#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 218 of 1
ye it's weird, in classical AG books I have read this is a preliminary result
Yeah I'd call it Zariski's lemma
"a f.g. k-algebra which is a field is finite over k"
ye, Vakil says that is also called Zariski's lemma
Like i think uh
Zariski's lemma for a ring R is equivalent to R Jacobson
and of course fields are jacobson
then the alg closed assumption just lets you say finite => just the ground field
Thinking in terms of Jacobson ideals is kinda cool because then it's like, oh well in classical alg geo you can work with maximal ideals rather than Spec(R) etc because prime ideals can be approximated by maximals anyway
Also like lol, feel fre to ask about this stuff in #advanced-algebra
Is this simple enough to prove?
I'm not sure cause in my mind I'd prove Zariski's lemma using either the fact k is Noetherian (and hence also k[x] etc) or the fact it is a field (via Noether normalisation)
Jacobson implies that the Jacobson radical is the same as the nilradical, correct?
Hm, is finitely generated ring over a Noetherian ring a Noetherian?
yes
Hilbert basis theorem
ye
Yes
and then quotient of noetherian is noetherian
Though I would say "fintely generated algebra"
but the converse doesn't hold, or does it?
finitely generated ring to me means f.g. as a Z-algebra
It does
WAIT
sorry
responding to the wrong thing
Do you mean "Jacobson = nilradical" is equivalent to Jacobson
I thought Hilbert basis theorem is only about R into R[x]
yes
Then induction
Yeah wait
Quotient of a Noetherian ring is Noetherian
Ah, so quotient is Noetherian as well
ye easy via correspondence theorem
Then I highly doubt it
Take a non-Jacobson domain
(i don't know any examples off the top of my head lol)
But does Noetherian ring containing a field k have to be finite over k?
mmh let me think
No
C contains Q as a subring
double quotient is equal to single quotient for groups
Hmm, then I don't see the connection to Zariski lemma here.
I meant uh
i forget the name of the lemma
Artin-Tate lemma
Noetherian ring A, subrings A < B < C, C finite type over A and finite over B, then B is finite type over A
iiirc
youcan use that to prove Zariski's lemma
Guess it is not immediate then, was wondering if there were easy way to do this
Isn't $k[x,y]_{(x,y)}$ an example? The primes are $(0), (x,y), (x), (y)$, but this has just one maximal ideal
croqueta3385
Yes take anything local but not a field
I was about to type that 😭
But yes very nice
holy smokes...
Z_(p)
society if Z_(p) was Z[1/p]
right
I don't like it cause uh
Like notation R_f for R[f^-1]
would mean Z_p = Z[1/p]
but then Z_p is p-adics to me
and some use it to mean Z/pZ
😭
so cursed
So personall I write R[f^-1], Z_p and Z/p
i guess some write $\mathbb Z_{p}^{\land}$
Süßkartoffel
forpadics
yeah lunatics do lol
that's for topological p-completion
which, yes - is the same
but the vibes are off!
how does a topological completion carry algebraic information like Z_p being a ring
oh god I can't be bothered thinking about the massive simplicial complex based construction at 1am
ask potato
What's the different lol
*difference
Lol
I guess do you mean it is Z_p as a topological ring vs as a ring
well, standard algebraic completion via a limit (or colimit, who cares I can never remember - probably a limit though) is only really done on algebraic objects
Limit
but the type of p-completion I'm referring to can be done on any simplical complex
Sure
idk what topological completion means
yeah it would need to be a limit for the p-adics to be unital lol
do you mean like metric space completion?
think p-complete, p-good, p-bad, spaces
these two notions of completion intersect for Z_p because... well the p-adics are pro-finite lol?

Okay but isn't that a p different notion lol
yes! that's my entire point!
RAAAAAAGHH
I only see the ^\wedge for that notion
Okay I thought that was weird cause the people who write it for Z_p^ are the same people
Like topologists
is something the matter, sir
Hensel
u lift me uppppp so I can stand on mountainnss
Real
what is $Spec,\prod_{n=1}^\infty \Z/2\Z$
croqueta3385
it's almost like there's an element in Spec for each subset of N
idk if it's useful, but to describe the Spec as a set, you can think of a prime as a family F of subsets of N such that
- if X in F and Y subset X then Y in F (this is closure under multiplication by elements of the ring)
- if X cap Y in F then either X or Y in F (this is the prime property)
- and you should include that N is not in F, to avoid the unit ideal
so F is closed under subsets and intersection, I swear I've seen this somewhere
isn't this a filter
oh on N?
no
yeah it is, I think
nono
oh
for a filter, you would want X in F and X subset Y implies Y in F
but what we have goes the other way
and also N should be contained in the filter
just order P(N) backwards then lol
$\rotatebox{180}{\text{why the fuck do we care about the prime spectrum}}$
Dyfunction Executive
ye that's what I was thinking
does the intersecting condition corrispond to a filter condition?
yes of course
intersection of sets is their meet
Hehe
this is the usual definition for filter
right ok this is much easier than having to translate everything back and forth from poset land
I believe in general, it's a compactification (Stone-Cech?) of the infinite disjoint union of Spec factors. There is a mathse/mathoverflow answer somewhere about Spec of infinite products.
In this case, a power of Z/2Z is a Boolean algebra — in fact a power set — and for those, prime ideals = maximal ideals = ultrafilters, which for power sets are ultrafilters in the set theory sense.
So Spec Π_{i in I} Z/2Z = {ultrafilters on the set I}.
we were getting there... gradually
it is true that the topology on the set of ultrafilters on N is the Stone-Cech compactification on N, but I just read that in a foot note, so I don't really know how it works lmao
Yes, this is a prime filter in the poset of subsets of N; its dual is a “prime ideal”.
For Boolean algebras (in particular, power sets) you can show that this is equivalent to F being a maximal proper subset of 2^N with the properties except condition 2 (i.e., F is a maximal ideal basically).
There isn't really a better description of these things though.
There are exactly two kinds (using your kind of family F):
- for every n, all subsets of N{n} (the principal maximal ideals)
- maximal ideals which contain every finite subset (the free maximal ideals).
The existence of the latter is a weaker form of the Axiom of Choice.
Incidentally, if one is in a weird mood, one can define a “filter” in a ring as “1 + an ideal” and decide that possible quotients of a ring should be described by the preimage of 1 and write all the isomorphism theorems in terms of filters.
I think I started doing this once until I realised it was just 1 + ideal theory.
so like in this way, you can prove that any filter is contained in an ultrafilter from the axiom that any proper ideal is contained in a maximal ideal right
Yes, for filters of Boolean algebra (in particular, of sets).
In fact, IIRC, TFAE:
- filters of sets are contained in ultrafilters
- filters of Boolean algebras are contained in ultrafilters
- ideals of Boolean algebras are contained in prime ideal (Boolean Prime Ideal Theorem)
- products of compact Hausdorff spaces are compact
- product of discrete two-element spaces is compact
- the Compactness Theorem for first-order logic
- a complete and totally bounded uniform space is compact (converse true in ZF)
- a space is compact if every ultrafilter has a limit (converse true in ZF).
so I'm trying to prove that $G$ solvable implies $G/H$ solvable, but it doesn't make sense to let ${e} = G_0 \subset G_1 \subset \dots \subset G_n = G$ and consider or write $G_0/H \subset G_1/H \subset \dots \subset G/H$
okeyokay
because that would require H is a subgroup of the identity which doesn't make sense
are all subgroups of $G/H$ of the form $K/H$ where $K$ is a subgroup of $G$?
okeyokay
(using my arbitrarily chosen notation)
G > G1 > G2 ... > H > K1 > K2 > ... e
Now, this shows that H is solvable
To show that G/H is solvable, we need to write
can u put spoilers pls if u do reveal solution
My bad!
Should I spoil this already, or should I leave you in suspense?
he proved it so it's chill
lol if you could post the solution or some hint or something with spoilers that would be great
The idea is to use what's between G and H.
You know that Gn/Gn+1 is abelian
So, you need to get something that starts with G/H, ends with e, uses the Gn somehow, and uses the fact that Gn/Gn+1 is abelian to get abelian quotients here.
It is a good idea to look over the isomorphism theorems.
Honestly I always found those screwey. Galois theory actually makes me understand them better.
So, you have the lattice theorem, which says that the opposite sides of the parallelogram in the lattice are isomorphic
yeah the first one that comes to mind is the third isomorphism theorem
You have the other theorem, which is what I think of as the tower theorem.
I think of G extending K and G extending H, where "extends" means "the latter is normal in the former". Tower theorem tells me that H extends K. It also tells me that if I take the big line from K to G and quotient out the top small line from H to G, I get the bottom small line from K to H.
If only I could draw pictures
This made no real sense to me until Galois theory, funnily enough
Anyways, this is indeed what you need
So, this lets you take quotient of quotients.
If you make K in the G/K the same as K in H/K, then you get G/H after quotienting.
That is, if you "share a common denominator", you get the quotient of the numerators.
Hint hint nudge nudge
Still more dancing about the bush: ||One of those is nice. The other gives you sequence terms||
The answer: ||G/H > G1/H > ... Gn/H ... > e. This works since the quotients are (Gn/H)/(G{n+1}/H)=Gn/G{n+1} is abelian||
Once you get that,
Ex: Prove the converse: if H normal in G, and both H and G/H are solvable, then G is solvable.
yeah i was just hoping that this would be true so that we could quotient out each of the groups in the last chain and apply that isomorphism theorem to show that they're abelian
but i don't think we can quotient out all of the groups in that chain for G, it wouldn't make sense
I mean, this is basically it
Just don't do it for the entire chain
oh
The problem with doing it to, say, the chain obtained by refining G > e is that you can't quotient out H.
But, if you do it to the chain obtained by refining G > H > e, you now know when you need to stop.
Sorry, I derped on reading this
hmm okay i think i know what you're saying
wait you're not saying that we can insert H into some point in that tower for G right
So, if we take any normal series that we desire, we can refine it
what theorem is that again
oh right
but what if we didn't assume schreier
like this is before the proof of schreier
to be annoying
In mathematics, the Schreier refinement theorem of group theory states that any two subnormal series of subgroups of a given group have equivalent refinements, where two series are equivalent if there is a bijection between their factor groups that sends each factor group to an isomorphic one.
The theorem is named after the Austrian mathematicia...
LOL my b
Actually, we don't need to prove uniqueness.
That is, we don't need unique refinements, which is what Schreier is for. We just need refinements
Suppose we have at any step G1 > G2.
Hm.
I think we do need uniqueness.
Uniqueness allows us to say that there's a refinement G > H > e has the same factor groups up to permutation as some refinement of the series that we know exists with abelian factor groups
That is, since G solvable, we know there's some G > G1 > ... > e with Gn/G{n+1} abelian. Schreier lets us refine this and refine G>H>e such that they have isomorphic factors up to permuting the factors, so that the refinement of G>H>e has abelian factors
And it really looks like proving this would basically just be Schreier.
Perhaps let us start with
G > [G,G] > [[G,G], [G,G]], ... which eventually terminates.
H is a subgroup of G, [H,H] subgroup of [G,G], ... so the derived series of H also terminates.
Now, we can cross our fingers and try to take quotients
G/H > [G/H, G/H] ...
Now, if [G,G]=e then [G/H, G/H] does too.
this seems fishy
so, there's definitely a problem with this reasoning, but since the terms of the derived series of G/H will be trivial when the terms of the derived series of G are trivial, we are done.
@white oxide where's the flaw with my logic? there must be one.
i'm sorry my brain's not working right now and i kinda forgot schreier and everything so i'm probably not qualified
but the companion to Lang said that the proof of G solvable implies G/H solvable is essentially this paragraph
Oh, I see
This is the "preimage of tower is tower, with image of factor groups as embedding" thing.
I like it.
I also remember it from reading Lang.
I wasn't going to say anything else besides listing the three ways we have found
well, we have three proofs.
- Schreier Refinement
- The probably erroneous proof I gave that says that the D^n (G/H) [idr whether n is upstairs or downstairs for this one] is 0 if D^n(G) is.
- The proof that uses the way towers work under homomorphisms G->G'. That is, T' tower gets preimaged to T tower, and factors F get imaged into factors F'.
3 is more general - Lang uses that idea for all the rest of the tower stuff
2 requires you to know that having a tower with abelian quotients is equivalent to the derived series
G > G1 > G2 > ...
with Gn = [G{n-1}, G{n-1}] where [G,H] = {gh(hg)^{-1} : g in G, h in H}, that is, the commutator subgroup. (I think group theorists are evil and write (hg)^{-1}gh)
The equivalence comes from the fact that a map G->A with A abelian factors through the abelianization of G, called G^{ab}, which is defined as G/[G,G].
This is just because the map must have [G,G] in the kernel, but in general you can't say more than that.
gh(gh)^{-1} = 1… I think you meant ghg^{-1}h^{-1}.
Yep, thanks 😆
I don't know this question makes sense or not.
I want to find Matrix corresponding to linear transformation.
T:P_2 -> P_2 where P_2 is a set of all real polynomials which has at most degree 2.
And T(p)= p', so what will be their matrix representation?
Start by picking a basis for P_2
Describe the images of basis vectors using the basis
Combine them into a matrix
Yeah I did but I didn't figure out how the matrix looks like
Show your work
I want a matrix A such that A[1 x x^2] = [1 2x 0] , right?
Have you seen that A applied to the first, second, and third basis vector are the first, second, third columns respectively?
Means A=[1 0 0, 0 2x 0, 0 0 0]?
You're ordering your basis as {x, x^2, 1}?
No
If youre ordering it as {1, x, x^2} then the [0,0,0] column should come first
Yes
So how this is right?
Yeah ur right thats wrong
It will be A[ 1 x x^2] = [0 1 2x]
Indeed
So matrix will be [0 0 0, 1 0 0, 0 2x 0]?
Yes
Interestingly enough you can see that this is not invertible--that's why we add the +C lol
- C ?
You know when do you an integral you add +C
Like if that matrix was invertible then there would be a unique anti-derivative is basically what i was getting at
I don't know what it means?
What part are you confused about
Why are we talking about the invertible matrix here?
If the matrix is invertible then the map is surjective?
No particular reason just pointing out a cool observation
Nice
I think it is wrong matrix will be [0 0 0, 1 0 0, 0 2 0]
if a group and its subgroup both have the same order, does that mean they are equal?
I agree with this
order is concerned with the total number of elements
not with specific elements i think
yes? and they're the same order?
Yes, and Z and 2Z have the same order
but they're not equal as sets because they have different elements
if you want non-isomorphic then the free group on two elements contains the free group on n elements for all n as a proper subgroup
You are aware of the standard results about infinity I hope?
My brain fried on what order was for a second
Cardinality not the maximum element order
yeah

doesn't matter for Z and 2Z 
infinite exponent irregardless
So you should know that Z and 2Z are in bijection
yes
this seems intuitive
You don’t say
🙏
Can I get some help with this
So in the case that z lies on the unit circle with irrational argument
I think the subgroup generated by them will be dense
In S_1
In case when z is not in S_1 it's a bunch of points in the closure along with zero?
Irrational multiple of 2π, technically.
OK, I thought I remembered the outline of a solution, but I don't 💀.
OK right.
First you show that the cyclic subgroup contains points on the unit circle arbitrarily close to 1 (other than 1 itself).
Then this implies that there can be no arcs of non-zero length in the unit circle that contain no points from the cyclic subgroup.
From there, it's straightforward.
Huh not necessarily?
Which cyclic subgroup are you referring to
Generated by z
I've been discussing the following with a friend, but i'm not too happy with his conclusion. help would be aprreciated
let f:X->Y and A∩X={}
is f(A)={} or undefined?
Also, is this the most appropriate channel to ask this question?
Why does it have points arbitrary close to 1?
In the case that z lies on the unit circle with irrational-multiple-of-2π argument.
Oh
Right👍
The irrational multiples of two pi case in the closure we get the entire S_1?
I'd say it's empty personally, but also that this “shouldn't” matter practically.
As for the channel, probably not this, but I don't know the correct one. Maybe #discussion?
Yep, and thus quotient R.
It's clear in that case to me
This one is causing trouble
BTW leaving a fun problem for others to try later:
Find all finite groups G such that G acts by even permutations in the left-regular action.
Suppose the cyclic subgroup contains an α on the unit circle (and not 1) with argument less than 2π/n. What does this imply?
It's not possible
oh thanks, i'll bring the question there. i agree that in practice it isn't that useful a question. he was trying to prove that f(A∩X) = f(A) for an arbitrary A and X still the domain and i just wasn't comfortable with giving meaning to f(A) i fA had elements outside the domain
If A is modulus of z then if A is not 1 then cyclic subgroup of A will never be on the unit circle?
You mean if z doesn't lie on the unit circle?
Yes if it's generator is outside s_1 iff any of its group elements are outside it?
Which makes everything outside it?
Yeah, cause |z^n| = A^n which diverges away from 1 unless A = 1
Yes also I think all those kind of groups are similar in quotienting
Is there a category which contains groups but also contains e.g. sets with a transitive group action?
I mean you can consider the category of pairs (G,X) where G acts on X and the morphisms from (G,X) to (H,Y) pairs (a,b) where a is a group hom and b is a set map such that b(gx) = a(g)b(x)
Sometimes it seems like it would be nice to consider both on an equal footing. For example, Haar measure (is there Haar measure on a coset space of a locally compact group?) or something.
Hmm
I guess I was hoping for a more “direct” definition.
A free transitive (say, left) action on a set X can be specified by an operation (x,y,z) |---> (yx^{-1})z (specifying the “parallelograms”) if I'm not mistaken.
you can pushforward the haar measure
if what you quotient by isn't compact though this can cause issues
Oh.
Can the condition for the Haar measure be expressed in terms of properties of the quotient space?
That would fit with this idea.
This has a much better answer than I gave: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/21704/haar-measure-on-a-quotient
Also what's up with the idea that closure of a group is a group
Is it true in general
multiplication is continuous
2Z is isomorphic to 3Z, right? But Z/2Z is not isomorphic to Z/3Z?
correct
That really freaks me out. I thought two isomorphic groups have the exact same structure. What structure is ignored by isomorphism that makes Z/2Z and Z/3Z not isomorphic?
2Z and 3Z do have the same structure
trying to think of a finite group example
An isomorphic of maps 2Z -> Z and 3Z -> Z
Rather than just isomorphisms of domains and codomains
to conclude that the quotients are iso
C4xC2
yeah there we go
I was thinking non-abelian for some reason
S3xC3
another example, R[x]/(x) and R[x]/(x^2)
ok then. NOT a product. I ain't BOUT THAT
$\Sigma_3 \times \mathbf Z/3$
Süßkartoffel
Just to annoy wew
This is somewhat over my head, but is an isomorphism of maps a kind of natural transformation? Whereas an isomorphism is a functor?
Yes, I mean in the sense of isomorphism of objects in the arrow category of a category C i.e. functors {* -> *} -> C
so concretely, that means like
A-> B and C -> D being iso if we have a square
A -> B
^ ^
| |
C -> D
where the vertical maps are isomorphisms
So the problem here is okay, youhave the vertical maps, but the diagram doesn't commute
So what's the inverse of zero in closure of subgroup generated by say 2i
What do you mean by zero when you are talking about closure in C^x
Ah we are talking closure in C*
Yes and C isn't a topological group under multiplication
at least
the typical multiplication doesn't turn it into a topological group
Then what is the closure of this in C*
It's already closed
Okay
I think
yes
I'll need some time to digest this, but thanks 🙏
only limit point in C is 0, which isn'tin C^x
C* is just R x S^1
I agree
Shategory theory?
then <2i> is just Z. even if it sits inside of R x S^1 in a different way, their quotients are still the same
think about the group automorphism that shears the S^1 factor
I have no clue

sorry, so R x S^1/Z (where Z is Z x {id_{S_1}}) is S^1 x S^1
Hmmmmmm
but now think about the automorphism of R x S^1 -> R x S^1 sending (x,e^{i t}) to (x, e^{i(t+ax)}).
This comes from a linear transformation on R x R sending (x,y) to (x, y+ax), then you quotient the second factor to get S^1
so if you have a group generated by (x, e^{i t}) for x non zero, then the quotient R x S^1/<x> is S^1 x S^1
Lie group more like cap group amirite
Sorry i think i need to write this down
I still have difficulties understanding it
I will let you know after sometime
Is the 'a' here sth specific?
no
yes
For the modulus?
Would you mind telling me again why this step is being done
Just briefly
to show that when we quotient by the subgroup generated by (x, e^{it}) for x nonzero, it is isomorphic to the quotient by (x,1)
C^× is isomorphic to R × S^1 by the isomorphism (t, θ) -> θ exp((ln 2 + 2πi/4) t).
Under this isomorphism, Z × {1} corresponds to ‹2i›.
To understand this isomorphism a bit better, look at the image of R × {1}.
Semidirect product of C4 with C4
<x, y | x^4 = y^4 = 1, xy = yx^- >
C2 is a subgroup as (x^2) and as (y^2)
First has quotient C2xC4, second has quotient D4.
kino cinema
whoops just realised this post is over 3 hours old, sorry for the ping haha
so i've been continuing to explore F^n as an F[x] module via a matrix A: p(x)v=p(A)v, and i think i've decomposed it, but i'm not totally sure. i basically used the jordan decomp: breaking it up into the regular eigenvectors and eigenchains.
i think it makes sense any regular eigenvector corresponds to a one dimensional subspace F[x]/<x-k> since (x-k)v will be zero if v has eigenvalue k.
and we can leverage an eigenchain by multiplying by multiples of (x-k) to get us the rest of the basis for each generalized eigenspace.
can someone just sanity check me that this vibes well?
oh my golly gosh
This doesn't make sense, m_i and k_i shouldn't be different.
mi is the geometric multiplicity, and ki is the length of an eigenchain.
(if there are multiple eigenchains then we just let other lambda_i's to be the same and choose those mi=0
this is a matrix direct sum, not just a regular sum of matrices
Still doesn't make sense, if I and J are diagonal/Jordan blocks.
Geometric multiplicity of an eigenvalue is the size of the largest Jordan block with that value
uhhhhhhhhh
An identity block is not a Jordan block, it's a sum of Jordan blocks of length one, so what you say would mean that each eigenvalue has geomult 1, making the matrix diagonalisable.
geo mult is the dimension of the eigenspace
um... if you have a scalar matrix direct sum a jordan block, that's not diagonalizable
Yes, but then you can't say that the size of the identity block is the geomult.
Anyway, I may be wrong, but what you wrote here looks like complete porridge to me.
You should look into the decomposition for modules over PIDs and how that relates to Jordan form.
oh then it's the geo mult-1 or -the number of eigenchains
So the point is it shouldn't be one identity matrix and one Jordan block for each eigenvalue. You should have a sum of Jordan blocks of varying sizes for each eigenvalue.
After that you are correct in how a Jordan block of size k corresponds to F[x]/(x - lambda)^k
i was just doing this for simplicity
So the geometric and and algebraic multiplicity is not enough information
what
no i said it corresponds to (F[x]/<x-lambda>)^m
i guess the main summary of what i'm doing is saying that an eigenvector corresponds to F[x]/<x-lambda> and an eigenchain of length k corresponds to F[x]/<(x-lambda)^k>
The geometric multiplicity tells you the number of Jordan blocks, but the distribution of their sizes can still vary quite a bit (even if you know the biggest one)
Does it? Isn't it the size of the largest block?
its the nullity of (A-lambdaI). so its the number of independent eigenvectors/jordan blocks
No, the geometric multiplicity is the size of the eigenspace. Each block gives you an eigenvector, so the dimension is the number of blocks
i dont think you can get the exact size of the jordan blocks from just the alg and geo mult unless you know theres only one eigenchain
if theres only one eigenchain, then the size is alg mult-geo mult+1 or something
Ah, I'm confusing geomult with the prime decomposition of the minimal polynomial, I think.
Yeah, the minimal polynomial will tell you the size of the biggest block.
i guess we can make it even more compact by just only using jordan blocks and allowing duplicate eigenvalues (i.e. just summing along the eigenchains, including those of length 1, regular eigenvectors)
and then the iso comes from the start of the eigenchain and then we can just multiply by (x-1)^k to get the other basis vectors from the chain. and doing that for all such jordan blocks gives us the full jordan basis
I guess people often go the other way. Using the structure of F[x] modules to prove Jordan decomposition of matrices 🙂
oh yeah huh I guess thats a similar problem
so does this mean the generators for the jordan chains are a basis for the module or just that they generate the module? not sure if we need to mod out by the minimal polynomial to really get that
so i think i can sorta see how this would go. but the key seems to be that it's a direct sum of F[x]/<(x-k)^l>. how do we know that if a matrix has eigenvalues 1 and 3 (for example) that we won't have F[x]/<(x-1)(x-3)>?
F[x]/(x-1)(x-3) = F[x]/(x-1) (+) F[x]/(x-3)
You can use the Chinese remainder theorem for this for example
im gonna try to prove this
It's very much the same flavor to that yeah
so the isomorphism p(x)+<(x-1)(x-3)> to (p(1)+<x-1>,p(3)+<x-3>) clearly works. so it seems like it would be possible to combine (at least part of) the decomp into F[x]/<p_A(x)> where p_A is the minimal polynomial. i would expect it would be the parts corresponding to the largest eigenchains?
i haven't thought about it too much, but i'm guessing this principle extends to F[x]/<(x-a)^k1(x-b)^k2>=F[x]/<(x-a)^k1>(+)F[x]/<(x-b)^k2>? something something taylor series
iirc the fg module over PID decomp theorem says that what you mod out by in the direct sum can have a division chain. so we should be able to combine the terms to get a decomp
F[x]/<p_A(x)>(+)F[x]/<p1(x)>(+)...(+)F[x]/<pl(x)>
where p_l | ... | p1 | p_A(x)?
i wonder if we can say anything about what the p_i's must be
is that true actually? if we have some decomp R/(b1)(+)...(+)R/(bn), then we can rearrange/combine them into the form R/(d1)(+)...(+)R/(dn) where d1|d2|...|dn?
i would guess yes, but im not sure
Yes, I think you can follow the same reasoning
Trying to process something
Assume $A$ and $B$ are subgroups of abelian group $G$, then does a homomorphism $\mu$ induce a map from $\frac{A}{B} \rightarrow \frac{\mu(A)}{\mu(B)}$, where $\mu(A)$ is the image of A
A Fibrous Powder
Yeah, I think so
The map A -> mu(A) sends B to mu(B)
So you should be able to quotient like that
I drew out a diagram and realized I'm a moron
Uh, wdym moron
Imposter syndrome taking another victim
sus
no just traced along it to get a map
also isn't it true that $0 \hookrightarrow A \hookrightarrow B \twoheadrightarrow C \twoheadrightarrow 0$ imply $C \cong B/A$
A Fibrous Powder
Yes
If you have exact sequence 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0 with one projection B -> A, it is called splitting condition, I think
well I mean A into B must be an injection, B into A that identifies that injection is a hmmm
ah I see
Huh so that specifies when $A \times \frac{B}{A} \cong A \otimes \frac{B}{A} \cong C$?
A Fibrous Powder
It’s direct sum instead of tensor product, but yes
oplus lol
I was fucking around with a cochain complex and idk why my brain decided to short circuit on this lmao
Happens always for me
I am kind of being drawn into category theory aaaaa
the notion of (co)limits are kinda sick
in a weird way they're like the join and meet for subsets in lattices
suprema and infima?
i.e if A gets mapped commutatively into our diagram, it has to pass through the product, and if everything maps into B, then it has to go through the coproduct
Oh, this is also an intuition I bumped into
For me, limit is like inf, colimit is like sup
direct sum works out nicely for abelian groups since the finite support means you can add up an elements component images
yep
Sheafs are like fucking entire categories associated with topologies though I keep seeking to find a "categorical" way to describe the gluing and locality axioms. I keep getting way ahead of myself though
Yeah
someone described it here once and I kinda just stared at the def and thought it was sick
I heard in #algebraic-geometry that they are equalizers
Indeed
anyway with the cochain complexes I keep trying to expand this subgroup lattice system into an almost homologic "system"?
hard to describe
Using the fact that $A \subset B \subset C \Rightarrow \frac{B}{A} \hookrightarrow \frac{C}{A}$ and $\frac{C}{A} \twoheadrightarrow \frac{C}{B}$
A Fibrous Powder
Which... is an exact sequence :D
$0 \hookrightarrow \frac{B}{A} \hookrightarrow \frac{C}{A} \twoheadrightarrow \frac{C}{B} \twoheadrightarrow 0$
A Fibrous Powder
Dunno about this one
Seems like (C/B) ~= (C/A) / (B/A)
That’s how I got the last epi
Which.. what was the name of the isomorphism theorem
3rd I think?
Yeah, seems like it would have the same applications
a homie's gonna ponder
for regular chain complexes it's just im(f) in ker(f)
for double ones it's nuts
lmao
i.e v(ker(d)) is in ker(h) and im(v)
v(ker(h)) is in ker(v) and im(h)
gonna see if I can do some homological sillyness using this goofball exact sequence applied a lot
Huhh
it's neato because the image of the whole thing under h or v connects at the bottom to the next one
creating this massive network
exactness at h or v just makes the left or right inclusion equal
Is this a commuting diagram?
it's really an inclusion lattice lol
a line going up implies the lower is in the upper
Where is h and v from?
horizontal morphism or vertical morphism
it's a double complex
Really it's im(h_n - 1,m)
but I'm just not using the indicies because the domains are implied
Ahh, like chain complex but two directions
Nice
I think there's a proof of the salamander lemma like this using spectral sequences maybe?
someone told me this approach looks similar to those but whenever I look them up I get jumpscared by mathematical machinations beyond my raisin brain
Anyway if h is exact at our X
then ker(h) = im(h) = H for convenience
this time h(ker(d)) is in ker(h) cap ker(v)
and v(ker(d)) is in im(h) + im(v)
here there's no data on the dimension of V when doing 1 -> 2 suppose eigenvctors span v but what if the dimension of V divides n and not actually n
wont we still have all the conditions satisfied and cardinality lesser
i undertand the root of the poly wont repeat for x^n - 1 as its derivative only zero is 0
as char of field is 0
ah wait
its more like its sufficient for some generator of the set in 2 to be a eigevalue of T?
what about T as identity transformation on R^3
T^3=I
V is spanned by eigenvectors of T
the cardinality of the set {x in R,x^3=1} is 1
also -I in R^4 works
as a counterexample
Presumably n is minimal
Ye
No but otherwise as you noted it's false
I spent hours without any progress
Right I should have looked for counter first
Thank you for the suggestions
Like otherwise, n is a multiple of the minimal number k, say for n=2 we get
T^2k-I=0 =(T^k-I)(T^k+I)
And then we actually need k-th roots of unity, and maybe there are all k-th roots but not all n-th roots (take k=Q(xi_k) for xi_k a primitive root of unity).
2->1 is true still tho
Since if there's nth roots there's k-th roots for k|n
The statement is that it holds for arbitrary T. So finding one example of T is not enough for the statement to be true.
Hmm?
T be a linear transformation satisfying...
Oh wait
No but
Ok this is confusing
I was actually giving a counterexample here tho
No, you said that T = id satisfies (i), then tried to conclude that (i) was true
A=>B if both are true then this is true
No I was saying 2nd statement is not satisfied
It's true value should also be true
Yes, but that's only a contradiction if (i) is true
Showing that (ii) is false without determining (i) doesn't tell you anything
Nah but we can say they aren't equivalent
But they are equivalent
How
Because you can always construct a T that has minimal polynomial x^n - 1
Yes companion matrix
So if you don't have enough roots of unity, then (i) can't be true
The statement is
If T:V -> V does A, then B.
If there exists a T such that A is true, but B is false then the statement isn't true.
The fact that there exists T for which B is true or that A isn't, doesn't tell you anything conclusive about the statement
Okay but how do u know a implication is right
If A is true and B is true in A=>B then it's true right?
Yeah so the implication would have to hold for any choice of T.
For example if I say
x^2 = 1 implies x = 1
You can't just say, plugging in 1, we see that the statement is true
Well, pretty much like twisted said. You just construct a specific T, that you use to prove (ii). And conversely you figure out what the minimal polynomial of T could be.
TIL Eigenspace of identity spans entire space
Finally, all the eigenvectors are mine! Muhahaha!
-Identity transformation, probably
So basically this power of T has to be minimal by taking a specific T (like the companion matrix) and the other side ((2)->(1) holds regardless)?
Any scalar multiple of identity transformation also
Thank you for the clarification
Suppose F=GF(p^n) such that |F^*| = p^n - 1. How can we then identify F with a group so that we can calculate primitive elements of the multiplicative group corresponding to F^*?
I'm not following what you mean. Do you just want the result that F^* is cyclic or?
I guess you can start with the polynomial x^(p^n - 1) - 1. Then divide out x^d - 1 for all proper divisors d of p^n - 1. Then you should be left with the polynomial whose roots are all the primitive roots.
no i need to find all generators of F^*
sure cyclotomic polynomials would work but they want something to do with "identifying with a group"?
Once you have a primitive root, then you get the isomorphism between F^* and Z/(p^n - 1)
yeah my professor does something like this: «identify F with Z_16» where in this case F was GF(17)
Yeah that should be
Identify F^* with Z/16
i see
So you need to "find" them, meaning you want to describe their minimal polynomial or something? Or you just want to count how many there are?
Counting is simple isnt it? its just phi(p^n-1) no?
this was the question given «Find generators for the multiplicative groups of fields with 8,
13, and 17 elements.»
With these sizes, I think the guess and check method is the most efficient
once you have one of the generators it's a lot easier to get the rest of them as well
yeah. just was stuck with representing it so i could check
For GF(8) you mean, or...?
well for F_13 and F_17 you can just use the fact that they're isomorphic to Z/13Z and Z/17Z
and for F_8 I'd just go with F_2[x]/(x^3+x+1)
well for that one all of them are so no problem
all except 0 and 1*
right. not sure why i was stuck on that
Since number of elements of F_p is prime, p, and the characteristic of F_p is a prime it must be p and contain a subfield that is iso to Z/pZ, so the entire set
sure, and then a simple cardina- yup you got it
Ok I think I misunderstood what the question asker wanted
In this case @chilly ocean I agree with jagr's interpretation. I was taking T to be fixed and then it asking us to prove the equivalence for a given T, which would require n to be minimal, but it says that an operator satisfying T^n=I being diagonalisable implies that there are n n-th roots of unity
So for 2=>1 you really do just need to find one operator who satisfies both of those
And n is fixed from the start
If T is fixed then it wouldn't make sense even if we assume what was meant was that n is minimal.
Because if T doesn't satisfy T^n = id, then (i) is automatically satisfied.
Ok fine then "fix T with T^n=I" is what I was really assuming
Just cuz the wording on this problem is pretty bad
They certainly could have afforded an "for all" somewhere
Or just replaced "V is a vector space" with "for any vector space V"
the group of sets S_a={x in R | x - flr(x) = a} under addition is literally just R/Z, right? the quotient group of the additive group of reals mod integers. Sometimes I feel like my tendency to just start constructing things without reference to the literal section of the text I'm in (in this case the chapter on quotient groups) really comes back to bite me.
x - flr(x) = a is equivalent to x + Z = a + Z
Suppose I had two commutative rings with identity R and S
Is it true that $(R/nil(R))\times (S/nil(S))= (R\times S) /nil(R\times S)$?
I think the canonical projection maps are $f:(R/nil(R))\times (S/nil(S))\to (R/nil(R)$ defined by $f((r,s)+nil(R\times S))= r+nil(R)$ and similarly $g:(R/nil(R))\times (S/nil(S))\to (S/nil(S)$ defined by $g((r,s)+nil(R\times S))= s+nil(S)$. Does this sound right?
HausdorffT1
is $\mathrm{nil}$ the nilradical?
A Fibrous Powder
This is for exercise 1.10 of Jacobson:
where r u looking
Prove $\frac{\bigcap H_a}{K} = \bigcap \frac{H_a}{K}$ for $K \trianglelefteq H_a \subseteq G$
I was going to see if this is a good proof so uh if you want to do this one don't read it
Isn't this equality?
yeah
A Fibrous Powder
w a i t
technically this can be done set theoretically because the quotient map is surjective
let H denote the intersection of all those mfs cause I can't be bothered typing it
let kH be something on the left, now think about what the things on the right have to be
I got derailed because I had an idea of an alternative way to prove it
go on?
typing it out lol
also, just when you're done, is this a finite collection of subgroups or an arbitary collection
Let $\pi$ be the projection map, then what matters here is that $S \subseteq \frac{G}{K} \Rightarrow \pi(\pi^{-1}(S)) = S$. By definition $\pi(H_a) = \frac{H_a}{K}$. Preimages preserve intersections, so $\pi^{-1} \left( \bigcap \frac{H_a}{K} \right) = \bigcap \pi^{-1} \left( \frac{H_a}{K} \right)$. Because of the congruence relation, $\pi^{-1}(xK) = y \LeftrightArrow \pi(y) = \pi(x)$, so $\pi \left( \frac{H_a}{K} \right) = H_a$
ALWAYS THE -1 POWERS
So applying $\pi$ and using the first property implies $\bigcap \frac{H_a}{K} = \frac{\bigcap H_a}{K}$
A Fibrous Powder
god I hate latex
there isn't a single command that's camel case
this ain't minecraft 1.20
oh brother this guy STINKS
I worked with java for like 3 hours this morning
Let $\pi$ be the projection map, then what matters here is that $S \subseteq \frac{G}{K} \Rightarrow \pi(\pi^{-1}(S)) = S$. By definition $\pi(H_a) = \frac{H_a}{K}$. Preimages preserve intersections, so $\pi^{-1} \left( \bigcap \frac{H_a}{K} \right) = \bigcap \pi^{-1} \left( \frac{H_a}{K} \right)$. Because of the congruence relation, $\pi^{-1}(xK) = y \leftrightArrow \pi(y) = \pi(x)$, so $\pi \left( \frac{H_a}{K} \right) = H_a$
So applying $\pi$ and using the first property implies $\bigcap \frac{H_a}{K} = \frac{\bigcap H_a}{K}$
Wew Lads Tbh
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
The camelcase is there
It's a bit excessive, but the one I wrote down did it via an element approach
and showing two way \subseteq
yes and that's where I was trying to nudge you towards
the proof for finite collections of subgroups is u literally just show that aH_1 \cap bH_2 = c(H_1 \cap H_2) for some c in G and then induct
a quick question: how to use RRT(rational root theorem) to show that 2^(1/3)+sqrt(3) is irrational?
in Q(2^1/3, 3^1/2)
finding the minimal polynomial might be a good start
or show that Q(2^1/3+sqrt(3)) isn't Q via the tower law I guess 

...it's a degree 6 extension?
so,6≠1?
QED?
prove it's a degree 6 extension
because Q(2^1/3 + sqrt(3)) isn't Q
Other way around
if you want to use the RRT, try applying to whatever minimal polynomial you find
you're completely missing the entire point irregardless
you're saying "it is because it is"
I am?
The element approach I used was just flat out quantification over all of the a and the two way inequality by def (inclusion "infimality") of the intersection lmao
and unless fibrous was going to actually use the RRT at some point then it was irrelevant to the question asked too 
****** regardless 🤓 🤓
infmality is a word u just made up
that's why I used quotes
go back to #category-theory we're doing things that actually mean something here

do you mean x=2^(1/3)+sqrt(3) and becomes x^6=(2^(1/3)+sqrt(3))^6??
just temporarily set your category to Grp like how people try to visualize 4d manifolds by setting N = 4
Category theorists are just mathcord spy mains
I am wondering what does minimal polynomial refer to here?
hold on lemme actually compute the minimal polynomial lol
[opens magma like a boss]
what is hold on lemma?
am I being trolled
I mean if it is correct to start on x=2^(1/3)+sqrt(3), but I don't know how to proceed here since I tried square or cube on both sides, but it seems not work
ok the minimal polynomial is grosssss
then if there is any method using RRT?
well I have the minimal polynomial, and the RRT does indeed give us that there are no rational solutions
it's just finding that minimal polynomial without just throwing a computer at it
in fact, i found that it will have the stuffs like x^3-2= the side that appears stuffs like 2^(2/3) and sqrt(3)
then i actually can directly say since left sides is rational while right one is irrational, then done
but I don't know if that satisfies RRT?
doesn't rational root theorem ONLY need the leading and trailing coeffient
do you need to use RRT or can we use literally anything else
I.E the product of all the conjugates
if you say so!
and our leading coefficient is just 1
yeah cause it's minimal
so can I just say that the last coefficient is irrational, so no rational numbers can divide it?
the last coefficient of the minimal polynomial is -23
The rational root theorem states that if the root is (coprime) p/q, then p divides the leading coeffient and is thus 1, and p divides the trailing coefficient, i.e the product of all the conjugates.
-23 is prime
true
@delicate orchid wait doesn't x in H_a iff xK in H_a/K like, make it immediate lmao
finish the train of thought
I wanna see if you'll figure out where I was hinting towards with this
or if there's a faster way I missed lol
It's just using that two way:
For all a, x in H implies x is in H_a, thus xK is in all H_a/K thus is in the intersection of all H_a/K
For all a, xK in all H_a/K implies x is in all H_a, and is thus in the intersection of all H_a
then it's just defining the image as (intersection H_a)/K
yup that is faster
My brain went "oh you gotta prove the image is (intersection H_a)/K" but that's the goddamn def lmao
it all hinges around that x in H iff xK in H/K property which frankly like
all of the group iso theorems pull from
what is a surjective ring homo $f:{p/q\in\mathbb Q:q\neq 47k}\to\mathbb Z_{47}$ such that $\ker f={p/q\in\mathbb Q: q\neq 47k, p=101\ell}$
kevinhardy2
k,l in Z

I mean I would look at how this hypothetical map would affect Z
Actually the domain itself is interesting
Hey guys,sorry to interrupt, am fairly new to groups and proof writing and was just wondering if someone would check over this proof i have written , not sure if this is the right place to do that.
I haven't done much ring theory but here's my take on it
I'm gonna call your domain Q_47. We know Q_47 contains the ring Z generated by 1
The only real difference between Q and Q_47 is that 47 and any multiple of it are no longer a unit
This makes (47) an ideal in Q_47, and a maximal one at that.
Q_47/(47) is a field
wait
Send it
@severe tide I don't think it's even possible. Here's my two cents. Your domain ring, I'll call $\mathbb{Q}{47}$, is not a field, as $47$ is not a unit. Therefore, it's generated set $(47)$ is an \textbf{ideal} in $\mathbb{Q}{47}$. We are looking for an epimorphism $f : \mathbb{Q}{47} \twoheadrightarrow \mathbb{F}{47}$ (a finite field of \textbf{characteristic 47}). Therefore, automatically $(47)$ is in the kernel of $f$. It's a field because $47$ is prime and thus irreducible, meaning $(47)$ is a \textbf{maximal ideal}. The special kernel you want is not possible, as it would have to strictly contain a maximal ideal for it to be onto.
A Fibrous Powder
If Z_p he means Z/pZ yeah impossible
There exists k such that f(a/b)=kab^-1, then ker f is either Q_p (when k=0 mod p) or 0 (otherwise)
Also your kernel is the whole of your domain, because $1$ would have to be in your kernel, since $\frac{1}{101}$ is in there too, so $101 * \frac{1}{101} = 1 \in \mathrm{ker}(f)$. Since multiplying anything by an element of your kernel will be inside your kernel, everything's in the kernel
Ok what about instead
A Fibrous Powder
@severe tide are you talking about the 47-adic integers?
No youre rivt
okay just wanted to make sure because p-adics are way out of my league
Rivt?
How about this
p-adic integers are just directed limit of Z/p^k Z 
I haven't done this before.
I'm confuse
It might help to assume there's another polynomial such that (a + bx)p(x) = 1
a has to be a unit and we know the constant coeff of the other polynomial has to be a^-1
Hmm, it divides a^n + b^n x^n = a^n
So it is a unit
?
I don't know off the top of my head how to show that a polynomial is a unit iff all but it's constant coefficients are nilpotent, and it's constant is a unit
Yeah, tbh I don't like when one has to do computation to prove
same
Maybe there is a way to involve advanced technique to avoid factorization? But then it's harder..
So you saying the solution is
$X^{n+1} - a^{n + 1} = (X - a) \sum_{k = 0}^{n}{a^{n - k}X^k}$ is kinda by induction
A Fibrous Powder
I also think it's true in any commutative ring
What is that telling me
'
Assume you have $p(X) = bX + a$ where $b^N = 0$. Then $b^N X^N +a^N = (bX + a)\sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1}{(-a)^{N - k - 1} (bX)^{k}}$
Therefore
A Fibrous Powder
$a^N = p(x) \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1}{(-a)^{N - k - 1} (bX)^{k}} \Rightarrow 1 = p(x) \left( a^{-N} \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1}{(-a)^{N - k - 1} (bX)^{k}} \right)$
A Fibrous Powder
i.e p(x) is a unit
@severe tide That sum in parenthesis is literally your inverse lmao
so there is an accidental calculation of the unit's inverse lol
Notable thing to recall:
If some v divides a unit, then v is itself a unit
that actually works to prove that p(x) is a unit iff p(x) = u + v(X)X, where u is a unit and v(X) is a nilpotent polynomial
Hmm, does v have to be nilpotent
yes
It's an inductive proof
Basically using a + bx + cx^2 + dx^3 = a + x(b + x(c + x(...)))
which you have to show all but the last constant coefficient is nilpotent
at least that makes sense to me
The whole gist is that if f(X) is nilpotent, and so is a, then a + f(X)X is also nilpotent
I don't think so.
On the ring R[x]/x^2,
1 + x is a unit with inverse 1 - x.
But 1 is not nilpotent
good point
no wait this is purely over R[X], not any of its quotient rings
But then, how can v(X) be nilpotent?
v(X) is nilpotent as an element of R[X}
i might be misinterpreting what you're saying though
If R is domain, R[X] is also a domain
I guess something happens if R is not a domain?
Let me think
We have R[X], and we also have the nilradical K = Nil(R[X]). It's an ideal, which we can verify using binomial theorem or the route shown above. Therefore if p(X) is in K, then Xp(X) is in K
Lol it's as simple as all of our coefficients being in our nilradical
Nil(R[X]) = X * Nil(R) lmao
because it's an ideal, it's going to "aborb" all of our X powers
IIRC, in commutative case maximal nilradical is the Jacobson ideal
we just have to SHOW it's an ideal
jacobson radical i thought is the intersection of all maximal ideals
Actually I think i know why specifically this occurs
There's actually a weird ideal-theoretic thing behind this that eludes me
I wonder when it is the case that, for an ideal $V \subset R[X]$ that $p(X)$ is in $V$ if and only if all of it's coefficients lie in $V \cap R$
A Fibrous Powder
I was sloppy
J(R) contains every nil ideal of R. If R is left or right Artinian, then J(R) is a nilpotent ideal.
Also nilpotent ideal /= nil ideal. Sorry..
no worries lol
But I recall in the proof of characterization of Jacobian radical, something being a nilpotent element appeared a lot
Jacobian or jacobson?
For commutative rings the Jacobson radical is the intersection of all maximal ideals
There's a rediculous characterization that uses the fact that if x lies in an ideal A, then 1 + x cannot lie in A
I think it's that forall r in R that 1 + rx is a unit for x in J(R)
Yeah, indeed
The set of units in any commutative ideal is literally $R \setminus \bigcup M$
A Fibrous Powder
the set of units is the complement of the union of all maximal ideals
i.e the union of ALL strict ideals
If an element doesn't lie in an ideal, then it's a unit. It seems a bit weird at first, but if x doesn't lie in any strict ideal then (x) must be R, implying there is a y such that xy = 1
But on R[X], if 1 + a is an ideal, a has to be nilpotent, right
Which is a funny way to say that a field is a ring with no nontrivial ideals
?
(1 + a)?
I am not functioning
1 + a being a unit
yeppers
Might be a consequence of R[X] being artinian
Wait it isn't
No
Hmmm, this is strange.
Yeah
So, note that as you said, if 1 + a is unit, a is nilpotent, so for all r, 1 + ra is a unit.
wait let me think
I don't know why but I picture the sequence of ideals (x^n) as a duck waddling infinitely far away
That means if 1 + a is unit, a is in J(R[X])
you have just inserted a distracting cognitohazard in my brain thanks
1 + ra would have to be a unit for ALL r
which actually
is Jac(R[X})) = X*Jac(R) too?
I know Jac(R) contains Nil(R) by def
Wait no
it's vice versa
Well, we showed earlier that if a is nilpotent, then 1 + a is unit
ra is also nilpotent, so 1 + ra is also unit
I don't think that's true in general then?
let me ponder for a sec
Speaking of jacobson i need to do exercises from basic alg tonight
Since when was Jacobson a basic alg 
Actually you're right, Nil(R[X]) = Jac(R[X]) = Nil(R)[X}
The ideal structure of R[X] in general is interesting
And how it extends R's
I guess for each ideal J in R, J[X] is an ideal in R
Ah, the actually more difficult part 
mf on the group section partaking in ring theory (mf needs to stay in his lane)
Let $R$ be a commutative ring with unity, $R[X]$ be its ring of polynomials. Then every ideal, $J \subset R$, can be extended to the ideal $J[X] \subset R$. However, for any ideal $K \subset R[X]$, there's a restriction to an ideal of $R$, $K \cap R$. mf Galois connection
A Fibrous Powder
Also that $(K \cap R)[X] \subseteq K$ and $J[X] \cap R = J$
A Fibrous Powder
Now I ponder, when is $(K \cap R)[X] = K$
A Fibrous Powder
K \cap R is the ideal of constant coefficients in K
Think It is when K = J[X]
J[X] is the ideal of polynomials who's coefficients are all in J
so yeah, when K = J[X] for some ideal J in K
if K is entirely disjoint from R, then the only constant coefficients are 0
Therefore K = X*V for some other ideal V?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/329236/jacobson-radical-equal-to-nilradical-in-rx
Oh, so it is actually equal
Seems jacobson is so often coincides with nilradical
But yeah lol
I wonder
Assume R is noetherian, then every sequence of ideals I_n must stabilize
R[X]/(X) is iso to R
so any sequence of ideals strictly within (X) must stabilize
So if we have a strictly increasing sequence of ideals in R[X], they must eventually intersect R
However it's not gaurunteed that if ideal A strictly lies in ideal B
Vacuous truth
implies their intersections preserve the strict inclusion
?
(R[X] does not have strictly increasing seq of ideals)
I am trying to think of another way to prove hilbert basis
Ah
Ideals within X =/= ideals of R[X]/(X).
Uhm so I'm working with the primitive nth roots of unity over a field of characteristic 0 or a prime which doesn't divide n. The nth primitive root we picked (let's say zeta_n) now has a minimal polynomial. Then there are a few conditions we need to show to be equivalent.
-
degree of the minimal poly is Totient of n
-
the minimal polynomial is basically the cyclotomic polynomial, that is, all primitive roots of unity are roots of this
-
Aut(K(zeta_n)/K) is isomorphic to the group of units of the cyclic group of order n under the map [a] -> sigma^a
Where sigma^a takes zeta_n to (zeta_n)^a
What I was thinking is -
If sigma is an automorphism, then sigma(zeta_n) must be a root of the minimal polynomial also right?
Indeed since the automorphism preserves K
You can exchange roots "without noticing" on the K-level
So if I just show the polynomial is separable
I'm done
Because
The polynomial has at most phi(n) roots
If all roots are distinct
Then all the primitive roots must be a root of it
The group action already is well-defined
Yeah, I think so
Wait I'm having a hard time even convincing myself
Uhm so
zeta_n is a root, so sigma(zeta_n) is a root and so is sigma^k(zeta_n) for all k.
If order of sigma is n, we are done
The condition 3 says that sigma is of order n
Because what I am trying to achieve is to cycle through all the roots
Exactly, but currently I only have assumed condition 1
I have to prove condition 1 -> 2 -> 3
Ahh
Then back to 1
For 1 -> 2, I think you have to use some argument by exhaustion
That is, like, totient of n is "big enough"
For that if the minimal polynomial is separable we are definitely done
For char 0 we are done
If char p but p doesn't divide n
How do we say that
Ah, non-separability
