#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 235 of 1
Ah, freely generated. Hmm
Well I mean, x_n x_m = 2 x_{min(n, m)} already means it is not freely generated tho
sorry, as an abelian group it is freely generated
Ah, as an abelian group. Duh me not catching that
Fix m, n ∈ N. Consider the map f : Z × Z → Z defined by f(x, y) = mx + ny.
Identify the image and kernel of f.
The image will be multiple of gcd(m,n), right?
But I am not sure about the kernel
I guess proof by support argument might work then.
yes, it's the multiplies of gcd by bezout's identity.
Thank you, what about the kernel?
assuming m and n, x,y are all nonzero then mx + ny = 0 implies y/x = -m/n, so they're lattice points of a fixed rational slope y/x =-m/n
for example if m is divisible by n then y is divisible by x, but there's not too much else to say in general. Maybe you could avoid the cases of things being zero by saying the vector dot product mx + ny = (x, y)*(m, n) = 0 so the vector (x, y) is orthogonal to the vector (m, n)
So how can I write a kernel in this case
Uhh about that.. 💀
I guess it depends on how clean you want it
How I express this relation x/y = -n/m ?
Idk, will you get penalty if you wrote like, {(x, y) \in Z * Z | mx + ny = 0}
But then it will be obvious they expect more specific I think, maybe this one is correct
Yeah, true. But then, I am at loss of ideas
Maybe cancel out gcd(m, n)? idk
it's Z generated by the vector (-n/gcd(m,n), m/gcd(m,n))
Oh
Okay, thank you
Z generated means cyclic group generated by (-n/gcd(m,n), m/gcd(m,n) ) ?
yes
How do you get it from x/y = -n/m ?
which integer points fall on the line (-nt, mt) in R^2?
If t = p/q then q must be divide n and m and t cannot be irrational
Got an exercise to find any isomorphism G -> G x H with non trivial groups. But since G x H has a piecewise operation wouldn't the element in H that gets picked be independent of the one in G? And since order should be preserved... Wait is this even possible for finite groups? Should i be looking at infinite groups?
Well of course as I wouldn't have a bijection between the underlying sets
I guess the total must be 66
Is it possible if I send it to you to check it if you have time
That seems right
I was cheking my answer
i guess its more than 66 actually i change my word
but not so sure
i will send what i have
give me a second
Well, I just calculated it for myself and got 66, so it seemed right
this is what i did
there is only one thing that im not sure about i multiplied by (ab)(cd) with half
Yeah, that looks good
but i did not do that with (abc)(de)
so im not really sure if i should also there
cuz if i did then i get 56
Well the reason you divide by 2 is because (ab)(cd) = (cd)(ab)
But there is no such overcounting for (abc)(de)
sure but (abc)(de) = (de)(abc)
right
so why here i do not divide with 2
Yes, but you never count the second case
You only look at things of the form (abc)(de)
ah i see
but i mean when i say 2c2
i do count it in a way
or i do not really get what you exactly mean
because like in the case (ab)(cd) i did 5c2 * 3c2
That overcounts, because you get (12)(34) and (34)(12) counted one each.
sure but that is a similar case
in (abc)(de)
i mean (123)(45)= (45)(123)
or am i wrong
The notation "(45)(123)" does not look like "(abc)(de)".
So it wouldn't get counted in the first place, and therefore there's no overcounting to correct for.
i know but i mean in permutation since the support is disjunct then there will be no problem if you did (abc)(de) or (de)(abc)
Sure, if you really want to, you can do somthing like "count all of the ways to write (ab)(cde), then also count all of the ways to write (abc)(de), then add them together, and then divide by 2 to correct for overcounting". That would just be really roundabout for no good reason.
i know i get that but i mean did not i count them both when i said 5c3 * 3c2
No?
(Um, what exactly is it you're counting with "5c3 * 3c2" and how would that work?)
there are 5 elements in S5 im to make my two cycles in the form of (abc)(de). I will make the first cycle 5c3 then the second 3c2
so im not overcounting actually btw
I don't get what "3c2" is doing there.
i mean 2c2
sorry
what s the problem?
my mistake
Actually (5 choose 3)(2 choose 2) undercounts, because you need to make a choice of which way to cycle your three elements.
Counting homomorphisms from C6 into S5.
What you're counting is ways to assign numbers to a, b, c, d, e. There's no way to pick a, b, c, d and e such that
(abc)(de) Looks like (12)(345)
oh ok
oh that is true
oh i see what you mean
you can compare with making a team
like make a team of 10 from 5
10c5 /2
because you did not specify which team first
you just had to find element with order = 6 no ?
and you take the application 1 -> this element
idk
there are only (a b c) (d e) as you said if you look the decomposition of a permutation and to count it idk
i think you should just count the first (a b c) because the (d e) are fixed if you have the (a b c)
and there are 5* 4* 3/3=20
oh you had to watch the element whose order divide 6 also
only 1 for identity , 5* 4/ 2 = 10 for (a b), 5* 4* 3 / 3 = 20 for (a b c), also 20 for (a b c) (d e) (because it is in bijection with (a b c)) , and for (a b) ( c d) (you have 5* 4 / 2 * ( 3 * 2 ) / 2 =30 choice for ( (a b) , (c d)) so 15 choice for {(a b), (c d)} in bijection with (a b)(c d))
the last one is hard to put in bijection with smth
Is that even necessarily true if G is infinite? I think this would be a counterexample: the free group on two generators, and the automorphism that interchanges the generators.
On the other hand, if G is known to be finite, it is enough to show that x \mapsto xf(x^-1) is injective, which is straightforward.
i think the sum of the generator is fixed (for your counterexample)
The free group is not abelian, so f(ab)=ba is not a fixed point.
Simpler counterexample, though: (Z,+) and negation. :-D
ah yeah you're right
The best exercises are those where you have to prove something that's false /s
When someone only writes "Q", the group of rational numbers, do they mean the additive group?
A homomorphism between groups G1 , G2 only illuminates structure of G1 if the map has nonzero kernel right?
Typically yes, but could vary by context
Ok thank you
Let R = Z[X1, X2, …] and f(p) := Σ_{m =/= n} min(m,n) p_m,n + Σ_m 2 m p_m,m where p_m,n = coefficient of X_m X_n in p.
Then the hypothesis is true but not the conclusion.
Q can be viewed in many ways
But the usual multiplication doesn't turn it into a group
(As 0 has no inverse)
Hey thanks! I've been assuming a different hypothesis now, because the Russian author is really using the lemma in far less generality than what my translation suggests. It is useful in a calculation of a ring of modular representations, actually.
here is a much much weaker version of the lemma, which applies to the scenario that the author was using, and which is potentially correct now!
the classic Russian style is of course to leave the actual hypotheses of the lemma as an exercise to the reader 
If you take R= Z[X] without the constant, X^i are a Z basis ?
yes, I would consider that a ring with a Z linear basis
okay
wait you're right the x_i together with 1 should be a Z linear basis
it is hard to find a function f i think with this basis it is not possible (X^4 = X * X^3 = X^2 * X^2) and there is a contradiction
yep, it's not gonna be well defined. Really you should have in mind quotients R = Z [X1, X2, ...] by relations in the form XiXj = sum ci Xi
e.g. Z[X] = Z[X1, X2, ....] / (XiXj - X(i+j)) is an incompatible set of relations with the hypothesis
This true? Basic question yeah but im tryna review fundamentals
Not necessarily. If the map has zero kernel then the image is isomorphic to G1. So if subgroups of G2 satisfy some property, then G1 satisfies it as well. For example, if G2 is abelian then so is G1.
Idk if that's the kind of answer you're looking for though
you take Xi*Xj = 2X_(min(i,j)) ?
It is! Thank you for that!
this is an example, yes. Note that if you believe the lemma, the conclusions then imply f(Xi) = i.
Another example is to quotient by only by XiXj = 2X(min(i, j)) when i =/=j or when i = j > 1, as well as the relation X1^2 = X2
Oh. Sort of
Subgroups of G aren’t necessarily related to the overall structure of G in some way right?
I have more thinking to do but
But normal subgroups are^?
Normal subgroups are somehow related to the overall structure of G but just any old subgroup is not
is there a native speaker who might confirm that my original translation is correct and it's simply not a truthful theorem?
oh wait I think that f(xs) = s was something I forgot to include! This might mean in turn that the lemma is correct, as it excludes the counterexample of @tough raven
there's this word образующими that feels ambiguous to whether or not these are generators for a ring ( without unit? ) or a basis for an abelian group
Hi
Hello how's your day been
Careful. What are (x_k) in the left hand side ring? All elements on the left hand side are matrices, all elements on the right hand side are polynomials where matrices are coefficients
Both are in some manner of speaking semigroup rings (the former is a quotient though) so the generator sets commute. There are natural injections from K into M_n(K), K into K[x_1...x_n]
Maybe just write an explicit isomorphism using how the rings are defined
Explicitly stating it is basically using that
it fries my bit to say isomorphism here because they seem literally equal when trying to describe them so you have to be a bit careful
They are not literally equal. One construction has elements as matrices and one has elements as polynomials
I know lol, but the matrix ring is a finitely generated module/algebra over R, generated by matricies who are 1 in only a single entry
e_n,m is the matrix that is all 0 except for a 1 at (n,m)
and R embeds into it via the sum over diagonal entries
I guess you'd have to like, pass the generators through the injections lol
By the constructions of the two "functorial" ring extensions they don't really mingle too much and give an iso
Actually I can probably do a shortcut
Hmm, of course writing it down explicitly will work, but could we g.e. show something like each of them is iso to the tensor product of M(R) and R[x1,...,xr]?
M_n(R) maps into M_n(R[x_1...x_n])
Extend that monomorphism to a map from M_n(R)[x_1...x_n] to M_n(R[x_1...x_n]) sending x_k to it's respective generator in M_n(R[x_1...x_n])
This map is both injective and surjective and gives an explicit isomorphism
yep, it should be easy enough to show for a two sided R algebra S that M(S) = M(R)(x) S and that S[x1, ... , xn] = R[x1, ... , xn] (x)S
though I know the tensor product I haven't gotten that far in jacobson
so I want to use the provided assumptions
wait is R commutative? otherwise the tensor thing might be annoying to work with
yeah probably avoid the tensor product then. Might still work but probably harder to deal with.
So that universal property doesn't work too nicely
Ah shoot then.
The generator route is rather easily due to generator set commutivity and functor shit
the problem is idk how to state the noncommutative polynomial ring universal property
Probably for maps R into K, then for any x in R's ring centralizer in K, then there's an extension from R[X]
Hmm, you'd want the images of x to be in the center of K, I expect.
(Or that centralizer will work too)
Just send a matrix (pij) of polynomials to the sum of eijpij, and a polynomial sum M_i x^i to the matrix M_ix^i treating x^i as a scalar. These are clearly inverse morphisms to one another
that's basically what I'm doing above
just skipping over the "morphisms of generator" crap
trying to process if the centralizer would be a subring
[Abel subgroup by default lmao]
abx = axb = xab
0x = x0 = 0
1x = x1 = 0
we good
UGGGHHHH
I'm with datorangeguy: using the concrete representations of matrix and polynomial rings we already know and love will be much easier than juggling universal properties here.
yeah I just thought I could shortcut it
what about induction on r?
it seems like it wouldn't be too difficult to show the case when r = 1.
for the inductive step, we have
M_n(R)[x1,...,xr,xr+1] = (M_n(R)[x1,...,xr])[xr+1] = M_n(R[x1,...,xr])[xr+1] =? M_n(R[x1,...,xr,xr+1])
turns out proving it's an iso from the universal property just does the same thing anyway
God
is it acceptable for me to skip like a third of the verification bullshit by saying it's an ass algebra over the direct sum
is there a meaningful difference between saying a polynomial splits in a field vs a polynomial is reducible over a field?
IG you want to add 1_R to the basis, apart from the x_i?
Yes — X^3 - 1 is reducible over R (the field of real numbers) but does not split over R.
Splitting is being “fully” reducible basically
yes i think i see it now
thanks!
i have to understand the galois correspondence and its consequences by wednesday
as you can see im quite a ways away 😭
How is (x_i) a basis when x_0 = 0 (I don't know any Russian to be clear) 💀?
My example is excluded by the (x_i) being a Z-linear basis rather than generating R as a ring, which makes a world of difference.
No even if the Russian is saying generated as a ring, it also includes specifically f(xs)= s in addition to f(xnxm)=2min(n,m).
here is the current version I am trying to prove, still having trouble
the extent of the inductive argument I've puzzled out so far
I'm including some other stuff like the coefficients being positive and a base case x1x2 = 2x1, because this is known of the rings I am concerned with.
Wait I think I got it!
You in fact get 4 = Σ_{s >= n} 2 c_s, right? (Strengthening your inductively proved conclusion to x_m x_n = 2 x_min(m,n) even for m = n.)
my base case is m = 0, so no, I can't divide by m
By the linear independence of the x_i.
.
Is x_n^2 = 2x_n known to be false in your ring?
sometimes!
You can check that we can just set x_1^2 = x_2 but x_ix_j = 2x_min(i, j) in all other cases and you get a ring satisfying all of the hypotheses
and in fact this ring occurs in nature! It is a certain subring of representations of the Klein 4 group in characteristic 2
It satisfies f(x_i x_j) = 2 x_min(i,j) even when i = j?
Because I think you have used that in your first displayed equation.
Second*
yes this is true of all i, j
OK.
problem is I can't divide by m in that second equation
and that should be the scalar 2min(i, j) not 2x_min
Well, the "at most two values" part is also wrong then (for m = 0).
Also please continue, don't let me stop you.
hmm, that's a good catch
Can you add m = 1 to your hypotheses i.e. x_1 x_n = 2x_1 for n >= 1? Or just n = 2?
I did add this for n = 2. This is a big problem to try to add for all n though
could i bounce an idea i have for a proof off of one of yall so i know if im at least headed in the right direction
the statement is that for F a field, there is no sequence of nontrivial ideals $I_n \subset I_{n+1} \subset \cdots \subset F[x]$. My idea is this: $F$ is a field, so $F[x]$ is a PID. Then take some ideal $I = <f(x)> \subset F[x]$. If $I$ is to be proper, we know $f(x)$ can't be a unit, but I further claim that this polynomial must in fact be irreducible, and that this fact should further imply that $I$ has no proper subideals.
is this the right approach? or should i look elsewhere
Again, it's a ring of representations. I can't easily compute infinitely many tensor (Kronecker) products
But I can do an arbitrary amount of computations for as strong of a base case as needed
Leninade
are you trying to prove the Hilbert basis theorem?
ngl chief ive never heard of that
The statement is not true: consider (x^n) contained in (x^{n-1}) contained in … contained in (x) contained in F[X].
Oh, n is inside n+1.
Yeah, this is basically the conclusion of the Hilbert Basis Theorem.
But you can prove it much more easily in this case.
that's not an ascending chain, it's true, although the statement should be more like 'there is no strictly increasing chain of ideals' or 'every ascending chain eventually becomes constant'
f need not be irreducible, but it does have a prime factorisation.
Can you use that to bound the number of ideals which contain I = ‹f› as a subset of them?
I think you have the right idea: let I be an ideal. It is generated by f. If J is generated by g, then I < J is the same thing as f being an element of J i.e. f is divisible by g
||but f is of finite degree||
i like these ideas. thanks yall!
I think the situation of the last paragraph forces x_1^2 = 2 x_1: if x_1^2 = x_2 then f(x_n x_1^2) = 4 (n >= 2) whereas x_n x_1^2 = 2x_1.
let me check with the chat, this is a corolllary of Hilbert Basis Theorem right?
that's what I was looking at actually. I know again from modular representation theory a specific ring in which x_1^2 = x_2, but my casework toward x_nx_1 = x_2 contradicts this
It more or less is the Hilbert Basis Theorem for F[X], F a field.
Didn't want to explicitly say it was Noetherian
this is why the inductive step is proven for m = 0
what can we say if (f(x)) is strictly contained in (g(x))?
||If we have a strictly increasing sequence of ideals I_n in F[X], then each is generated by a minimal polynomial f_n(X). if (f_n(X)) lies in (f_{n+1}(X)) then we have f_n(X) | f_{n + 1}(X). Thus the degrees are strictly decreasing, but they must terminate at some point as the degrees must be positive by infinite descent.||
The only way off the top of my head how to prove hilbert basis theorem is to show that leading coefficient map is an ideal-mapping
This is the special case that F is a field, so we can just use the fact that F[X] is a PID.
The spoiler'd text is what my proof would be for the field case which is significantly easier
You have used the fact that every ideal is principal… it's the same proof…
yes I know
i'm just saying idk how hilbert basis is generally proven
would it be "cheating" to basically just look up a table of quadratic residues here
Depending on the context, maybe?
idk how else I'd prove it here without trying to find the quadratic residues by hand
if this is meant to motivate techniques for computing quadratic residues, say.
this is the whole problem
Well, p = 2 isn't about quadratic residues
Unless it is…
Wait these aren't necessarily field extensions
no just to shortcut the isomorphism between rings
that's basically checking if it splits in one field, and not the other, there is no isomorphism
I don't think it's one line to get to the point of comparing quadratic residues. I would guess you weren't intended to look them up, but if you want to, why not?
i want to do it the way the author intended
if i'm remembering this correctly, at least for p = 2, we have that x^2 - 2 = x^2, and x^2 - 3 = x^2 - 1, so R_1 is modding out by an irreducible while R_2 is modding out by something that splits
it shouldn't be bad by quadratic reciprocity and the formula for (2/p)
that's a question down the line
i think i could be horribly misremembering though
Actually lol what I just said was much too much generality
p = 2:
X^2 - 2 = X^2
X^2 - 3 = X^2 + 1 = (X + 1)^2,
You can just compute yeah when they are quadratic residues and if you find that tedious ig just google but should be very quick since p <= 11
Actually i wonder if the isomorphism comes from this
X <-> X - 1?
wait I wonder if R[X]/(f(X)) ~= R[X]/(f(X + a))
More general question
Let R be a ring, a be an automorphism of R, and J be an ideal. Then is R/J ~= R/a(J)
you'd think a*(x + J) = a(x) + a(J) literally causes no issue
well yeah, what's the kernel of the composition R -> R -> R / a(J) where the first map is a?
cool that proves for p = 2 the iso literally is x -> x + 1
frobenius moment
thank you characteristic 2 frobenius endomorphism
the only time you don't make me sick
For p = 5:
How is x -> x+1 an iso
The inverse is x -> x - 1
it's a homomorphism because it is uniquely defined on F[x] and descends to the quotient
well, x in F_2[X]/(X^2) vs F_2[X]/((X + 1)^2)
Oh, sorry, I was missing the context
Yeah, it's iso on F[X]
yeah that's the ring element x, not like f(x) = x+1 forall x
So if X^2 - 2 splits, so does X^2 - 3
and the automorphism should come from there i'd assume?
Uh, why?
pwned 😦
2 * 3 = 6 = 1 mod 5 so 3 and 2 are inverses mod 5
So if 2 is a quadratic residue, so is 3
Hm I don't think X^2 - a splits iff X^2 - a^(-1) splits
Oh
Quadratic residue is so hard
if (X^2 - a) = (X - b)(X + b) then (X^2 - a^-1) = (X - b^-1)(X + b^-1)
so uh ye
Yeah that works
Idk what I was thinking
If it's irreducible then both rings are iso to F_25
I guess p=11 case is where it is not isomorphic
Time to memorize quadratic residue formulas 
i don't think 2 is a quadratic residue mod 11
wait
yeah it's not a quadratic residue
so there's no iso
Ye
Do you memorize this stuff?
that with (-1/p) and QR
The iso explicitly between the case of p = 5 is a + bu -> a + 3bu i think
sending u to 1/u = 3u
I guess so
Well like
Not intentionally
It's just very common and I've had various number theory courses where i've needed it
"OH BOY TIME TO PULL OUT A BUNCH OF CRITERIA"
2 elements
horror
wel the second has a typo anyway lel
we like to ignore the typos because there's no errata
Wow, you manage to memorize by osmosis
Nowadays I often think if I should not be mathematician
No I mean usually i find this stuff p hard to remember lol
But doing enough diophantine equations has drilled it in ig
It's also something you can easily check by hand once you know it's a mod 8 thing
Ah, are you going to research adjacent to NT?
like 2 is a square mod 7 (3^2) and mod 17 (6^2) but not mod 5 or mod 3
No but I've enjoyed what I've done thus far
Would be very cool if i could incorporate it somehow but i'm not very good at it rn lol
Is the easiest way to show that it's a field of eight elements as follows:
every element of that quotient has the (remainder) form ax^2 + bx + c. If the quotient is not mono, then we have ax^2 + bx + c = 0, thus contradiction of irreducibility :p
Hmmm
Are there people who accel at these stuffs, even more than you?
GOOD ENOUGH
just plug in 0 and 1, no root -> no linear factor so irreducible cuz cubic
i just did that lol
so it's irreducible, thus {x^2, x, 1} form basis of finitely generated module thus 2^3 = 8 tldr
Definitely
Well there are people for whom number theory is the main interest
Field extension is a vector space shenanigans
I just smacked down "integral" and |F_2|^|{1, x, x^2}| = 8
Woah.
Hmm, may I ask what is your main interest?
technically integral element schenanigans
Ig homotopy theory
i would like to incorporate some AG into it
Homotopy..theory? Sounds incredibly difficult
hbu

Oh boy time to try to find irreducible quadratic and cubic mod 5 please kill me
actually I already have 2 is a quadratic non-residue so x^2 - 2 is irreducible, for the cubic I can use cardano form
uh think like some bits of algebraic topology focused on homotopy-y stuff, and "higher" category theory
it's not that hard since you just need to find ones without roots
but hoenstly idk fully what i will do for phd yet lel
homotopical algebra and higher category theory 
Impressive, I envy you for being able to do these stuffs
i mean lmao yeah that's what I meant
My English is lacking, what does this mean?
"how about you?"
Oh
"Huge Big Ultraproducts"
what year are you in?
I wish I had (rather, allowed to have) some interest in some stuffs, but I fear I have to decide from asking for advisor to multiple profs and see who accepts me..
Sorry about this random rant that might be meddling you..
nice
Wdym sorry? Like you're keeping options open for nor?
It was kind of a rant. Also yeah, I am keeping my options open.
It feels like if I learn more, I would be locking myself to that branch.
here's a trick, use the fact that the multiplicative group of F_q has q-1 elements. Now throw a cyclotomic polynomial at it
Oh shit... should've done that
I found X^2 + 2 and X^3 + X + 1 lmao
idk in practice that might not be so direct haha
Two options here:
- Verify by hand using x^3 - x = x(x + 1)(x - 1)
- Use CRT to show Z_6 ~= Z_2 x Z_3, of which x^3 - x = 0 for any x in Z_2 OR Z_3
which is the least psycho
2
Just show by obviousness
I guess this is equivalent to showing x^3 = x (mod 6) always
....
HASN'T INTRODUCED DIRECT SUMS
OKIE DOKIE BOSSMAN
flip flops between the notations
like yeah they're equivalent for like, finite products/sums but
fuck man,
Didn't they?
Ah, with groups you just use products
I don't think so, at least not a difference between direct products and sums
for neither groups nor rings
definitely not as products/coproducts though idk the coproduct for general rings and it is probably horrifying
Hmmm.. dunno if there exists coproduct of rings
no one's grading this so I'm going to use funny a + v vector quaternion bullshit
makes it more intuitive.
wait any quaternion with no real and purely imaginary vector of norm 1 squares to -1

proof by: sphere
That’s my boy
Hungry. Angry. Efficient at solving problems.
Casually invoke sth like Gauss lemma
for what, to show the latter poly is irreducible?
You can use rational root theorem on the latter polynomial to show it's irreducible
it's just to show that it isn't principal
cant you just show that ax^3 + bx^2 + cx + d can't be a generator of the ideal
Actually
by comparing coeffients with 3 a lot should just vanish
a(x)b(x) = 3, which can only happen if a(x) and b(x) is constant due to degree rules for domains
not a cool way but surely works
Yeah this is it
The rest is just showing that the polynomial isn’t a multiple of 3 and that is clear
Same idea as the classic (2, x)
over Z you also get that one must be a unit, which doesn't leave much possibility
So summed up:
lol
option 3
0^3 = 0
1^3 = 1
2^3 = 8 = 2
3^3 = 27 = 3
4^3 = 64 = 4
5^3 = 125 = 5
My maam knows her cubes
Assume (f(x)) = (3, p(x)) where p(x) is that cubic
- There must be some a(x) : a(x)f(x) = 3, but deg(3) = 0, and deg(af) = deg(a) + deg(f) = 0 so deg(f) = 0, i.e f(x) = c for some c, and c | 3 so c = 1 or c = 3. f(x) cannot equal 1 as it wouldn't be a proper ideal, so c = 3:
- There must be some a(x) : c*a(x) = p(x), but p(x) has leading coefficient 1, contradicting c = 3
You might need to show it’s not proper
i mean (1) is always the whole ring as for any other ideal generated by a unit
Yeah why is the ideal in the question proper
(u) for a unit is R because (ru^-1) u = r must be in that ideal for any r in the ring
I agree
why is <3, p(x)> not the whole ring
Why is (3, p(x)) not just the whole thing
if it is then we have a contradiction, if it isn't then we still have a contradiction with the leading coefficient
oh wait not just (3)
well here's the thing, we have to say that p(x) =/= 3q(x) for some q
otherwise (3) = (3, p(x))
wait
That’s only necessary not sufficient
for any general p or just the p in question (of which 3 doesn't divide every coefficient)
Just the p in the question
3 doesn't divide every coefficient, thus there doesn't exist a q(x) such that 3q(x) = p(x)
Yep that works
I was stumbling before
You showed the only possible generators are (3) and (1)
Wait what
How does this show that for every a(x), b(x) a(x) * 3 + b(x) (x^3+x^2-2x-1) is not just 1
isn't the easiest way to show that 2 is not contained
I am confused
Like you claimed in your proof that the ideal was proper
why does this imply b(x) is just 0?
yeah because 1 isn't in the ideal and that's easily checked through degree rules.
im actually not seeing it right now lmao
how do you show that 1 isn't in the ideal by degree rules
actually I realized you can't easily, you're right hmm
what if there was cancellation among the terms?
because X^i isn't invertible for i>0
what if a was picked so the x^i's cancel?
I wonder if you could observe that the leading terms have to cancel and the constant terms need to sum to 1
yeah something like that should work
see but its not exactly immediately trivial right
yeah
oh yeah im stupid
btw here what about -1 and -3
same thing, I should've put that down
im getting tripped up on some basic notation in noncommutative vs commutative rings
in a noncommutative ring R, does (a) mean Ra or RaR?
what does it mean for a noncommutative ring to be principal? that all ideals are of the form Ra, or all left ideals are of the form Ra
In a non-commutative ring two sided ideal generated by {a}, (a) = { na +ra + as+ xay, n in Z and r,s,x,y in R } ( we don't assume R has unity)
Let N and K be submodules of M with I = Ann(N) and J = Ann(K). Show that I+ J is a subset of Ann( N and K) and give an example such that it will be strictly inclusion.
So I have shown that part and for strictly inclusion if I take M= R^2( R is a set of Real numbers ) over R. Let N is submodule generated by (0,1) and K is submodule generated by (1,0). Then I = {0} and J = {0} and Ann( N and K ) = R^2, right?
This can be contextual. But I'd say that if the word "ideal" generally refers to a left ideal, then (a) is probably a left ideal. And if "ideal" generally refers to a two-sided ideal, then (a) should be a two sided ideal.
A principal ring is one such that every left ideal and every right ideal is principal.
You might also talk about a left principal ring, where you require every left ideal to be principal, and similar for a right principal ring.
In particular every (two sided) ideal will also be of the form Ra
ah i see thanks
Let's say H is a proper subgroup of G, such that G/H is abelian. Also, for every non-identity element in H, Centralizer of x in G is H. Then show that H is the commutator subgroup of G.
For this, I can see that the commuator subgroup [G, G] must be inside H, as otherwise G/H cannot be abelian
I couldn't prove the other direction
Oh wait
nvm we done
I don’t buy this. Let G be abelian, then for all x in G C_G(x) = G so we have to have H = G
But clearly the commutator subgroup is trivial
And every quotient of an abelian group is abelian
For a fixed $y \in G \setminus H$, $f: H \to [G,G], f(x) = xyx^{-1}y^{-1}$. This is well defined, and injective.
Riku
Actually this holds for any group that isn’t centreless. Each central element will force your H to be the entire group
And the rest is trivial because G/H can only be abelian iff [G, G] is a subgroup of H
That is, H is a group such that it has cardinality less than equal to the commutator subgroup, and also the fact that G' is also a subgroup of H
Why is this injective? And are your groups always finite?
I guess the fact that H is a proper subgroup is actually relevant
Goofy phrasing
Ok this group is centreless by assumption, then G \cong Inn(G) hence x -> c_x(y^-1)y := x^-1y^-1xy is indeed injective
Hmm, okay I see why it's injective. Like if
x y x^- y^- = z y z^- y^-
Then since H is normal and abelian you would have
xz^- y = y xz^-
Which contradicts y not in H, unless xz^- is the identity.
But unless H is finite, there seems to be a missing step
Let M be R- module and M is a direct sum of N + N' and K is a subset of N and also submodule of M. Then I want to show that if N is the direct summand of M then N/K is a direct summand of M/K.
So my guess is M/K is a direct sum of N/K and N'/ intersection of N' and K
Is my guess correct if not any hint?
N’ intersect K is empty because N’ intersect N is empty
My bad 🥲
My method would be much more direct, use the fact that m = n+n’ uniquely for all m in M (by the properties of the direct sum) and then use this to write each m+K as n+(something)+K uniquely
Alternatively, bash the coproduct and quotient diagrams together
But I want to find that something
You mean {0} 
Yes your guess is correct, once you realize that the second summand in your guess is N' itself
So M/K is a direct sum of N/K and N', right?
Yeah, it would’ve been clear to see that the “(something)” in my post was just n’
Both initial objects. I win - you are nitpicking and biased
Moldi is always right
Okay thank you
i stand with wew 😔 ✊
Oh yeah sorry, group is finite
As for injectivity
let for x, x' in H, we have f(x) = f(x')
Then
Then xyx^{-1}y^{-1} = x' y x'^{-1}y^{-1}
From this we get
(x'^{-1}x)y = y(x'^{-1}x)
The first elements belong to H as H is a subgroup
So, y belongs to the centralizer of (x'^{-1}x)
So, y should be in H
That is a contradiction
Hence, the element x'^{-1}x must be identity
And hence x = x'
So the map is injective
@rocky cloak
Small question what is the intuition behind the inverse of a modulo
Someone asked me and I did not know how to answer
The way I understand it is as a byproduct of Bézout lemma
That’s true you mean xa+yb =1
assuming a and b are coprime
Sure
TLDR if a and b are coprime, then a has an inverse mod b, as there exists (x,y) coprime such that xa + yb = 1, so there exists an x such that xa = 1 modulo b
If you want you can say the y shows that there is an inverse of b mod a
ax + by = 1 implies y is b’s inverse mod a, and x is a’s inverse mod b
Ah I see
Extended Euclidean algorithm is a way to calculate these lol
extended Euclidean algorithm is determining a word in SL(2,Z)
it's just like the notion of inverse in any other group
Gives a bit of insight behind why coprime numbers mod n form a multiplicative subgroup
true
The converse is a bit more annoying but not too difficult
we also immedaitely get that in Z/nZ, |U(Z/nZ)| = \phi(n), which gives us euler totient theorem immediately : )
I'm doing question 4.9, stuck on showing that a_d*g(x) = 0. Any ideas guys?
I'm unsure how to use the fact that g is minimal, since all that allows you to do is conclude that if h has degree bigger than g then fh is nonzero, but i don't see how that'd be useful at all.
I’ll take a gander
Here’s an idea
So we know that x in our poly ring commutes with everything and is not a zero divisor, right
let f(x)g(x) = 0 right, so the product of the leading coefficients must equal 0
Now let’s imagine that g(x) = ax^N + g*(x)
so f(x)(ax^N + g*(x)) = af(x)x^N + f(x)g*(x) = 0. That implies af(x) ≠ 0, as if it did, then f(x)g*(x) = 0, contradicting g’s minimality.
(I’m typing out my thought process here, i haven’t done this exercise before)
The sum of terms lower than the leading term
Wait, you commuted a and f right?
May have by accident
How do we know they commute
I meant f(x)a ≠ 0
Same conclusion I just wrote it wrong because I’m used to considering “working terms” on the left lmao
Oh ok
Tbh I don’t like this approach
Let me try a different route from that same starting point
yeah i have the same version its such a pain. no worries
It doesn’t seem like commutativity is necessary
Wait I feel like with commutativity we can conclude g is 0
The coefficients of xg(x) are the same as the coefficients of g
If xg(x) is not 0, then f(x)xg(x) can't be 0, a contradiction since xg(x) has higher degree than g(x). Thus, xg(x) is 0
Thus g(x) is 0
Thus f can't be a 0 divisor.
And so the question makes no sense.
Wait I'm tripping so hard
Lol
I think what I just said is wrong
I confused minimal with maximal
f(x) = ax^N + f*(x)
g(x) = bx^M + g*(x)
0 = f(x)g(x) = abx^(N+M) +f*(x)bx^M + ag*(x)x^N + f*(x)g*(x)
not hard to see that ab = 0, and f*(x)g*(x) = 0
Yeah
Thus f*(x)bx^M = -ag*(x)x^N
Well all those terms are 0 right?
Since their coefficients are the coefficients of f(x)g(x)
I am thinking
let $f(X) = \sum_{i = 0}^n a_i X^i$ and $g(X) = \sum_{j = 0}^m b_jX^j$.
where $g$ is a polynomial of minimal degree such that $fg = 0$.
Then the coefficients of $fg$ must be zero so that $a_nb_m = 0$.
thus $\operatorname{deg}(a_ng) < \operatorname{deg}(g)$.
Since $f(a_ng) = a_nfg = 0$ we have that $a_ng = 0$ by minimality of $g$.
Kleptomancer
So we do use commutativity
sorry
No problem, thank you for the help
sure thing ^_^
What does it mean for a group with two generators x, y two only have the relations x^2 = e and y^3 = e?
I guess this means that xy != y^2? And that only xyxy^2 = e? But that is a relation as well, so...
There's other relations that can be kind of deduced from those,
Like (x)^2y^3 = e ofc,
Only two relations in this context means that every other relation on that group can be derived from the x^2 = y^3 = e ones
Right, but if I say xyxy^2 = e, then I add the restriction that they are commutative
The word problem is horrifying and scary
it's an open problem to know if a relation is derived or independent of given ones apparently
and is why you should cry yourself to sleep at night if you're a group theorist
given a word in x and y, the only cancellation you can do is when you have two xs in a row, or three ys
not counting the obvious "xx^-1 = e" as a relation because this is a group
relation on the monoid ecks dee
Right, that is what I thought but then my book asks to prove that that group is isomorphic to C_2 * C_3. But that would imply the group has to be abelian, right?
My book hasn't mentioned it yet
C_2 and C_3 are cyclics right?
Yeah
or are those the dihe
okay
Uhhhh yeah that's a free product :thecosmoshumswithatunesoVIOLENT
* is the coproduct, direct sum
just x^2 = y^3 = e?
yeah, it even says only
Like every element in that group with the relations is just pairs of xy^n multiplied together
which is the free product, you can't really "swap" the positions of x and y here
Oh wait, I guess the * is not the direct sum but the coproduct in Grp
Like if you had a third relation, that would allow you too, namely the dihedral relation, you'd have the dihedral group of order 6
Free Product is the coproduct in Grp
ah ok
In mathematics, specifically group theory, the free product is an operation that takes two groups G and H and constructs a new group G ∗ H. The result contains both G and H as subgroups, is generated by the elements of these subgroups, and is the “universal” group having these properties, in the sense that any two homomorphisms from G and H int...
So C_2 * C_3 in Ab is a different structure than it in Grp?
well, the coproduct would be different
ok
In Grp it'd be the free product, in Ab it would be the direct sum (direct product)
Oh shit, I think I am messing up notations. The direct sum is \oplus not *....
in Ab we'd want to also allow the elements to commute, so we'd have to add "commutativity relations" to the free product
which makes it into a direct sum
Ok I think I am starting to understand the difference between the free product and the direct sum
yeppers
So are products also different in Grp and Ab?
Ok 🙂
The justification for the difference too also can be interpreted as like, it's universal property
of which is how I remember to not mix up which is a (co)product
Well the book only has it defined with the universal property
We can map "out of both A and B" from the coproduct
So like, if we have a map from A into X, and B into X
Right for Abelian groups, since it's isomorphic to the product
We can map any pair (a,b) into X
just as a+b
which I realized looks a whole fucking lot like the tensor product in a weird way in retrospect
anyway
Here's how I interpreted the free product from the universal property
This was a pretty small chapter in the book, with some exercise that really let you do some thinking... I think the next few chapters will explain more
ah ok
Tldr:
If we have a map from A into X, f
and a map from B into X, g
Every element of the free product is some alternating word like a_1 b_1 a_2 b_2 a_3 b_3... right
well we can just have a map from the free product that sends a_1 b_1 a_2 b_2 a_3 b_3... to f(a_1) g(b_1) f(a_2) g(b_2) f(a_3) g(b_3)...
In a way it is the "most general" group that can be built from A and B, and that map out comes rather naturally by just sending the pieces of the word to their respective images from their subgroup (MUCH LIKE A DISJOINT UNION)
Right, thank you 😄
Self study is a little difficult, because no one is checking my exercises and can't ask a lecturer...
I'm also self studying dw
this is kind of a tricky example to introduce free products with
like it's easy enough to find an order 2 and order 3 generator of PSL(2,Z) but showing that they're free generators is scary
Holy fuck no
sure, if you know the ping-pong lemma
or the rep given by their action on the upper half plane of C
the funny part is this is literally extended Euclidean algorithm ignoring sign changes to an extent
You can state SL(2,Z)’s relators using commutators
And it’s abelianization comes instantly
PSL(2,Z) is not abelian
Ye I know
babble
What does SL, PSL mean?
But SL(2,Z) is more easy to find relations for
it is obvious once you know that SL(2,Z) is C_4 \ast C_3 that PSL(2,Z) is C_2 \ast C_3
Special linear group, projective special linear group
Isn’t it amalgamated
Ok, I guess the book will talk about those later...
What book?
maybe. I don't really care
Understandable completely
Aluffi Chapter 0
you cannot convince me that any of this is obvious regardless. Like hell you independantly would have discovered the ping pong lemma on your own
Fuckin Jacobson introduced wreath products for a single problem and then drops like this fucking nuke in the Sylow section
Right, SL is mentioned in the next 3 chapters
wreath products are easy
They are like 3 group actions together wtf you on about
this is touching on modular forms which is analytical number theory therefore it is hard
there's one group action in a wreath product lol
also how he wrote it incorrectly
Well thank you for helping Tube. And have a good night you two
did the queen posthumously award you a gaslighting license
$\phi H \rightarrow S_n \Rightarrow G \wr_{\phi} H := G^n \rtimes_{\phi} H$
good night fam
Wew Lads Tbh
it's literally a semidirect product
ye I know lol
a NICE semidirect product at that
also wtf why didn't latex render my _n properly
THE ANOMALY
el machina di diabolo...
I mistyped, it's two group actions. But the one is just condensed into the $H \rightarrow \mathrm{Aut}(\text{whatever the fuck})$ map
THE TUBE
sure u can think about that as another group action if you want
just need to consider the semidrect $G^\text{whatever the fuck} \rtimes_{\phi} H$
THE TUBE
where G^{whatever the fuck} is given the whole image group shit
apparently the cohomology of these things is very nice
Group cohomology?
I forget if that works for nonabelians
i will get there when I get there in Jacobson II
half that goddamn book is (co)homology shit
taking cohomology commutes with direct sums so you can just structure theorem it

hm, i never did cohomology of wreath products
Yeah but unlike my previous excursion with the LHS spectral sequence this one tends to collapse on E_2
It does for S_n \wr S_m iirc
ok nice so it fits into a neat SES
open #groups-rings-fields
"F_1"
leave #groups-rings-fields
Good
I need to show $(3, x^3 - x^2 + 2x - 1)$ is proper in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$
THE TUBE
My general advice would be to reduce mod 3
In general if we have an ideal generated by $a, b$ is the image of this ideal under an epimorphism $\varphi$ is the image the ideal generated by $\varphi(a), \varphi(b)$
THE TUBE
Yes
Although I’d say surjective. Just apply the map to the defn of (a,b)
the smallest ideal containing a and b
phi((a,b)) must contain (phi(a),phi(b)) but it's the reverse that seems screwy
wait
preimage
the R-linear combination formulation would be my go to
oh wait shit $(a,b) = (a) + (b)$ for commutative rings right
THE TUBE
Yeah
lmao
10 can prove 9
Interesting
it's F_27 is it not?
I'd take it that Z[x]/I is a field of 27 elements
Let J = (3, p(x)) where p(x) = x^3 - x^2 + 2x - 1
so J = (3) + (p(x)) contains (3)
Thus s: Z -> Z/(3)Z is an epimorphism, and J is sent to (p*(x)) , where p*(x) = x^3 - x^2 - x - 1 mod 3
So s(J) = (0) + (p*(x)) = (p*(x))
By third isomorphism: (Z/(3))/(J/(3)) = Z_3/(p*(x))~= Z/J
Observing p*(x) = x^3 - x^2 - x - 1. p* is a cubic thus it is either irreducible or has a linear factor (i.e root).
For any x in Z_3 (of char 3): p*(x) = (x^3 - x) - (x^2 + 1) = -(x^2 + 1), which is irreducible mod 3, so so is p*
Thus the quotient is isomorphic to the field F_27
Very nice
so it's a domain from that lol
then that kind of circles back to 9 showing the ideal is proper (as F_27 is not trivial) so 1 does not generate J
Assume (f(x)) = J
Then there must exist some g(x) :
g(x)f(x) = 3, which by degree inequality implies deg(f) = 0, so f(x) = c for some c, and also that c | 3, so c = 1 or 3 (sign is wlog).
As shown c ≠ 1 as the ideal is proper, so c = 3. But that implies there exists a h(x) :
3h(x) = p(x), but then 3 must divide every coefficient of p(x) which obviously doesn’t happen for any of them so we have a contradiction
All rings in this chapter are implied to be commutative
what does "holds without restriction" mean here
wait shit wrong chat
Actually I'll do it here because I want to know if this is an acceptable proof
I want to prove that the product of all nonzero elements in a finite field $\mathbb{F}_q$ is $-1$. The simplest case is $q = 2$, where the only nonzero element is $-1 = 1$, so it is trivial. Otherwise, we know $\mathbb{F}_q^\times$ is cyclic of order $q - 1$. Let $r$ be the generator.\
$w = \prod{n = 1}^{q - 1}{an} = \prod{k = 1}^{q - 1}{r^k} = r^{\sum_{k = 1}^{q - 1}{k}} = r^{\frac{q(q-1)}{2}}$ \\
However, from here we have two cases. If q is a power of 2, then $\frac{q(q-1)}{2} = m(q-1)$ so $w = (r^{q-1})^m = 1$. This is a nonissue as $1 = -1$ for characterstic $2$ fields. \
For the remaining odd prime powers, we have that $w \neq 1$ as $\frac{q(q-1)}{2}$ cannot divide $q-1$. However, we know that $w^2 = 1$, so $w$ is involute, of which there is only one involute element for cyclic groups of even order. $(-1)^2 = 1$, so $w = -1$
THE TUBE
I didn't feel like using Vieta's formulas lmao
wait I'm a fucking idiot, the constant map is an endomorphism from F_q[x] to F_q, so it'd send X^{q-1} - 1 = \prod(x - a_n) to \prod(-a_n) = -1
you just need to account for the sign, which that is a characterstic argument
prove that if H is a subgroup of G such that 2 |H| = |G|, then H is normal
If 2|H| = |G|, then the index of H in G is 2... what are the cosets?
H and gH
okie
there's two left cosets and two right cosets, right
H and gH are left cosets, H and Hg are right cosets... so any element not in H must be in gH and Hg
what can you say from there
gH = Hg?
yep
Since any element is either in H or gH, likewise H or Hg. so if x isn't in H, it must be in both of them. Thus gH = Hg
so H is normal
Even if H and G are infinite, if [H : G] = 2, then H is normal in G
how does gH = Hg imply H is normal though
sorry if that's a dumb question i'm kind of new to this
So, lets say x is in gH and Hg
then there is some h_1 such that x = gh_1
and some h_2 such that x = h_2g = gh_2... so h_2 = gh_1g^-1
:3
h2 g = g h1, then h2 = g h1 g^-1, and this holds for all x, therefore H is normal
holy shit it makes sense!
yeppers
Number of cosets of H in G
oh ok that's simple
or by Legrange's theorem, |G|/|H|
All cosets are the same size, so they split up |G| into the index-amount
you're welcome
my final is gonna kill me lmao. for some reason this intro to algebra course has to cover every topic under the sun. CRT, FTA, knots, groups, fields, rings, quotient rings, ideals, euler's theorem, permutations, the list goes on and on
My textbook is like that
"basic algebra"
smaller than D&F and goes into like, crazy deep shit
CRT is kinda fun tho ngl
Group theoretic or ring theoretic
But yeah ring theory CRT is fun
You can prove some suprising stuff with it
we're just working over integers for CRT lmao. does CRT even apply to different number systems?
It's actually a strong statement for rings (even noncommutative)
don't you need to be able to divide though? you can't do that in every ring
It has to do with the ideals,
I have come to an interesting observation
for simplicity let Q(a,b) be the legendre symbol
a nice problem that I managed to solve, try it for fun:
Can a sequence {a1, a2, ... , an} of elements of
a group of order n be chosen so that none of the partial products
is equal to the identity?
the partial products being any product(a_i ) i = p to q where p and q are any positive integers
the length of the sequence (which may, of
course, contain repetitions) is the same as the order of the group.
from halmos's problem book
Is this group abelian or non abelian?
I assume it doesn't need to be abelian
just a group no assumptions
here is a screenshot so that everything is as clear as possible
THE RAGE I FEEL TO THE 2 LEFT INVERSE ONE
FUCK
infinitely many left inverse HATRED
anyway
just a hunch but i think this depends on n
might be wrong tho
nope
but good
i think it's intuitive to think about its parity
but you can try it out
like pick out a group of order 4 or 3 or 5 or whatever
Let m be the lcm of the orders in G, i.e min m such that g^m = e for each m in G
m | n
I wonder if you can do some sneakery with that
try it out with a real example
i gotta go study some cloud computing but ping me if you have a solution
have ufn
yeah think about that
Partition G threeways, into involutions, and the remaining split by inverse
Real quick
If I let $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} = \mathbb{Z}_n$, then is the legendre symbol just the natural projection of $\mathbb{Z}_n^\times$ to $\frac{\mathbb{Z}_n^\times}{(\mathbb{Z}_n^\times)^2} \cong \mathbb{Z}_2$ for odd primes
THE TUBE
Part 1:
a^(p-1) = 1 mod p by FLT
(a^(p-1)/2 + 1)(a^(p-1)/2 - 1) = 0 mod p
If a is a QR, then a = x^2.
(x^(p-1) + 1)(x^(p-1) - 1) = 0
x^(p-1) is never -1 by FLT, so x^(p-1) = 1 mod p, so a^(p-1)/2 = 1 mod p
this was my observation
of which it is literally just that
Let $\alpha = \sqrt[3]{2 - \sqrt2}$, and let $\beta = \sqrt{2 - \sqrt2}$. Is $\beta \in \mathbb{Q}(\alpha)$? Give proof.
a.b.s._.0.
I feel like the answer is "no", but I'm unsure how to prove it
Hmm
Q(α), Q(β) both contain sqrt(2) and hence include Q(sqrt(2)).
Can you figure out their degrees over Q(sqrt(2))?
More precisely, the formulas for α, β strongly suggest that [Q(α) : Q(sqrt(2))] = 3 and [Q(β) : Q(sqrt(2))] = 2.
What would it take to prove this?
Wow great proof sir!
In the meantime,
If A is a subring of an integral domain B such that B is integral over A and the inclusion of A in B is a ring epimorphism, is it necessarily true that A = B?
Ok, that makes sense, I can prove both of those statements
But what's the view towards showing β in Q(a) though?
edit: OHH is it like, the degrees 2 and 3 are coprime, so the combined extension is exactly degree 6?
Inclusion is surjective?
I mean that’s all you would need to show they are equal right
2 does not divide 3, so Q(β) cannot be a subfield of Q(α).
(Assuming that the degrees are in fact 3 and 2.)
Yes, I want to know if that holds.
Is that not what epimorphism is?
ohhh thank you
Epimorphism means right-cancellative
For sets that is just surjective right?
So it does
No it is not
I mean
An integral extension cannot be a localisation.
maybe
Do you mean that it is an epimorphism because it is sandwiched between the ring and its field of fractions?
Thanks!
Wait does it
Uhhh
IDK
Let A inside B inside F = S^{-1} A ("inside" means "is a subring of"; we are assuming that S consists of cancellative elements).
Then any x in B is equal to a/s, a in A, s in S (1/s need not be in B though).
So we want to say f(x) = f(a)/f(s).
OK but s is cancellative, so if f(s) is also guaranteed to be cancellative we can say f(a) = f(x)f(s) which "fixes" f(x).
An inclusion is a monomorphism of A into B. So if it’s epi, it’s a bimorphism
Oh shit
I hate rings I hate rings I hate rings
Well, the question is precisely about the difference between bimorphism and isomorphism in this case.
Oh hm
B is integral over A do you mean that every element of B is a root of a monic poly of A
If R → S is epi that implies Aut(S/R) is trivial right
Oh how about Q ⊂ Q[2^1/3]
No that fails
What's a bimorphism
Epimorphism and monomorphism
Yea
Not necessarily always an isomorphism
Modules yes but rings no
monomorphism + epimorphism doesn't imply isomorphism in rings?
The inclusion of the integers into the rationals is actually epi
Or any localization of an ID
ore localization trauma
what? you mean mono?
It is epi and mono
It is epi because for any f: Q → R, f(n) and f(m) determine f(n/m) for any nonzero integers n,m
So the composition Z → Q → R determines Q → R
Is there an injective epimorphism from an ID that isn't localization
I feel like there is a sort of correspondence with the universal property of the localization in a way?
ty i was thinking epi = suryective not categorical epi
i hate rings
Think this should give you an example
https://mathoverflow.net/a/161/157483
Are you asking about the converse here? Because the automorphism group of Q[2^1/3] is trivial, but the map is not epi
Yea I realized that
For reference this would be
C[t²-1, t³-t] ⊂ localization of C[t] by t-1
How about A = Fp(t^p) and B = Fp(t) ?
Or do you need it to strictly be an integral domain, and not a field?
Hmmm, wait.
If C = B[z]/z^2, then t -> t and t -> t+z, might still agree on A.
Darn
It is yes
Any localization of an ID
What is the easiest way to see this fast?
Like this
It's pure curiosity so I need nothing.
Niceee.
Maybe not so nice though
Rings that are not fields strike again 😔.
Well, it works just like that
My mind says that if epi and mono then it is iso
Gotta tame my mind somehow
Just as you said. Gotta live with it.
Maybe examples from topology are more familiar. Continuous bijection does not mean homeomorphism
And morally commutative rings are basically types of topological spaces
Hm. Is a continuous bijection both epi and mono?
In any concrete category, injections are mono and surjections are epi.
Oh. Hmm
And in Top you even have the converse
(But monos need not be injections, or more commonly, epis need not be surjections.)
Aren't dense subsets epi but not surjective
Not in Top, but in something like the category of Hausdorff spaces, sure
Wait what
The easy way to see it is that if X has the trivial topology, then any function to X is continuous. So being epi in Top is the same as being epi in Set
Oh
But if you do something to make limits unique (like restricting to Hausdorff spaces) then you're cooking
Hmm, so suppose B/A is integral mono and epi.
Pick x in B satisfying f(x) = x^n + … + a0 = 0, where f is chosen with n minimal.
Let C be the “universal splitting ring” for f over A, e.g. C := A[T1, …, Tn]/(Σ Ti = -a_{n-1}, …, T1 … Tn = (-1)^n a0).
Then hopefully there “should” be an A-morphism B -> B (×) C mapping x to any Ti, forcing n = 1?
Not that it would actually just be this simple (unless A is a field, I think, so that {f | f(x) = 0} is a principal ideal).
Apearantly, true when A is Noetherian, but not in general
https://mathoverflow.net/a/21718/157483
Huh.
.
Damn rings
I guess this example is not an integral domain. Forgot you also required that
Fair enough.
Wait does this one not work 
Idk, is that an integral extension?
Oh right
