#groups-rings-fields
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thus x ~ (-x) for each x, i.e n | x - (-x) = 2x
which mean if i pick an elemnt out $\overline{x}$ and another out $\overline{-x}$
Mootje
this mean that n | a - b
So let me write [] instead of overline:
2a is in [2a] agreed?
[2a] = [0], per assumption
Thus 2a is in [0]
Hence n divides 2a-0
*equivalence c l a s s$, i.e x ~ -x where x ~ y iff n | (x - y)
so n | (x - -x) for each x
there's your forall quantification
set x = 1
2 | n
n even
i agree about that but then my point here we picked like an element out 2a but that elemnt is arbitrair so thats why
Sure
it's arbitrary because it holds for EVERY one in the equivalence class
Pick whichever you want, as long as it's equal to 2a modulo n
really it's because it's an equivalence relation, that's honestly a bit more important here
maybe because it's equivalent 
oh i see what you mean i get it
well you meant actually that 2a is in [2a]
has that form
i mean
its just like when saying z/3z
{1} = has the form of 3z + 1
for example [1] = [4] in z/3z this is equivalent to saying that 3z + 1 = 4+3z mod n but this is equivalen to 1 = 4 mod n
is this a good way of thinking about it ?
i mean here mod 3
actually
so this mean that 1 = 4 mod 3 which is true as well
Bruh wait is showing x = y (mod A) and (mod B) is equivalent to x = y (mod A \cap B) just because of x - y being in A \cap B 
Yes
what do you mean
x=y mod A means x-y is in A
x=y mod B means x-y is in B
so x-y is in A cap B
so x=y mod (A cap B)
the implications go backwards too. so it's equivalent
The general form of Chinese Remainder Theorem was much harder to prove in full than I thought
I dont think so
Could be misremembering correctly but im pretty sure it still is just writing x as the nice linear combination from bezout basically
the ring theory proof
Sure I agree about that
But what has that to do with this
.
Hello! I am asked to find an isomorphism between $\mathbb Z_2[x]/(x^4+x^2+1)$ and $\left{\begin{bmatrix}a & b\& a\end{bmatrix}:a,b\in\mathbb F_4\right}$
person2709505
I have identified the non-units of the matrix ring, and can use the fact that the iso must map non units to non units to narrow down the search space, but I am really quite stuck figuring out how to get something that isn't a 16-case piece wise function
Z2 means z mod 2. No p adics here.
One of my guesses was to take q,r obtained through division of a polynomial in the poly ring by x^2+x+1, and having q,r be the entries of the matrix in the matrix ring. No luck
@coral steeple maybe try Cayley-Hamilton. What is that characteristic polynomial?
I will chew on that, thanks...
As far as I can tell, Cayley-Hamilton applied to these matrices gives the fact that $\begin{bmatrix}a & b\& a\end{bmatrix}^2=\begin{bmatrix}a^2 & \& a^2\end{bmatrix}$
person2709505
The matrix ring is isomorphic to the ring $\mathbb Z_4[t]/(t^2)$ by sending the matrix with entries a and b to a + tb. This latter ring is isomorphic to $\mathbb Z_2[y,t]/(y^2+y+1,t^2)$. Now this ring is isomorphic to the ring you want by sending $y \to x^2$ and $t \to x^2+x+1$.
chmonkeynumber1fan
I'll think about that, thanks
How do we interpret the first isomorphism between the matrix ring and Z_4[t]/(t^2), seeing as the matrix entries are in F_4 while a+tb is supposed to be in Z_4?
Apologies, I meant to write F_4 in all the places I wrote Z_4
Ah got it thx
Should Z_2 be replaced by F_2 as well?
Those are the same anyhow
True, big brain moment for me
In any case, is the other isomorphism ok with you?
I'm still mulling over the polynomial ring in two variables. I've only read about them in passing
Does the isomorphism $\mathbb F_4[t]/(t^2)\to \mathbb F_2[y,t]/(y^2+y+1,t^2)$ exist because of the fact that $\mathbb F_4\cong \mathbb Z_2[y]/(y^2+y+1)$?
person2709505
@gritty sparrow
Yeah
Huh, how is F_4 isomorphic to an extension of 2-adic integers
^
Ah, I see. I would advise to use F_2 instead
Fair enough. I'm not sure why we use Zm in class while the prof says the most consistent notation is Z/(m)
Idk, he is very careful with notation. He insisted on writing the gcd of a,b as GCD(a,b) so that when the notation (a,b) appeared, the statement (GCD(a,b))=(a,b) would have meaning beyond notation
Well I think I understand how these functions work more or less now. Thanks again!
Np
If a ring R, for all a≠0, b there exists c such that a•c = b. I want to show that R has no zero divisor.
So if I let x ≠ 0 and y ≠ 0. So, for any b there exists a_1 such that x•(a_1) = b and for a_1 there exists a_2 such that y•(a_2) = a_1.
Hence for any b there exists a_2 such that (x•y)•(a_2) = b , so x•y can not be 0.
Is it correct?
I think if it is then it does not matter
If a_1 is 0 then b will be 0 but I want to prove that for any b
if a2 is 0, then xy* a2 = 0
and you couldn't conclude anything about xy being nonzero
But when b ≠0 then ?
Since if b≠0 then xy can not be 0 because if it is then b will be 0
Okay, but I don't understand why I consider this case
o i misread the statement
myb
but yes the argument looks good
we just force b to be nonzero as well
Okay, thank you
Haar measure on a finite group 
If lim_n a^n = e
and your multiplication is continuous, then
a * lim_n a^n = a*e = a
a = lim_n a^n+1 = lim_n a^n = e
So this only happens if a=e
(or I guess if your topology is not Hausdorff then a sequence can have several limits)
If G is a group and H is subgroup of G. Then mapping from G -> G/H such that g-> gH.
Then H is the kernel of this mapping?
Yes. Note this only works when H is a normal subgroup.
Can one describe normal groups with exact sequences?
Do you mean normal subgroup?
or if you define kernels of pointed sets
Yes, a normal subgroup is the image of the first map in an SES.
Kernels as equivalence relations is more cute, but alas...
But if I don't take H be normal then ?
Then the question doesn't make sense
Because G/H is not a group.
You cannot then talk of homomorphisms or kernels, unless you expand the definition as det alluded to.
But I don't want G/H as a group I just want to take as a set of left Cosets, then?
That's fine, but you cannot talk about the kernel of something that is not a homomorphism
G/H is not a group; it has no identity
So in that case kernel terminology is not good ?
Yes.
The closest comparable statement is that G/H is a G-set. And it is true that the stabiliser of the element H of G/H in G is H. If you don't know what this means, don't worry about it.
Means G acts on G/H ?
Yes.
Yes then the stabilizer of H is H
That is what I said, yes.
you could define the notion of a kernel as soon as your category has a zero object.
I don't know about category
Got it, thank you
Yeah then I wonder why no textbooks does this
Would you sincererely want to learn about SESs before the first isomorphism theorem?
Maybe
It is such a trivial fact about SESs but would be so confusing to a first-time learner
G/H is not a group, but it still has a distinguished point, namely the left coset H. so you could still copy your old definition of kernel to define kernel of a map of pointed sets f : (X, x) --> (Y, y) as the pointed set ({a in X : f(a) = y}, x).
but yes, this doesn't tell you a lot of structure about the kernel, here it's just a pointed set.
I recall being confused about purpose of first isomorphism theorem, it could be helpful to know stuff about SES
Well of course the image of the inclusion of 1 is a normal subgroup :trollshiro:
Lol
Yes the second map I suppose
Wow the normal subgroups are exactly the kernels? If only there were some theorem that told us this
If only 
At this moment I don't understand it properly but thank you, is pointed set terminology?
A set with a point
Single point ?
It’s very Google-able but it’s just a set with a distinguished element
Okay, thank you
Is G/H just a pointed set with a projection from G, or does it have more identifying properties?
As I said earlier, it's a G-set. It's a transitive G-set, in fact
Every transitive G-set is isomorphic to some G/H also
Every G-set is isomorphic to a disjoint union of G/Hs
For a rather small class of possible Hs
Hmm, G-set
g check
Yeah, I mean it reminded me of.. ah better not say that
well now you HAVE to
If it’s “G-string” you are a massive prude
Not that one
The real sex appeal is the basis of the burnside ring
What a mensch burnside was
Let R be a ring with commutative and P is prime ideal in R.
Then I want to show that P[x] is the prime ideal in R[x].
So if I let f(x) = a_n(x^n) +.....+a_0 and g(x) = b_m(x^m) +.....+ b_0.
Then if fg belongs to P[x] then a_0b_0 belongs to P.
But if I take b_0 does not belong to P then recursively show that a_k belongs to p .
But if I take both a_0 and b_0 belongs to P then at some stage I get a_ib_i belongs P. So again two cases arrive a_i belong or not. But at the end we get one of them f(x) or g(x) belongs to P[X].
Is it correct?
Looks like the right idea but there are plenty of details missing.
You can show this much more simply by just showing that the kernel of the map R[x] → (R/P)[x] is exactly P[x], which is much easier. Since this is a surjective map and (R/P)[x] is an integral domain, P[x] must be a prime ideal.
Boring!
Call me a stick in the mud but to me there is nothing more boring than endless manipulation of polynomials
It's like what applied mathematicians call algebra lmao
I thought u liked number theory :trollshiro:
Actually I take it back. It’s really annoying to see by direct manipulation
It’s immediate that it’s an ideal but primality is poopy

common wew lads L
Dw wew, I stand with you in solidarity 😔 ✊ L takers unite
It is not the fury of the river that wears the mountain, but its persistence
unironically kinda based
Oh, got it, thank you
I am trying to organize my thoughts. However, my thought process is often very abstract, making standard tools unsuitable for capturing the abstractness of my thoughts. For that reason, I want to start learning abstract algebra. Would this be a good idea?
What do you think?
That’s a dreadful reason but everyone should learn abstract algebra so yes do it
What? Really?
Yeah it’s fun
Abstract algebra doesn't help you organise your thoughts lol
It's a subject like any other. You may as well ask the same question but substitute English literature for abstract algebra.
Except I think English lit would actually help you organise your thoughts better lol
Moreso than AA
Yeah, probably
If you want to learn it, start reading an introductory book and you can decide for yourself whether or not it interests you.
But if you are expecting some kind of system to understand abstract thought, you will be sorely disappointed.
That is the realm of philosophy
Yeah... I'm not a normal person though.
I often do some vibe-based reasoning that I don't find a way to write down.
Well, let's put it that way...
Before learning equation, you can have a vibe of say... solving x+2=5.
But after learning equation, you have a solid understanding of how to solve it.
I'm just feeling maybe something I've been intuitively thinking lie inside the abstract algebra.
So, maybe I need to try out.
If you want “vibe based” you should not do mathematics
This really has nothing to do with abstract algebra
The name isn't really helping. Most (pure) mathematicians just call it algebra, anyway.
I reiterate that you should just pick up a book to get a better idea, and you can decide if you are interested.
Terence tao told me that professional mathematicians are exclusively vibe based
Yeah and he does analysis and crypto scams not mathematics
Crypto scams? Am I missing some lore?
He was big into the web 3 shit iirc
Ah I have no clue what that is
Good
I might also point out that doing intuitive reasoning does not make you "not a normal person." Being unable to formalise intuitive reasoning simply means you are early in your mathematical training.
I assure you that every mathematician uses their intuition. The difference is that they have trained their intuition to be accurate.
And they’ve learnt the required language to write down their intuition formally
Which is what proofs are
If you have any specific questions about the content of abstract algebra, you can feel free to ask them here.
Whats a nice not too tedious example to inspect a concrete group action on some set and answer some questions regarding basic group action stuff?
Like not conjugation, left multiplication
Maybe has a concrete example and good questions in mind
Well, the canonical example is any symmetric group S_n acting on {1, ..., n}
Can you formulate some additional questions like as an exercise
Just start calculating orbits and stabilisers?
I'm not a textbook lol I don't have good exercises ready and waiting
Prove the sylow theorems
Yeah ig the best thing would just be what Wew suggests
think about some orbits and stabilisers, see what you get for S_n acting on {1, ..., n}
Describe them
Maybe calculate their orders
Soon,
Yeah fair answers, I was Just wondering If there are additional questions that you should ask yourself.
Idk maybe here's a wild example
The group of rotations about the origin of the plane acts on the set of lines (i.e., infinitely long straight lines) on the plane. Describe the orbits.
PGL_2(F) is sharply 2-transitive on P^2(F) right
This seems like a good and reasonable exercise to spring on a beginner :DDDDD
How the fuck am I supposed to know
Yes it is
the set of lines going through the origin, or are you describing something like V/W, where W is a 1-dim subspace?
or just all the lines
All the lines! All the cosets of 1d spaces on the plane.
Same thing (I love semi simplicity)
my brain is struggling hard to visualise this space
Show that if x and y are in the same orbit, then their stabilizers are conjugate.
That’s a really good one
Don't try to visualise all the lines at once! Picture a single line (off the origin) and imagine rotating it. What does that look like?
There is a very simple geometric description of when two lines are in the same orbit.
Almost like a homotopy 
And to be clear, I mean rotation around the origin.
The group is S^1
intuitively speaking, two lines should be in the same orbit if they have the same gradient and are the same distance away from the origin I think. Something similar to how, if we take a point z in C and consider all rotations, the orbit of the z is the circle |z|
If they have the same gradient?
But the gradient clearly changes when we rotate a line
Oh yeah you're right
You are close.
there should be some invariant though, it's clearly not all lines some distance away form the origin
I see
We need to exclude reflections, as this picture demonstrates
The group doesn't include reflections in the first place
Like I said, it's the group of rotations about the origin
Yeah which is why they can’t be in the same orbit.
Yes, but the point is that they can't thus be in the same orbit
Are you sure?
Wait.
Yeah I’m pretty sure
we can generate D_n with any two "distinct" reflections
When you say distance from the origin, you mean the minimum distance, right? The perpendicular distance.
:)
There is a line from the origin to any other line, which forms a perpendicular.
I was going off of some "intuitive" understanding, but now I realise my intution wasn't quite clear enough to attack this problem
That’s the invariant I saw
I think it's pretty clear once one spots that
I think for a reflection you can use the fact that you’re not dealing with line segments to move one onto the other
Oh right, so the orbit is the set of all tangents to a circle a given distance away from the origin
Indeed. The orbits consists of lines of equal distance from the origin.
Oh yeah? Watch this
What would we use to formalise this? How would we even describe "the set of all lines" or "all rotations"?
Wym? The set of all lines is very easy to describe. You know this. Take all 1d subspaces V of R^2 and look at R^2/V. That's the set of lines parallel to V.
Similarly rotations, as Wew points out, are in bijection with the unit circle. The group structure on that is well-known, it's the same as complex multiplication.
^nerd
Guilty as charged
The invariant is more interesting though. It takes some amount of work to show that there's a minimal-length representative for every coset of any V
The representatives are parameterised by R with some quadratic form being minimalised
Maybe I'm just being a little pedantic but I'm curious on how we would formally describe "all the 1-dim affine subspaces of R^2". Like what operation do we do to go from R^2/V1 to all of them? are we just taking a big uncountable union?
Quadratic forms on R are uhhh quadratics lol
And so have a unique minimum
Does that work?
Yeah union the mfs
Pick a unit vector. Look at its span!
Every 1d subspace has a basis of one element. WLOG we can choose this to be unit. There will be two such generating vectors for each subspace, but it's not hard to choose one.
right
Le double cover has arrived
So we have parametrised the set of all 1d subspaces in terms of (particular) unit vectors
I'm following
Now just take all the quotients! Ah ah ah ah
Exactly. Then the set of their cosets is the set of all lines
I have a question regarding symmetric group: This is what my book says: Let $\sigma \in S_n$, then there are $n$ possibilities for $\sigma(1)$. For $\sigma(2)$, there are $n - 1$ possibilities
since $\sigma(1) \neq \sigma(2)$, as $\sigma$ is injective. For $\sigma(3)$, there are $n - 2$ possibilities, and so on. In total, there are
$n! = n \cdot (n - 1) \cdot \ldots \cdot 2 \cdot 1$ possibilities to choose $\sigma$.
A permutation can be represented as a matrix with two rows. In the top row, we have the elements ${1, \ldots, n}$ and below them their images:
[
\begin{matrix}
1 & \ldots & n \
\sigma(1) & \ldots & \sigma(n)
\end{matrix}
]
However, this representation is rather cumbersome, which is why permutations are usually represented in cycle notation. well i understand everything. However im confused about something well here when we say that $\sigma \in S_n$ i do not really get it what does that mean
Mootje
Wym? It's saying sigma is an element of S_n
Sigma is an element of Sn?
are you confused about what sigma is
It’s standard set theory notation
because i thogght first that $\sigma(1) \in S_n $
No
Right. I understand this construction, but whatever reason it still feels a little bit fleeting. I think that just might be me though. thank you boss man
sigma(1) is in {1, ..., n}
yes but i do not get it
The elements of S_n are bijections (i.e. functions) {1, ..., n} → {1, ..., n}
So sigma is a such a thing.
S_n is the group of permutations of {1,…,n} - bijections from- BOYTJIE STOP DOING THAT
so the elements of S_n are function that are bijvectives
am i right about that
but then what is $\sigma(1)$ is it an elemen of a specific function
Mootje
but its not an element of S_n
It’s sigma evaluated on 1

Calling that an “element” of a function, while rather based, is very misleading
and what is then the diffrence when we say $\sigma o \tau (a)$ or $\sigma o \tau$ they are just the same
Mootje
sigma(1) is like sin(pi/2). It is the evaluation of a function
yes but is it not suppose to be also an element of S_n
No.
It is meant to be an element of {1, ..., n}
sigma is a function
sigma(1) is a number
then why the result of $\sigma o \tau$ is equivalent to $\sigma o \tau (a)$
Mootje
No. $\sigma \circ \tau$ is the \emph{function} that sends some $a \in \set{1, \dots, n}$ to $\sigma(\tau(a))$. Whereas $\sigma \circ \tau(a)$ is frankly bad notation for $\sigma(\tau(a))$.
Boytjie
thats what my book is saying
It is not.
You are almost certainly misinterpreting your book.
i see what you mean
It is clearer to write (sigma o tau)(a) instead of sigma o tau(a) in my opinion.
It leads to confusion like this
i see bcause one of the question that i was trying to solve was this
"Let $\sigma, \tau \in S_n$.
(a) Suppose that $a \in {1, 2, \ldots, n}$ is mapped to $a' \in {1, 2, \ldots, n}$ by $\tau$. Prove that $\sigma(a)$ is mapped to $\sigma(a')$ by $\sigma\tau\sigma^{-1}$."
Mootje
There's no intuition to speak of, really
This is just using functions
Please be more specific about what's unclear here
well i mean what do they mean with the last sentence that sigma(a) is mapped to sigma(a')
using the function
When people say that a function f maps a to b they mean f(a) = b.
do they mean applying the function sigma tau sigma inverse
Of course.
The number sigma(a) is mapped to the number sigma(a’)
Or like, really explicitly:
tau^-1(sigma(tau(sigma(a))) = sigma(a’)
Other conjugation!!
RAAAAAGGGHHHH
Trivial typos 
Well I thought first when we say something map to something
We mean the -> which gives domain and codomain
We also use that language in that case, yes.
...pile?
A pile means something quite different in English, just so you know
Mootje
$\to$
Mootje
I’d love to know the linguistics behind “arrow” and “pile” becoming synonyms
Pil means arrow in my language
In old Norse as well supposedly
I guess once you have "thin pointy thing" down in the language you're pretty much set
I see, interesting
In my language as well 😅
But what I mean this one is for domain and codomain
And the other arrow
What is your language?
Is the one that giving a function
Dutch
I see
$\mapsto$
Mootje
Well you are right sorry
Debating what arrow we use is just being pedantic
I have confused two arrows the one to and the other one with each other
$f : A \to B$ means that the function $f$ takes elements of $A$ and outputs elements of $B$.
$f \colon a \mapsto b$ means that $f(a) = b$.
Boytjie
The difference is very important, I think you'll agree.
I agree for sure
But maping is indeed the second one
You are right
I confused two different things with each other
Is there a nice reason why almost all substructures are preserved under intersection? Like subgroups, subspaces etc. I feel like it has something to do with how intersections are meets in the preorder of subsets, and a substructure is a particular kind of subset, but I can't think further than this
Yes it's actually quite nice
This has to do with universal algebra
One moment
I have to deal with something but I will explain momentarily
If I want an example of a commutative ring R with unity and its subring S which has same unity such that intersection of S and M is not maximal in S where M is maximal in R.
So if I let R be the polynomial overs set of all real numbers and S be the set of polynomials over integers and M be (x) then M is maximal in R. But intersection of M and S is not maximal in S, because it is polynomial generated by x over integers which is not maximal in Z[x].
Is it correct?
OK here is the story. The majority of algebraic structures work like so: you have some set, and you have some operations with various numbers of inputs. A distinguished element such as the identity can be seen as an operation with zero inputs. Such things are usually called "algebras" by universal algebraists, but this terminology is a bit confusing, so I will just call them structures.
Then we usually require our structures to have some properties. We like certain nice properties, which are of the form "Forall a_1, ..., a_n, we have (expression) = (expression)" where each of these expressions uses only the a_i and the operations. Such properties are known as identities.
We say that a kind of algebraic structure forms a "variety" if its axioms can be expressed only with some set of these identities. Groups form a variety, but one needs to include the inversion of a group as an operation in order to do so. Rings also form a variety. Fields to not form a variety – I might suggest you try proving that they cannot, under any set of operations, form a variety, as it requires a bit of creativity.
There are some facts about varieties that are easy to prove. This really comes from how nice identities are! Your observation that the intersection of two substructures is also a substructure (in the variety) is one of them. Another is that the Cartesian product of two structures is a structure in the variety. There is also a notion of quotients of structures but this gets more complicated.
@glad osprey forgot to ping
But if we take the intersection of S with prime ideal P it will be prime ideal in S. But if the unity of S and unity of R are not the same then does it change the result ?
Oh look. The Grothendieck completion
So pretty
Thanks for the response! Is this equivalent to the varieties you are talking about?
Wait, how do you know y mapsto x^2 and t mapsto x^2+x+1 is an isomorphism? I'm willing to accept it's a sort of change of variables (so a homomorphism), but why should that be injective and surjective?
Not by bashing out the multiplication and doing the long division by taking two arbitrary elements of the form (a+by)+(c+dy)t (I don't see how anyone could more readily see that that is an isomorphism than just finding an iso between the original two rings)
I think I get it now: for any variety S with subvarieties A and B, then A∩B inherit all the equational axioms, (like associativity etc.) from S, and for the existential axioms it is clear that if there exists an x in A and B then x is in A∩B. And closure is also trivially satisfied because anything that is in A and B is in A∩B. And apparently you can even rewrite the existential axioms as equational axioms? And algebraic structures that are not varieties have non-equational axioms, so those substructures might not be preserved under intersection?
I would just bash. You don’t have to do the multiplication as long as you accept it is a homomorphism (which is easy enough to prove)
How were you able to come up with this last isomorphism? (if you can remember)
@coral spindle sorry for pinging, just wondering if I understood this correctly
There are no existential axioms in a variety.
That is part of the definition
There are only identities.
Families of algebraic structures that aren't varieties may or may not have these properties, it's simply not guaranteed.
Guess I found one sense where I might be better than him
How do you formulate the existence of an identity element in a group without existential quantification?
A distinguished element such as the identity can be seen as an operation with zero inputs.
Zoinks
Fun fact: the existence of inverses (meaning a * a^-1 * b = b) guarantees the existence of an identity, unless your "group" is the empty set.
I knew the identities t and y satisfy, so I looked for elements in the other ring that satisfied those relations
I see, thanks 👍 so id : {1} → G and inv : G → G is part of the definition of a group?
Yes, you need that to show it forms a variety.
and for a field, you could define unity : {1} → F and mult_inv : F -> F, but you couldn't make an identity out of it, because you need x = 0 OR x * mult_inv(x) = unity
mult_inv(0) is the issue, yes
If I want to show that if for any pair of ideals I and J with IJ be subset of P implies I is subset of P or J is subset of P then P is prime ideal in commutative ring R.
So if I let I = (x) and J =(y) then xy belongs to P and then x belongs to P or y belongs to P.
Is it correct?
im have solved the first deel of the question
However
im facing a problem with the second deal
part
i mean
OK
Let $\sigma, \tau \in S_n$.
\begin{enumerate}
\item[(a)] Suppose that $a \in {1, 2, \ldots, n}$ is mapped to $a' \in {1, 2, \ldots, n}$ by $\tau$. Prove that $\sigma(a)$ is mapped to $\sigma(a')$ by $\sigma\tau\sigma^{-1}$.
\item[(b)] Deduce from (a): if the cycle decomposition of $\tau$ is given by
[
\tau = (a_1 a_2 \ldots a_k)(b_1 b_2 \ldots b_{\ell}) \ldots (g_1 g_2 \ldots g_q)
]
then the cycle decomposition of $\sigma\tau\sigma^{-1}$ is given by
[
\sigma\tau\sigma^{-1} = \sigma(a_1) \sigma(a_2) \ldots \sigma(a_k) \cdot \sigma(b_1) \sigma(b_2) \ldots \sigma(b_{\ell}) \cdot \ldots \cdot \sigma(g_1) \sigma(g_2) \ldots \sigma(g_q)
]
\end{enumerate} here is the whole question
Mootje
now im trying to solve for b
this is what i have until now
but im not getting that far
i tried to multiply both side with the inverse maybe i will get something but i did not
and the only thing that we know from a that t(a) = a'
and also that sigma tau sigma sigma(a) = sigma(a') more nothing
im not really sure if you suggest something
I'd break it into 2 pieces:
-
explain why if you write pi = S_1 * S_2 * ... * S_k as the product of disjoint cycles, then (sigma * pi * sigma^{-1}) = (sigma * S_1 * sigma^{-1}) * (sigma * S_2 * sigma^{-1}) * ... * (sigma * S_k * sigma^{-1}). This means that pi and sigma * pi * sigma^{-1} have the same cycle structure
-
Because of 1, you only need to show the result for a single cycle. So now focus on showing that if pi = (a1 a2 ... an) is a cycle, then sigma * pi * sigma^{-1} = (sigma(a1) sigma(a2) ... sigma(an)). Basically this just comes down showing that if pi(a) = b then (sigma * pi * sigma^{-1})(sigma(a)) = sigma(b), which is exactly part 1.
if you really think about what the cycle structure notation represents, like writing pi = (a1 a2 ... an) means that pi(a1) = a2, pi(a2) = a3, ...., pi(an) = a1, then this questions is just applying part a) to part 1. of what I wrote above
i will try that
yeah it's a confusing looking question that will seem really easy once you think about what the cycle notation means
its really confusing
i hate permutation
this is what i did
im not so sure
I Find it really irritating question
yeah, I would think about a simple example, like pi = (1 2 3)
don't try to prove the full result, just try thinking about an example first
like pi = (1 2 3) means that
pi(1) = 2
pi(2) = 3
pi(3) = 1
now using part (a) you know that
(sps^{-1}) (s(1)) = s(2)
(sps^{-1})(s(2)) = s(3)
(sps^{-1})(s(3)) = s(1)
Well I do not get what is here s2
sorry i'm writing s instead of sigma
lol just shorter
and p instead of pi
I should have said that
Sure I get it
okay, so now look at
(sps^{-1}) (s(1)) = s(2)
(sps^{-1})(s(2)) = s(3)
(sps^{-1})(s(3)) = s(1)
write this in cycle notation, like like for how pi = (1 2 3)
Well then the cycle notation will be (sps^{-1}) (s(1)) (sps^{-1}) (s(2)) (sps^{-1}) (s(3))
I guess
But not so sure
no, remember than if
p (1) = 2
p (2) = 3
p (3) = 1
then we write p = (1 2 3) as a cycle
so if
(sps^{-1}) (s(1)) = s(2)
(sps^{-1})(s(2)) = s(3)
(sps^{-1})(s(3)) = s(1)
then we would write sps^{-1} as
...
Wait
thats the question lol
I guess then s(2)s(3)s(1)
This is equivalent
but also s(1) s(2) s(3)
To s(1)s(2)s(3)
exactly
Sure
Agree but this works only if the cycle is a full cycle I mean like (1 2 3 )
But if it was like (1 3 2 ) it won’t work
Pi
why not?
I mean it does work lol, or else the question would be wrong
and the question isn't wrong
it's the same thing, like if
pi(1) = 3
pi(3) = 2
pi(2) = 1
then the same thing works, you have
(sps^{-1}) (s(1)) = s(3)
(sps^{-1})(s(3)) = s(2)
(sps^{-1})(s(2)) = s(1)
which is (s(1) s(3) s(2))
it works for any cycle like (1 3 2 5 6 8), whatever
but then you need to show it's also true for multiple cycles
Sure agree the intuition now is 100%
like (1 3 2)(4 6) (5 9 7)
Agree
but to show it works for multiple cycles, just show that if you have something like
s (1 2 3) (4 5 6) * s^{-1}
then this is (s (1 2 3) s^{-1}) * (s (4 5 6) s^{-1})
each cycle in there is getting conjugated by s
yeah, just make sure you understand why you can multiply that way
like I said, not a hard question, just hard to wrap your head around the concepts and notations
To be fair I’m not so sure why it’s possible
True
And group theory is a difficult subject as well
yep, it is
that was the first proof course I ever took in my first year of math, it was painful
Me too
Now I’m in my first year
I was almost failing up until the very end, then it started to click, but it's hard stuff
But why multiplication that way is well good
Me too now I’m failing as well 😭
remember that a permutation p is a function
True
and multiplying permutations like that is function composition
Function I thought it’s a permutation
s (1 2 3) (4 5 6) * s^{-1} is the composition of 4 functions
a permutation is a function
Sure
it's a bijection from {1, ..., n} to itself
Sure
Composition of 4 functions how to go then to the composition of 3 functions multiply together
like when I write (s (1 2 3) s^{-1}) * (s (4 5 6) s^{-1})
instead think of functions
like fgf^{-1}fhf^{-1}
like just composition all those functions
and since you have f^{-1} f in the middle, those cancel out, because of inverses
Oh I see super smart
Bro I hate that
I mean why are we even learning about permutations what is the intuition behind it why is it important
In math
An exercise in Rotman asks to give an example where $H \lhd G$ and $G$ nonetheless has no subgroup isomorphic to $G/H$. An easy example is ${\pm 1} \lhd Q_8$ but $Q_8/{\pm 1} \cong V \not\subset Q_8$. What's an example with a different group? I couldn't think of any others
Thanks for the explanation I get it I will do some example like you did
But your trick is nice like try an example
And see what happen and prove
Ryemo🌾
@winged void (Alternating) Permutation groups are a large class of finite simple groups so they're interesting that way. Also every finite group is a subgroup of some permutation group, so that's a pretty big deal
I see
For example subgroups of Z^n work nicely, because no (non-zero) element of Z^n has finite order
So for example 2Z as a subgroup of Z
groups of bijections of sets are really important in math, and the symmetric group is the simplest example of that, it's the group of bijections of a finite set
Oh of course
but you can study other kinds of bijections too, like the group of permutations of an infinite set, or bijections which have some more structure, like continuous bijections, or linear bijections, or whatever kind of bijections
permutations are just the first, simplest form of that
Ah I see
lol it's just weird and abstract at first
To be fair it’s still a difficult concept for me
yeah don't worry, it's always tricky especially in your first proof based course, cause it's a lot of new ideas at the same time as learning proofs
Like half of the words you have said just like saying something that I do not understand that well
well yeah, that's okay
I heard once that in linear algebra when we say that linear transformation is symmetric with another one
some of the permutation groups are also the symmetry groups of important shapes
no one expects you to know all terminology when you first start of course
True
Like the rotational symmetries of the icosahedron are isomorphic to A_5
That’s too much for me @last spoke
Like my brain is already blowing due to that question
who doesn't love spinning shapes in their head
if it's a tetrahedron? an icosahedron? guess what that's a permutation group
I mean triangle
watch good youtube videos, having a visual/geometric intuition really helps when first learning group theory
Easy Nice shape
because it's so abstract at first
Do you suggest any
well actually the rotational symmetries of a triangle are also a permutation group
only broadly, like 3blue1brown is good
I don't watch many so I don't know specific ones
actually it's still tru if you include the reflections
3blue1brown does not have anything on algebra I guess
all the different ways of rotating and reflecting a triangle rigidly is S_3
True
I guess because for rotation there are 3 elements
Not rotating
Rotating 60 degree
Rotating 120
I guess
And reflecting the same
Indeed one has to look fairly far to find examples. This is the smallest possible one, if I'm not mistaken.
The family of dicyclic groups, hilariously notated Dic(4n), provide similar counterexamples. In fact Q_8 is Dic(8).
There is a subgroup of Dic(4n) isomorphic to C_2, where the resulting quotient is isomorphic to Dih(2n). But there is no subgroup isomorphic to Dih(2n) in Dic(4n).
@night onyx thx alot for the intuition
this is last version of my proof
im not really sure if that is good proof
the first two pics are the intuition
the last one is the proof
it's definitely the right idea and better, in proofs though you wouldn't want to include the part about the motivating intuition. Like the goal would be that the proof is just short/straightforward. That's part of writing a good proof, you figure out the intuition along the way, but you want the final proof to be short and direct
like if you write code, the final code you write should be simple/direct/clean even if along the way you're writing a lot of hacky stuff to figure out how to get it working
i see
but the last picture i did not include any intuition ideas
so is not that complete proof
nono the last part is good
oh i was afraid
but you mean if im going to write a proof
i do not need to write intuition
intuition only for me
yeah
now im working on another proof
also permutation
im going to try the intuition
example trick
i hope it will work
If a set has n elements then the total number of binary operations defined on that set is n^(n^2), right?
So if a set has 3 elements then the total number of binary operations is 729, right?
Yup
i tried to use the intuition trick but did not really find something intuitve and i got stuck again
maybe my intuition is incorrect
but i will show you what i did
I don't understand why it said that 19,683 binary operations on a set of 3 elements
Let $\tau = (1 2 3 \ldots n) \in S_n$ and $\sigma \in S_n$. Prove that $\sigma\tau = \tau\sigma$ if and only if $\sigma = \tau^i$ for some $i \in \mathbb{Z}$ with $0 \leq i < n$.
Mootje
this is my intuition but i do not see something important from here
that i can grasp to prove the equivalence relation
Think you need to check your math on that 729, because 3^3^2 = 19683
so the first thing to notice is that if st = ts for permutations, then sts^{-1} = t
so you have t = (1 2 3 ... n) and they're saying s * (1 2 3 .... n) * s^{-1} = (1 2 3 ... n)
when you're working on intuition you want to actually make sense of why it's true in your head, often when you start doing proofs it's very mechanical, like it can feel like you're just manipulating symbols to try to get the answer, but really you should try to figure out "why" something is true before trying to prove it, and intuition is like really figuring out "why" it's true
A non-zero element p of a domain R is called prime if p is not a unit and
whenever p | a · b for some a, b ∈ R, either p | a or p | b.
•An element a ∈ R is irreducible if is not zero or a unit, and if, whenever a = cb, either c or b is a unit
(b) [2 marks] Give an example of a prime element in a domain that is not an irreducible element. Justify your answer
so like with this question, you have (1 2 3 .... n), and they're assuming that s * (1 2 3 ... n) * s^{-1} = (1 2 3 ... n)
but you know (from the exercise you did before) that s * (1 2 ... n) * s^{-1} = (s(1) s(2) .... s(n))
to have the good releation
so you have that (1 2 3 4 .... n) = (s(1) s(2) s(3) s(4) ... s(n))
sure agree on that
sure until now i agree on what you are saying
so now what does this really mean?
actually that is the prove
well this is a cycle
that can be written as
(s(1) s(2) s(3) .... s(n)) is equivalent to (s(1) s^2(1) s^3(1) ... )
and we can do the same thing for (1 2 3 4 ... n ) im not really sure if what im saying correct
but it makes sense to me
(:
Isn't 3^(3^2) ?
Yes...
sure agree on that
okay, so the only difference between them is maybe that the one on the right is rotated
like you don't have to have that s(1) = 1, s(2) = 2, .....
you could have that s(1) = 3, s(2) = 4, s(3) = 5, ....
like you know how (1 2 3 4) = (2 3 4 1) = (3 4 1 2) ?
sure agree well they are all the same actually
Oh my bad, thank you
exactly, you can think of each of them as just "rotating" by 1
it's the same cycle, just rotated
so if the cycle on the right above is equal to the one on the left, it's just the first one, but rotated
sure but what has the power to do with rotation
and if t is the one on the left, then t^k is rotating k times
that's the intuition (in my head anyways) t^k is like rotating t k times, and if the right one is the same as theh left one, it must be t^k for some k
sure agree with you
so actually this mean that composition here is rotating
something like that
i guess but its actually always the case
i guess that composition is rotating
So like, (12345)^3 = (14253), you skip three places each time
(1234)^2 = (13)(24)
but i mean im also facing until now difficulty with intuition but when you explain it i see the intuition striaght a head how did you develop that
well its not always the same then
Hello! This question is asking me to use the Fundamental Theorem of Group Homomorphisms to show that two groups are isomorphic to each other. I think I have shown that these two groups are isomorphic to each other (as there exists some function φ which forms a bijective group homomorphism).
I don't see how the Fundamental Theorem of Group Homomorphisms could be used to show that these two groups are isomorphic to each other. Any help would be appreciated.
many years of doing math
i see but like do you have maybe some tips for me
or something
For the record, I disagree with the notion of viewing powers of elements as rotations of that element
It applies to D_n and SO_n(k)
yeah it's not always the case that rotations and powers correspond
well what is D_n and what is SO_n(k)
Like good luck convincing me tensor powers are rotations of a space
Conjugates I’d buy being rotations. Cause conjugation is like “moving” an element somewhere else
One more question I’m not really sure because those were the only two question about permutations. Do you have like an extra question that I can do maybe it’s stupid question not so sure
that's the question they were talking about, if s = (1 2 3 ... n) and tst^{-1} = s then t = s^k for some k, the intuition being that if (1 2 3 ... n) and (t1 t2 ... t^n) are the same, then one is the other "rotated k times", it was more of an analogy than any broad statement about powers being rotations
What is the fundamental theorem of the group, is it the first isomorphic theorem?
Yes
I think Then there are two ways you can show mapping from (3) -> Z_4 and show that it is surjective mapping with kernel (12) otherwise take as mapping from (3) /(12) -> Z_4
ah okay. I see now. thank you!
Like taking mapping from 3n -> nmod4 , does it work?
<12> is the kernel of <3> when I have the function φ defined as (x/3) (mod4). I've shown that <3>/<12> is isomorphic to Z_4 under φ. So that's the same as showing <3>/ker(φ) is isomorphic to φ(<3>). φ(<3>) is Z_4.
it does. I just didn't see that it fit with the First Isomorphism Theorem.
You could try proving that if two permutations have the same cycle structure they're conjugate. You already showed that if they're conjugate they have the same cycle structure, but you can also show the other implication too
I will try thanks a lot !
i'm a little rusty with this, do I just have to prove reflexivity, symmetry and transitivity? And if so, how exactly does this support reflexivity?
Yes, to prove that E is an equivalence relation you prove that it satisfies the definition of equivalence relations.
How exactly is this reflexive? That's for you to prove.
so is it valid to just say (a, b) E (a, b) => a+b<==>a+b satisfies reflexivity?
since it just maps to itself
or wait no it would be a-b to a-b since (a, b) basically represents a-b right
a+b<==>a+b
What does this mean
Do you mean a+b = a+b
The last thing you said makes no sense.
Use the definition.
The whole point of this exercise is that you cannot use -. Naturals don't support subtraction in all cases.
You are constructing the integers, so do not use the integers in the construction.
Yeah a+b=a+b mb
Oh i forgot it’s on N mb
i proved it
i guess but to be fair
with 0 intuition
this was my proof
im sure that its a correct proof
but without intuition
which is really sad actually
):
oh that's not quite what I meant, I meant that if you have two permutations that have the same cycle structure, like (1 3 2 5)(4 6) and (1 2 3 4)(5 6) then those two are conjugate, so you can find some permutation s such that s * (1 3 2 5)(4 6) * s^{-1} = (1 2 3 4)(5 6)
Oh i will try that sorry i understood you wrong
However is my proof correct that I have written
no worries, that's okay
It feels as if I’m playing actually
Because I just multiplied once left side and the other right side
And which are going to give the same result
sometimes it's as simple as that, yeah
there's not always some deeper meaning to a problem, sometimes you just have questions that want you to apply formulas or do stuff like that
but in general if a problem is hard and it's not obvious how to prove it, the problem is that you don't actually understand what the problem is asking well enough
or maybe if you look at it different it'll make more sense
I see all those tips help really well
and when you get to higher/more advanced math, actually understanding and having intuition behind things is way more important, a proof just shows that something is true lol, but we care about ideas and intuition in math, not just proving things
Well me as well I find intuition more important than the prove self
that being said, you have to be able to do proofs in math, that's kindof like the basic grammar of math (after high school level), it's like you can't be a good writer if you don't know how to read and write or speak
or like in programming, you can't make interesting programs if you don't know the basic things about how to structure a program
And when we say two cycle have the same structure does that mean that they are isomorphic an each other
Cycles can't be isomorphic
True agree
no, it means that they have the same number and length of cycles
so like (1 3 2) (4 6) and (3 5 4)(6 8)
they have the same cycle structure, each has 2 cycles, length 3 and length 2
How exactly would I start proving - on N^2?
Do you want part c or part d
They’re both trivial if you just write out what E actually means
And use basic arithmetic properties like a+b = b+a and~~ -(a+b) = -a-b~~
okay yeah i wasn't sure if I was overthinking it or if there was some reason - couldn't directly be applied as a function since it's on N
Ok you don’t even need the second one actually.
oh yeah it's just (a,b) = (0,0) + (a,b), right
No
You haven't proved yet that -a + b = c is equivalent to b = a + c
Prove from the definitions that -(a,b) + (a,b) = (0,0)
You have everything in front of you!
i guess i have proof
i proved it with contradiction
but im not so sure
if its correct
but im like almost 90% sure that its correct
this is my proof
lmfao im learing
no i meant your handwriting
no worries king just joking
The proof for part a was relatively straightforward, but I'm not sure how to approach part b, or what exactly it means
Part b could be equally phrased as "show Q^N/I is an infinite set."
The approach is to be creative. Just try.
wait just for clarification what exactly does Q^N/I consist of
is it the quotient set?
It is the quotient ring.
Are you unfamiliar with quotients of rings?
Det that kinda spoils the problem a bit...
I think the question expects the reader to work that out
i hope x496 didn't see anything ><
nah I was confused because I didn't know how the quotient would come from a set rather than an equivalence relation
Are you clear on how that works or no?
not really, how does the mapping work?
The mapping?
I'm not sure what you mean.
Anyway, quotient rings work like so:
If we have an ideal J of a ring R, the quotient R/J consists of the cosets r + J. It is the set {r + J | r in R}.
You already know plenty of these. Z/nZ, for example.
I expect that whoever set these questions also explained this previously, but if you don't recall, there is an underlying equivalence relation here. Two elements are equivalent if they differ by something in the ideal.
i see
Is this clear? I expect you will have seen this before, otherwise these questions are not really well-pitched.
so there must be infinite elements because there are (a_n)_n, (b_n)_n in Q^N/I that have a_n=b_n for n>m for some m in N, and all the sequences in each element just share that subsequence?
I don't follow the logic.
Maybe you could simply find infinitely many sequences explicitly, showing that they are distinct in the quotient.
how would you find infinitely many things in finite time 
lmao
As wew says, "watch this"

okay wait i think the structure of my answer is off
Ah.
||[(1,0,1,0,...)], [(1,0,0,1,0,0,...)], etc. The difference of two of them is not eventually 0||
For some reason it took me a bit to parse what was happening
yeah that's what I was trying to say
I think my firing on all cylindersness is starting to fade right now
but also like
||c: clearly not invertible. but add (1,0...)||
interesting.
wait
this is just like a not epsilon version of equivalence of cauchy sequences
it's repeating i got confused mb
Please don't just give away the answer...
I did spoiler tags!
Yeah, for one solution.
If he asks for questions about it
oh woops my bad
I guess my instinct is that if the problem requires some thought on my part, I don't automatically spoiler even when I should
The infinitely many would be much more interesting if they said uncountable
Oh lol for c) I was too silly
Thought it was N^N for whatever reason because I couldn't work out why the sequence wouldn't be invertible in Q^N
Lmao
Is this a valid proof of CRT
If $I_i$ is an arbitrary collection of ideals indexed by $i \in \Omega$, then $x \equiv y \mod I_i$ for each $i$ if and only if $x \equiv y \mod \bigcap I_i$, as $x \equiv y \mod I$ is equivalent to $x - y \in I$, so the prior statements are equivalent by $x - y$ being in each of the ideals. Therefore, the kernel of the map $\phi : R \rightarrow \prod_{i \in \Omega}{\frac{R}{I_i}}, \phi(x)_i = x \mod I_i$ is simply the intersection of all $I_i$, as it's equivalent to the set of elements congruent to $0$ mod every one of the ideals.
Now, if we assert that $\Omega = \mathbb{N}n$, and that the $I_n$ are all pairwise coprime ideals, we can show that $\phi$ is onto. First we need to show that $I_n$ is coprime to $\bigcap{k = 1}^{n - 1}{I_k}$. This can be shown by induction from the base case that $I_1$ is coprime to $I_2$ and through the following: \
Two ideals, $A$, $B$ are coprime if their ideal-sum is $R$. This is equivalent to there existing some $a \in A, b \in B$ such that $a + b = 1$. Now if $A$ is coprime to $C$, and $B$ is coprime to $C$, then there exists some $a \in A, b \in B, c_a \in C, c_b \in C$ such that $a + c_a = b + c_b = 1$. Thus: \
$1 = c_a + a = c_a + a(c_b + b) = (c_a + ac_b) + ab$. But $c_a + ac_b$ is in $C$ due to $C$ being an ideal, and $ab$ is in the product ideal $AB$, contained within $A \cap B$. Thus $C$ and $A \cap B$ are coprime. \
If we have two elements of $R$, $x$ and $y$, and two coprime ideals of $R$, $A$ and $B$, then we can find an element $x$ such that $z \equiv x (\mod A)$ and $z \equiv y (\mod B)$. By coprimality we have some $a \in A$ such that $1 - a \in B$. Then we have $z = x + a(y-x)$, as $x - z = -a(y - x) \in A$ and $y - z = (1-a)(y-x) \in B$. \
Thus if we have a sequence $x_n \in R$, assuming $z_{n-1} \equiv x_i \mod I_i$ for $i \in {1 ... n - 1}$, we can find a $z_{n}$ such that $z_n \equiv x_n \mod I_n$ and $z_n \cong z_{n-1} mod \bigcap_{k = 1}^{n-1}{I_k}$ as $I_n$ is coprime to $\bigcap_{k = 1}^{n - 1}{I_k}$. Because $z_n \cong z_{n-1} \mod \bigcap_{k = 1}^{n-1}{I_k}$, $z_n \equiv x_i \mod I_i$ for each $i$. \
Now, for each $x \in \prod_{i = 1}^{n}{\frac{R}{I_i}}$, we have the indexed equivalence classes $x_i + I_i$, and by the prior lemma and a choice function on those classes, we can find a $z \in R$ such that $z \equiv x_i \mod I_i$. Thus $\phi$ is onto. \
Therefore, by first isomorphism theorem, $\mathrm{Im}(\phi) = \prod_{i = 1}^{n}{\frac{R}{I_i}} \cong \frac{R}{\mathrm{Ker}(\phi)} = \frac{R}{ \bigcap_{i = 1}^{n}{I_i}}$
good luck reading it
Fairy farts
(Q+, •) is not cyclic, because if it is generated by p/q then let s is prime number which does not divide p then s not belong to (p/q), right?
I mean, as far as I remember, (Q, +) is not even finitely generated
Let me ask this:
The definition of radical extension is also very similar
Where instead of the prime q_i, there is just some fixed natural number n
And any radical extension can be viewed as some n-radical extension
But how do I particularly find the q_i+1's for any general radical extension?
Riku
Maybe like
Q(2^1/4) is clearly a radical extension of Q, then
Yes
You can put Q(2^1/2) in between
So that (2^(1/4))^2 = 2^(1/2), which is the step between
Then you do it again to get to Q
I mean like if Q is cyclic and is generated by p/q, how do you generate p/2q?
Wait I mean that is cool and all but can we do this for any general one
I mean, why not?
If a^n is in smaller field, you can factorize n and introduce intermediates appropriately.
What do you think would be an obstacle for introducing intermediate fields?
The problem seems to be in the case if something like Q(a_1, a_2) occurs and you can't write it like Q(a_3) or something
You can still write Q \subset Q(a_1) \subset Q(a_1, a_2) tho, and then do this stuff.
you make the filteration even finer
filter each successive K ⊆ K(a_i) into simpler radical extensions.
Here the set is a positive rational number under multiplication
Is (Q+, *) a subgroup of (Q - {0}, *)
Yes
Then it should be cyclic
How?
Every subgroup of a cyclic subgroup is cyclic right
Q is a field and hence the unjt group under multiplication is cyclic
If this statement is true, your group is cyclic
....i thought about it for some time but I might be missing how to do what you actually say here
The thing is I do think it's correct i just can't write it
Q is not finite
Assume you have a generator n/m with n containing prime factors p_1, … p_k - there will exist a prime q outside of these p_i
So how can you get to q/m
Yes
How can we define a two sided prime ideal in a non-commutative ring without unity such that it will be consistent with commutative ring
if you had any field extension K ⊆ K(a) with a^n in K. factor n into primes and using this decomposition find a filtration of K ⊆ K(a) like absta suggested.
Let's say n = pq for simplicity, where p and q are primes
Then a^n = (a^p)^q
yep 
yeep
yep 
(what's the n?)
So for each step E_i+1 = E_i(a_i+1)
It's just a common natural number
oh oki
For which this happens, where a_(i+1)^n \in E_i
We now just
factorize n
yep
if p divides n, then you have a chain K ⊆ K(a^(n/p)) ⊆ K(a) and the first one is p-radical
inductively filter the second :p
Ohh right right
I have to get the p-radical
Yeah so basically we always get primes for each step
Genius
Thank you guys

[neuron activation] p-radical subgroups…
Wait, subgroups?
Yur
How do you define this for subgroups again
“Again” you’ve never seen this before
P is p-radical in G if the largest normal p-subgroup of N_G(P)/P is the trivial group
....me bad at english
It’s unrelated I’m just connecting words
N_G(P) is the normalizer of P right
gwoup theowy
Yur. It’s like saying that P is the largest normal p-subgroup in its normaliser
Radical almost
is P a p-subgroup?
Yus
They’re useful in getting information about G as a whole from just it’s Sylow subgroups
At least that’s why I care about them
You usually combine it with the condition that C_S(P) = Z(P) where S is a sylow subgroup of G containing P. This gives us the “local” behaviour we want, and being radical gives us the “global” behaviour that we want
I won’t go into more detail lol
lol
All groups are finite
so apparently the free group of 2 elements is a subgroup of SU(2) right? how do you construct the subgroup
Seems like you pick two real numbers n,m with a product greater than 4 and just put them in
(1 m). (1 0)
(0 1) and (n 1)
These aren’t unitary though… annoying!
Ok I’ve found a source but the url is literally too long to post in discord 
Factorization is not easy tho
It could be difficult to think in terms of how things factor
In specific cases yes
But we have an arbitrary integer n, and we just assume factorisation always exists
Because N is an unique factorisation monoid https://cdn.discordapp.com/emojis/722022152328445985.png?quality=lossless&size=48
Does not mean it is easy to think of!
That said, I am struggling with the most basic rep theory..
Clearly for A = k[x1, .., xn], A/I is indecomposable if I contains all monomials of degree >= N
That is true....
Indeed, math is hard
That said, I should have solved this already 
Wonder if this has something to do with irrelevant ideal
@night onyx can you check the proof that i provided when you have time please (:
How the definition if aRb subset of I then belongs to I or b belongs to I implies that I is prime ideal is equivalent to prime ideal definition in commutative ring ?
well in a commutative ring, aRb = abR and then it’s just the definition of a prime ideal
recall that (a) = aR
Yes but reverse ?
If R is commutative ring then ab belongs to I how implies that aRb be a subset of I ?
ab is in I, so (ab) is a subset of I
Yes
So (ab) = abR = aRb is a subset of I
Yes
If I want to show that the definition of prime ideal in a commutative ring implies the definition of non-commutative ring then how?
I’ve just done that?
If I have ab in I, how can I show that aRb subset of I in non-commutative ring
😔
Commutative ring?
I’ve shown that, for a commutative ring, both definitions are equivalent
Is that not what you just asked?