think the fact that i'd still say this is the 3rd easiest question on this homework really drives home quite how much fun ive been having doing this
not that I think this is a particularly tough problem, but im not exactly making an easy job of it
Yo homie the left/right ascending/descending chain conditions are preserved under finite direct product of rings right
The ideals of RxS are of the form IxJ for I<R,J<S
So yea
Alright sick yeah
All of that uses images and preimages of ideals under surjective morphisms I think
Ok so yeah its just surjection sending r_1,...,r_n \mapsto r_1m_1 + ... + r_nm_n, this is a surjection, quotient out by the kernel of this map which is submodule of R^n and then universal property?
yes (first isomorphism theorem)
I realise ive explained that horribly but hopefully still inteligibly
That’s what I meant by “Quotienting the shit out of the ring products” lmao
Eh you don't need that. If I is an ideal of RxS then obviously I\subseteq I_R x I_S = (1,0)I x (0,1)I. Now if r\in I_R,s\in I_S then by defn (r,s')\in I for some s'. Now (1,s)(r,s') = (r,ss')\in I. Similarly, there is r' such that (r',s)\in I, so (r',ss')\in I, so
(r,s) = (r',s) + ((r,ss')-(r',ss')) = (r',s) + (r-r',0)
I genuinely think my brains been ruined today, that should not have been so difficult lmao thank you though
You could phrase this in terms of projections probably but it's unecessary
I tend to like to think of things from a surface intuitive level when I’m not actually solving problems i.e now lmao
I.e as much as I can feasibly get across without having to symbolically write out anything
Ok time to go do the actualy hard questions, we got 2 options for one of the questions based on how much group theory we know and I think its easier to go learn about polycyclic groups real quick than do the other question
horror
The fuck is a polycyclic group
Not even close to what I was expecting from prefixes alone k
I want to look into Galois theory eventually but the noncommutative side of it is way too interesting
Classifying ideals of monoid rings torture
This is more annoying to write out than anything
Conceptually understanding is easy but the carpal tunnel beckons
I mean youve got to pick your poison and group rings seem nicer than the unholy fucking hell that is dealing with multi indecies
The Weyl algebra is defined by its relations anyway lo
Yeah this is probably way easier since it doesn’t need much group theory anyhoo
it's just a group built via extensions of cyclic groups
Solvability go brrr
I haven’t done much algebra actually since like June
there's a nice characterisation: Polycyclic groups are the noetherian solvable groups
Yeah I mean I dont see it using anything that I dont know, when it refers to group theory its the 2nd course in group theory that im currently taking
I pick up most of my alg knowledge by osmosis and frankensteining facts together
Yo shin hear me out here
Division ring B containing integral domain A, let’s say B as a module is finite rank over A
Then End_A(B) is finitely generated as an A^op module right
Can’t you consider it as an even smaller-rank module over B^op
since the generating set is the maps sending b_i (basis module element) to delta_{i,j}b_k (gives an iso to the matrix ring)
is B free over A? Otherwise how do you define these maps
What do you mean by free
I forget that terminology
Oh wait shit
Yeah it’s free since I am explicitly defining the rank
I really need to learn enough cat theorey to properlly understand what free objects are, my understanding is quite vauge and probably holding me back because everything I seem to touch these days is free
Nah wait it is right multiplication by b
you need to define stuff more clearly
oh yea sorry you're looking for a right B-module structure
In that case then \delta_{ij} would generate it as a B-Module but how would you get a smaller generating set?
Inverses of the basis elements
wdym?
let b_i be an indexing of the basis
We have the maps sending b_i to \delta_{i,j}b_k as the basis as a right A module
Yes
well
b_k = (b_k b_i^-1) b_i
Actually got it switched up
b_k = b_i (b_i^-1 b_k)
So the “diagonal” ones generate it over B^op
And you can show linear independence
Alrighty cool
I don’t think it has any applications
I still refer to right R modules as “R^op modules” I need to kick that habit asap
@chilly radish btw is there any big applications of Ore localization or is it just a rarity that “sometimes” happens but in general has scarce application/?
It seems like sided multiplicative sets are quite specific
Unlike the Jacobson radical which is like the beating heart of noncommutative module theory afaik
It's pretty much the only good theory of Noncommutative localisation
You can define things more generally but then you aren't able to work with things explicitly almost at all
There's some statements about localisation that generalise like flatness
This kind of thing actually comes up pretty naturally a lot of the time
The construction of the derived category is via ore localisation
I know some flatness arguments but they seem “rare”
I'm trying to prove that for an automorphism F of (R,+), we have that F(x) = F(1)x
Can it be done using only that F(x+y) = F(x) + F(y)?
what's R, real numbers?
Yes