#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 202 of 1
as it is not even clear how to treat the case when prod ^G_i is not discrete
like in particular, the product of locally compact spaces need not be locally compact
Think about which property of groups they are trying to show here. You will likely realise it if you read the sentence in full
oh i see
another qn
When proving subgroups, do you have to show identity? I feel like some texts say you should, but others not.
You have to prove that the set is nonempty. Once you have that it follows that it contains the identity
It follows that because the inverse exists?
Yeah, x times it's inverse will be the identity
The reasoning works because I can find $a^{-1}$ so that $aa^{-1}=e$. Here I'm assuming there is $e\in A$. Is this not circular?
bluepianist
If you have an element a, then you have the inverse a^-1, then you have their product a * a^-1, which is the identity
oh wait i think i kinda get it.. so a^-1 exists because you're in group G. aa^-1 is in A if you've shown closure. then it follows that e is in A?
Yes, that's right.
So the 3 things needed to be subgroup is
- Be closed under taking inverses
- Be closed under the operation
- Not be the empty set
awesome thankss
"to conclude each factor is an nth power"
is this because f^n=1^n * ... * f^n and the units in C[t] are nonzero complex numbers?
also, what is wrong with the last part of the first paragraph?
what does the first part mean
what is 1^n * ... * f^n
No--f has a factorization, and when you take that factorization to the nth power every factor is a power of n
what do you mean
its a factorization of f^n
Like every factor of x^2 for an integer x has power divisible by 2
Like this is all thats saying
thats a different statement than what you said
they say "use unique factorization to conclude that each of the factors is an nth power". my justification of this is that f^n=1 * ... * 1 * f^n. Since C[t] is a UFD each of the (h-zeta g) is either a nonzero constant or f^n*constant
is this incorrect
wdym
how did you conclude that h-zeta g = const. f^n
that clearly isnt true as otherwise it would have degree n^n
ok, i think the problem is that the 1s are not irreducible
yes
1 is a unit
we want to factor f^n as a product of nth powers
as a product of n, nth powers
correct
so how do you do so
G is a finite group. Does this generalize?
- What happens if you consider representations over bar Q_p or C_p. Must they be definable over p-adic number fields or even better, over their valuation rings?
- What if you consider representations over any algebraically closed field (of char=0, and char>0 too), must it be definable over a finite algebraic extension of its prime field?
yeah obviously that factorization need not work
like, for example take f=(t+1) and n=3
then f^3 is degree 3 and cant factor out as a product of 3 third powers of irreducible factors
the h-\zeta^i g are not irreducible
then how is UFD useful here? ufd says that if you have 2 factorizations into irreducibles, then after a possible reshuffling the factors will be associates to each other (factor times a unit)
like this
power means multiplicity?
yes
ok, so then if f is irreducible how does this work
what do you mean
how do you write f^n as the product of n nth powers
thx
in your setting you can absorb u,v into a',b' by taking nth roots
given a complex number u = re^{ix}, you can check that r^{1/n}e^{ix/n} has nth power u
this works because C is algebraically closed
the equation z^n = u has a solution for any u in C
guys im proving tha this is a ring, but i can't prove that the second operator is distribuitive on the first
pls review the way i solve it
for every a, b , c who belongs to Z : a¤(b+c) = (a ¤b )+ (a¤c)
is this correct ?
a¤(b+c)=a¤(b+c+1)= a+b+c+1+ab+ac+a= (a*b) +(a¤c)+ab
i found this
try the other part of the equation
it's there where i find a confusion
(a ¤b )+ (a¤c) =a+b+1+a+c+ac
notice ab is missing
i made a mistake here
forgot the one
ughhh thought it was a normal addition
i won't have you in my exam tmrw to remind me
it's normal addition
it's defined in terms of usual addition
well yeah
wait then
i think you just need to show distrubtivity holds
i really don't think there is something to prove
wait, if you wanna prove that its distribuitive wich formulas would u use
yeah i know, my english is bad
Dubs i think i figured out my mistake
first operator is * not +
therfore yes i needed to add the one
given that ζ = exp(2πi/17), how exactly would i go about showing these equalities?
im a bit daunted by the looks. i would appreciate any hints or guide on where to start 😭
You don’t really have that many realtors of roots of unity to go off of. You know zeta^17 = 1 and zeta+zeta^2+…+zeta^16 = -1, so just start symbol bashing until it works
In my selfstudy. I am going to study 3 subjects: real analysis (from Abbott's book) , proof writing (from How to prove it a structural approach by velleman). Now from linear algebra (friedberg) and abstract algebra (Farleigh) which one should I pick?
Note : I don't have enough knowledge of number theory. Just some basic like Diophantine equation, divisibility, gcd, primes etc
I would suggest just starting reading
If you enjoy it, keep reading, and if you don't, try something else.
Nobody else can possibly choose for you.
You are so true. Thank you.
I have some knowledge of abstract algebra (first 4 chapters from Gallian's book).
But now I am using Farleigh. So many things look easy.
(Should I still continue this book? And skip easy problems?)
Fraleigh has a lot of content.
Got it. Thank you
I’m actually trying to learn more on this, has anyone seen this before?
This is from a number theory i used, Elementary Number Theory by Thomas Koshy
Why appeal to k(y)[x]? Since k is a field then wouldn't that make k[x,y] a PID which has bezouts?
k[x,y] is not a PID
i see, i thought it would by some induction argument
In fact R[x] is a PID iff R is a field
yeah
This proof seems wrong to me though
oof
Well when they say identically 0 etc they seem to be identifying polynomials with polynomial functions
But you can just assume the field is infinite to fix that
Since if the field is finite then this theorem is trivial
Lol
by identically 0 i thought they meant the 0 polynoial
yeah definitely
Identically seems more like a thing for functions
yeah
but if they delete the word identically then i think its right? and no distinctions need to be made for finite/infinite?
no
I wonder if there's any context where saying "identically zero" instead of just "zero" actually adds meaning.
there are nonzero polynomials which are identically zero as functions
Yes, but I think in that sentence it is "as functions" that conveys the meaning, not the "identically".
why is this though?
(also, couldnt they just say that similarly by doing the same process with k(x)[y] there are finitely many choices for the first component)?
Actually is there a funny overkill way to the this
Well, take your finite field F_p of choice then you can construct non-zero function with integer coefficients that's 0 at 0, 1, up to p-1
i dont think thats whats happening here
youre starting with a polynomial in k[x][y] and plugging in a fixed value for y to get a polynomial in k[x]
yes
Switched up msgs, mb
Well that's why i said we can just assume k infinite
right
because if k is finite this is trivial
got it
since infinite IDs have the property that functions uniquely determine the polynomial
Yeah exactly - any polynomial of degree n has <= n roots over an integral domain
Indeed this holds for all polys iff the ring is a domain lol
"a nonconstant polynomial in x,y with coeffieints from algebraicly closed field has infinite zeroes" - This is a following line in that book. I think its wrong, since f=x+1 for example. I think it should require presnence of both x and y
No, that does have infinitely many zeroes. Remember, it's in x and y already. f(x,y) = x + 1 has zeroes f(-1, 0), f(-1, 1), f(-1, 2) for example.
Remember it says "a nonconstant polynomial in x,y"
Can you explain why you chose to react with a clown emoji, @frank cosmos? I'd like to know what you mean by that
im a clown for not realizing
OK, that's good. I hope you know that people tend to use 🤡 in a rude way, usually
sorry mb
Just checking
Does a group homomorphism preserve the identity element ? I don't think it does.
Exercise: prove that group homomorphisms preserve the identity element
You should try this.
It's one of those proofs that 'everyone should do at least once'
Let G1 and G2 be groups. For all x in G1, we have that f(e) * f(x) = f(e * x) = f(x). This means that f(e) * f(x) = f(x) for all x in G1.
I don't see how this implies that f(e) * x = x for all x in G2.
OK :) You should try proving it
||When you have a group, even one instance of x with ax = x is enough to conclude that a is the identity||
Hmmm, is it because if a is a "fake" identity for x (in the sense that a * x = x and x * a = x) and e is the real identity, we then have:
a * x * x^(-1) = a * e = a
e * x * x^(-1) = e * e = e
Thus, by transitivity of equality, we have a = e.
I see now. Thanks everybody, and sorry if it sounded like such a silly question.
I think they were aiming for proving the cancellative properties of groups. Namely if ax=bx, then a = axx^-1=bxx^-1 = b
I see, I see. Thanks!
So given $z_1 z_2 = z_3$ where $z_n \in \mathbb{C}$ then $|z_1|^2 |z_2|^2 = |z_3|^2$. This isn't very special, but I just saw it mentioned as the "law of moduli" in an old book. Is that really a thing? Why would this be any more notable than $|z_1| |z_2| = |z_3|$ ?
𝓶𝓸𝓶𝓸𝓶𝓸
Seems to be a strange thing to say, especially considering it is a trivial consequence of the second thing you mention. Probably a typo.
We would just write this as |zw| = |z| |w| btw.
I'll paste a photo.
Oh wait, I guess I don't have permission to do that.
Or maybe I do.
OK. This is completely equivalent, just take square roots. Idk why I didn't say that before.
So these are the properties that Hamilton was hoping that his new extension of the complex numbers would have.
I guess the idea is to avoid having to define the modulus.
(4) looks like it promises more than it can keep ...
Yes, it somehow overlooks e.g. N=0, N'=1.
I think it means to say that inverses are unique.
Oh, wait, it speaks of triplets? Then it's probably building up to saying we can't get all those properties anyway.
I would just assume they meant no particular order there
Either they are equal or sort things around N is non-zero
Nvm
Yes, this is a history of quaternions.
Which have all of the properties except for commutativity of products.
It's saying that Hamilton was looking for triplets with these properties and failed, but then realised that quadruplets work.
The reason he wanted these properties is that they hold for complex numbers.
(when you set c=0 of course)
Having a bit of trouble with this. First I had to show it was a homomorphism which was straightforward assuming the cycle obeys usual power rules. Now I have to find the kernel and image and I am a little stuck...
Try calculating just a few values of psi e.g. psi(1), 2, 3, etc. See what you find.
so like for n=1 (123).... n=2 (123)(123) etc
Work it out more explicitly, for example what is (123)(123) in disjoint cycles
oh ye lol (132). I guess that sorts the image problem out. I just need to do that for different n ... What actually is the identity of Sn ? Like I haven't got it down anywhere
You should think about that.
I would have said 1 but that doesn't feel right
Remember that (123) is just a representation of an element of S_n. The actual elements are bijections on {1...n}
ah ofc
Elements of S_n are not numbers :)
But it's common to use the symbol 1 as a name for the identity anyway.
In this context, would the kernel be the set of integers which map to the identity permutation under \psi ?
Yes, that's the definition of "kernel".
Okay, thanks.
funnily enough, this question made me realise... I spelled my name wrong 
By "image" I guess you mean the image set, i.e. the set of all permutations that \psi maps to.
update: I have realised that the permutation is of order 3 but I am still no closer to realising the identity of the permutation... That is (123)(123)(123) = (123) idk if this is useful but I was just messing around and spotted it. I guess it is also pretty obvious in the first place lol.
Oh, I always thought were just a Commodore 64 enthusiast.
Nope, I am just stupid 🙂
i have a question on super basic algberaic curves, should i ask here or is a different channel better.
Hmm, immediately I would say either #geometry-and-trigonometry or #algebraic-geometry, depending on how "super basic" it is :-)
basically definition of rational functions
at that level
(as in algebraic curves with rational parametrization)
ok, i think im going through all this wrong
lol
The identity element of S_3 can be written as (1)(2)(3).
Maybe try working it out in different notation
Ye, I got it guys but thanks 🙂 . The answer is any integer multiple of 3 for the kernel.
Yes, including zero of course (which I guess is a multiple of 3 anyway?).
3*0=0, so very multipleist
I’ve been stuck on this for two days now. Any hints?
lmfao
why is it that if b is irreducible in a PID R, and a is not divisible by b, then a and b are relatively prime?
what is the ideal (a, b)?
i guess it would have to be R, but i'm trying to think of why
or (1)
Hint: (b) is maximal
Since we are in a PID
R = (1) 
ye
Does this make sense okey
i think so... divisibility has never been a strong suit of mine
So do you know why (b) is maximal?
Well, consider decomposition of a into irreducibles
it either has an associate of b or not
will come back lol don't want to get stuck but thanks for the help
i haven’t taken lin alg yet but I am going off Dummit & Foote :troll:
groups, rings, and fields are more *fun*, bro
Cool
He is one of the homies (*psychopath*)
I have to take linear alg for compeng at some point and I’m unsure if I know all the content
most of the stuff is a manifestation of more general things afaik (like the Rank-Nullity being a consequence of Splitting Lemma)
Idk you have thing a bit weirdly structured. Usually they are introduced when needed in linalg then be equipped for algebra
Occasionaly you can have more generalized concept proving stuff there, but none of the more interesting proofs really profit from it
modules are interesting in their own right
shouldn't this be unique up to a unit?
they have a very different flavor tho, being over a field is just extremely nice and well-behaved
depends on your "directory of primes", all "up to unit"-ness comes from a prime element times a unit still being a prime element
If your system takes representatives (like e.g. choosing the positive primes in Z), then things are fine
hmm ok, thanks
have you got anything?
i can almost guarantee that you dont lol
rank nullity is a special case of some module thing, yes
its also quite trivial
and proving it is hardly the substance of a linear algebra course
the real heart of linear algebra is absolutely not a special case of module theory
all i know is that SVD’s are a pain to calculate
In the last paragraph how do you know that H or P \cap H is a p-group? Don't we only know that P is a p-group?
Essentially, lagrange theorem
They can only be powers of p, since no other order divides the a prime power order
word problems in general are hard. idk any way which can help you avoid calculations. you know yxy^-1 = x^2, conjugate this equation with z and just do weird calculations until stuff simplifies.
if you had 4 generators with similar cyclic relations, then it turns out that group is infinite.
are there any units in C[x,y]/xy^2 which are not complex numbers? Like most polynomials without a constant term are zero divisors so they cant be, but I cannot really see no polynomials are units...
you are so right lol

Ohhh just the fact that H is a subgroup of Q, which is a q-subgroup?
Yep but H is a p-subgroup not a q-subgroup
what are the concepts to prove (ℚ, +, ⋅) is an ordered field?
Prove field axioms, then prove ordered field axioms
Or any reasonable order actually
E.g.
I don't understand this, how is the injection x-->(x,1/x) continuous? the projection to the second coordinate is certainly continuous right so this would imply that the map x-->1/x itself is continuous, which contradicts the previous remark
The injection defines the topology
And it claims R* as topologized as a subset of R x R has a continuous inclusion R* -> R
Which looks like projection to first coordinate?
Inverse map need not be continuous on R* < R, but it is for R* < R x R
Since ya know
Second projection map
how
are you saying that the map (x, 1/x)-->(1/x, x) is continuous?
this is not the inverse map, but ok
doesn't make a lot of sense to talk about inverse map when you have 2 rings, but anyway
you sent (x,1/x) to 1/x, not x to 1/x
x -> (x, 1/x) is cts by definition
(x, 1/x) -> 1/x is second projection
Therefore
Compose them
QED
This is a different topology on R*
You topologize R* based on x -> (x, 1/x)
mmh isn't this like declaring for every open U of R that U cap R^x and {1/x : x in U cap R^x} should be open?
in R^x
tf is R^x
the set of functions form x to R, what do you think
For every open U of R x R, the preimage is open in R*
$R^\times=R^*$
Croqueta
what is a subspace
It’s the subspace topology on the set {(x, 1/x)} < R x R
ah yeah, this I get it
Aggressive
Yeah in RxR the map (x, y) -> (y, x) is continuous.
If you restrict this to (x, 1/x) it maps to (1/x, x) which is the inverse. As you can see if you multiply then together
(x * 1/x, 1/x * x) = (1, 1)
The resulting topology will be generated by sets of the form
{x in R^* | x in U, 1/x in V}
for open sets U and V.
What is the algorithm to write this permutation as a product of cycles? two by two disjoint.
you follow an element on its path
If two element intersect in their orbit, then they are part of the same cycle. So by just seeing what cycle any individual element follows you'll see how it decomposes
Simply track down where the elements go as you apply the permutation several times. (In this case, 1 -> 3 -> 9 -> 11 -> 5 -> 19 -> 1, so one of the cycles in your decomposition will be (1 3 9 11 5 19), do the same on the other elements for the rest of the decomposition)
ok thank you very much
The preimage of 0
f^-1(the identity element) whatever you named it
oh I didn't notice ring, mb
yeah that first one
But I have a problem
The question is Determine the signature of σ as well as its order. Calculate σ^(59)
I calculated the signature
( 1 3 9 11 5 19 ) ( 2 4 6 7 8 14 18 17 16 10 ) ( 12 13 15 )
(−1) ^(5) (−1)^(9) −1)^(2) = 1
Then for the order we calculate the ppcm
ppcm(10,6,3)
The thing is that I find that this ppcm is equal to 30
But in the correction they say 60
And in fact the 60 makes it easier to resolve the problem because afterwards they say that
Since σ is of order 60 we have σ^(60) = Id. Consequently σ^(59) is equal to σ^(-1)
But I think that 60 is wrong for the ppcm, how to calculate σ^(60)
?
if σ^30 = id then σ^60 = id, so you can do the last part either way
why if f σ^30 = id then σ^60 = id ?
yea it should be 30
So I was told this result that if F is a field then every finite subgroup of F* is cyclic
But I have a counter example to this like look at U(8)
its not cyclic
and its elements are also in set of real numbers which is field
U(8) is not the group of units of a field
Z/8Z is not a field, and neither does it consist of real numbers
You know this already: in what world do we have 8 = 0 in the real numbers??
Oh you are right
hm yeah operation would be different
So its a true result basically
Theorem with correct proof is true! In other news, water wet
I mean sorry my counter example being wrong doesn't prove that the result is correct
Yes, I realised that
I didn't understand why 10 or 12 are possible orders for an element of S_7
I thought it only went to 7...
Can someone please explain to me?
okay, whats the order of the product of elements with relatively prime oders?
assuming an abelian group for the moment
You are likely confusing S_7 with the group you probably know by the name Z_7
S_7 has 7! = 5040 elements, and Z_7 has 7 elements.
Not understood
my teacher wrote this
I may be wrong but order of an element is permutation group is calculated by checking the lcm of length of disjoint cycles
Also order of S_7 is 7!
so to have order of 10 your element will look something like this (5)(2)
which means 5 elements in first cycle and 2 in the 2nd
Those are elements in disjoint cycles under type
So for order 2 you have something like (2)(1)(1)(1)(1)(1)
check lcm here and you get 2
Now tell me how you will create an element of order 12 in S_7
lcm of length of disjoint cycle should be 12 so use that
Take an abelian group and let A have order 3 and B have order 4. What order does AB have?
why is the order of B unknown?
whistling innocently
Did you understand what I said
is this true - if G is cyclic then Aut(G) is cyclic. Its written in the notes Im reading but take like Z8 we know its cyclic but Aut(Z8) is isomorphic to U(8) which is not cyclic
Well there’s your counter example lol
my teacher smoked before making these notes then
Double check that’s actually what it’s saying
That second statement is wrong as well lol
its supposed to be 2p^k
Ok then it’s correct
hm even prime is already counted
I assumed that was stated elsewhere because 2 and 4 are separate cases
? What
i like how 8 just refuses to have a primitive root
No there is absolutely a need to mention it’s cyclic for p^k with specifically an odd prime
Because it’s not a true statement otherwise
oh you are right
oh wait
yeah my bad p^k will never be a prime regardless
💀
so my reasoning was dumb
hey chat
what
Z/13Z^X is 12-cyclic so you have the chance to make the world’s most incomprehensible clock
Wait so is 61 LMAO (60-cyclic)
12-cyclic meaning cyclic group of order 12?
Yes
generated by one of it’s many primitive roots of unity
log problem means it’d be a pain in the dick to go from that system to normal time lmao
Its difficult to memorise these many results in group theory
even if i understand the reasoning and proof i forget it if i don't revise it regularly
guys we have a chance to make the most annoying fucking time system known to man
Eventually it gets to the point that you can detect when something is wrong on an elementary level as easily as a spelling error
7 is prime and is in both
just send hr:min to (7^hr mod 13):(7^min mod 61)
and subtract one if you want it to go from 0-59
Great idea
And instead of starting on different times, timezones have different generators
Which are changed when daylight savings
Isn't it a shame then that I can't spot spelling errors either -_-
That’s ok I can’t spell either
Mike Hawk
Does this work?
AMAZING
Not sure you can use Euclid’s division algorithm in Z_5[x,y] cause it’s not a PID
I’d make note that the ideals (x+3) and (y^2+4) are disjoint
I'm using euclid's division with respect to the variable y
Hello
Why in this case, for <2> = we have the multiplication and not the addition ?
And another thing, I understand that from 8 we go a little outside the border, because 8 x 2 is greater than 12. But I don't remember what the calculation is that makes us go to 3
Context. Context determines it.
find a generator of the cyclic group (Z/13Z)×
× is not hte multiplication
I know what the notation means, thanks
Ok
But the group operation is indeed multiplication – this is the multiplicative group.
If we were looking at some other thing, for example the group Z/13Z, we would use addition when writing e.g. <2>
So as I said, context determines it.
You are aware of what the notation (Z/13Z)× means?
(Z/13Z)× is the multiplicative group of the ring Z/13Z.
Are you familar with this?
that means Z/13 deprived of zero
In this case it does, yes.
In general it does not, but no matter.
And (Z/13Z)× is a group under multiplication.
Clear now?
well a group provided with a multiplication generally we note it (Z/13Z, x)
Sure, that is not what is going on here
someone know for this question please?
No, group theorists generally do not need to do that.
also that
And furthermore, (Z/13Z, x) is not a group.
((Z/13Z)*, x) is, though.
It should be very clear to you that (Z/13Z)* is a group under multiplication, and not addition.
Well you said because there is *
So are we clear?
yes
Great
but not this
8 x 2 = 16 = 3 + 13 = 3 mod 13.
||I genuinely computed 8 x 2 as 24||
why 3 +13 and not 4 + 12 ?
it is mod 13
We are working in Z mod 13, not Z mod 12.
ah actually it’s clearer like that : 2^(0 to 12) ≡ ... [mod 13]
is it true that if K is a field, then K[x] is a PID?
That is indeed correct
thanks
For K a commutative ring, this is in fact if and only if
which is a good exercise :)
The hint I would give is to consider how you prove that Z[x] isn't a PID (using the fact Z is not a field)
poo, pee, and more
huh
He's got a point☝️
Schemes.
What
Unless it's the empty scheme
Yeah those lack points
do you know why (what is the generator?)
Well it depends on the ideal
how do you prove that -1 commutes with any element under mutliplcation in a ring?
Maybe show that (-1)x=-x=x(-1)
bruh
Hello
sorry I have last one question
I was told I could write 4 = 2 + 1 + 1 in 12 partitions in S_n
• {1, 2}, {3}, {4}
• {1, 2} {4} , {3}
• {1, 3], {2}, {4}
• {1, 3], {4}, {2}
• {3, 4], {1}, {2}
• {3, 4], {2}, {1}
• {4, 3], {1}, {2}
• {4, 3], {2}, {1}
• {2, 1}, {3}, {4}
• {2, 1}, {4}, {3}
• {3, 1}, {2}, {4}
• {3, 1}, {4}, {2}
here it's 12 partitions
But something missing to me
where is {2, 4}, {1}, {2} ?
or {1, 4}, {2}, {3}
?
yes?
do you notice anything ?
||they are the same, so yes the ones you mentioned as missing are not listed||
#help-1 message
just wanted to try asking this here, as the question in #help-1 doesn't seem to be being answered
Given n rational points (xi,yi) and another n rational points (zi,wi) can you find polynomials with rational coefficients P(x,y) and Q(x,y) such that P(x,y)=zi and Q(x,y)=wi if and only if x=xi and y=yi for each i?
ah yes thank you
Do you guys know what the 2 refers to?
Probably the variable in polynomial
what 2
the n = 0,2,4,6,...?
It would be the even-numbered polynomials
even polynomials yeah. also this could probably be asked in #linear-algebra
I have the wrong group, sorry
There are 6 Sylow subgroups of order 5 in A_5 ? right ?
yes
n_5 divides |A_5|=2^2*3*5 and n_5=1 mod 5 so either n_5=1 or n_5=6, but you can't have n_5=1 since A_5 is simple
I have read that if a homomorphism is an isomorphism then Ker phi = {e} but shouldn't it be like an iff condition instead of if
ping me if you answer Im going to turn off discord
no. the kernel of a group or ring homorphism is trivial if and only if it is injective
Oh, so no need to check onto. But, it is an iff condition instead of if
what do you mean?
You said I only have to show injective condition right, and not onto
i never said that
these two properties are equivalent for a group or ring homorphism:
- f has trivial kernel
- f is injective
Hm oh, so you meant that if f has trivial kernel that doesn't prove that f is isomorphic?
right, because it might not surject onto the target
Ok thanks
also, Im reading if G/N is cylic then G is abelian
where N is a normal subgroup of Z(G) centre of group
then shouldn't it just be all subgroups of Z(G) cause they would all be normal subgroups
What do you mean
Its set of all elements that commute with every element in G
So their element should commute with each other
I think its always abelian it has to be
So yeah, the word 'normal' is redundant in your statement. But it doesn't hurt to keep it in
alright thanks
Are group homomorphisms always linear?
Like, the maps?
I was reading up non-linear dynamics
And the additive property of linear systems reminded me of homomorphisms.
So I was wondering if there was some sort of distinction between linear and non-linear homomorphisms or if they were all of the same kind.
You are probably thinking about vector space homomorphisms rather than group homomorphisms
Ah makes sense
Anyway, the former are defined to be linear in the first place
Fair
Is there a field of work that involves the intersection of complex systems and group theory?
Like, studying some sort of algebraic complex systems? Can we do that?
What is an element of 2Z∩3Z that isn't in 2Z3Z:={elements of Z that are a finite sum of elements of the form i*j, where i is in 2Z and j in 3Z}. I ask this because I know that if I and J are ideals, IJ is not necessarily equal to I∩J, but I can't find counterexamples. Someone told me that with I=2Z and J=3Z should work.
Oh I see it now thank you
The way you can think about linear transformations is like a stronger version of homomorphism. Homomorphisms only need to protect the group structure, so for a vector space this is vector addition. A linear transformation forms at least a homomorphism between the set of vectors on the operation of addition. The linear map then has the stronger property of commuting with scalar multiplication.
An example of a group homomorphism that isn't linear is the map C → C defined by f(x + iy) = x - iy. This is an automorphism of (C, +) but it is not a linear map on the C-vector space C. It is, however, an R-linear map, so that's cool.
^conjugation
Okay so
A bit of a weird question and I'm not sure if this is the most appropriate channel
But I'm gonna try because I cannot find a better place to put it
I was wondering what addition and multiplication were in its most abstract
I got a bunch of properties, such as that multiplication has to be distributive over addition
And a lot of these ideas make perfect sense, and seem to fit in pretty much every abstraction of addition and multiplication that I can think of
Except one
The top answer here says that addition must be commutative
But ordinal addition is not commutative, but we still call it "addition"
Is there a better way to explain why this is still called "addition" even though it doesn't share the same abstract properties as all of these other abstractions of "addition"?
Or should I resign to say that this is just one of those things where
The abstraction just happens to go in two completely different directions
Both are binary associative operations. One (addition) is always taken to be commutative
People name it however they want to name it
Then why is ordinal addition called addition?
I don't think there is going to be a better answer than simply that people made the name up because they want to think of things like addition.
Same goes for the word 'number,' there is no definition.
Okay, may as well accept that, thanks
Addition usually refers to an algebraic structure
Ordinal addition refers to the adding of two well-ordered sets and equipping it with a new well-order
Sure I get that
But how does that match the other abstractions of additions
Or is it just something totally different
And do we refer to other applications of this well-ordering also as "addition"?
Other applications?
With ordinal arithmetic you are adding together different sets (disjoint union) and then equipping it with other structure
So if you want to insist on some common thread, which shouldn't exist for any good reason, then ordinal addition is about adding ordinal structure onto the addition of sets
Hmmm
Ok seems the consensus is that there isn't a common thread
In which case I can see 3 different ways to interpret add/mult:
- mult is repeated add
- abstract properties like the forementioned distribution and commutation
- with regards to linear transformations/complex numbers, add is translation, mult is rotate/dilation
Ah okay, makes sense, thanks
The third one here I guess is actually number two, as a consequence
But I made it distinct for pedagogical reasons
I guess 4th would be the well-ordering thing
Is there anything else I'm missing?
I mean, for Z/C those happen to coincide in the right spaces
The first 3
Ordinal addition still relates to to the formal addition defined before, like it isn't completely random why it's called addition
Yeah which is why I wasn't sure if it should be it's own bullet
I was thinking making it its own bullet if I made 2 and 3 distinct
To be more consistent
Maybe at this point it's better off in #math-pedagogy
Aight, let's move
how would I go about this?
What form does k have? What does tell you about its inverse?
Hi, everyone can someone recommend a book about field theory and Galois theory? I would like a book that explains the theories and their implecations(or how to use them)
Dummit and Foote
Anyone know NTT? It's related to DFT and FFT
WTF
I wish there were more acronyms so I could confuse people on the internet more easily
Anyway, I have no idea what NTT is, but the discrete and fast fourier transforms are a bit out of this channel's wheelhouse. Read channel descriptions, please.
Sure
You basically can do multiplications faster in NTT field so you do that then convert it back using Inverse NTT
I'm having trouble regarding it because my code implementation based on FIPS 203 ipd is not working as intended
Idk what channel NTT would be understood. This is the closest one because it has the "fields"
And "rings" that's often described in NTT
what is a NTT
Number Theoretic Transform. I purposely omitted the full name because you don't need to ask it if you know NTT
Sorry if that sounds a bit egotistic or something
do u know what fields are? why the quotes?
I'm just emphasizing the words in the channel name
Okay, shouldnt it just end up being essentially FFT ad verbatim as long you didnt mess up implementing your finite field
I know, but I'm missing some understanding. If my understanding is correct, this should be reversible, right? Idk if it's in my implementation or its in the FIPS 203 ipd
I based it on these algorithms published by NIST(FIPS 203 ipd)
what should be reversible
NTT(x) = y, InverseNTT(y) = x
The value you input into NTT
is the NTT code provided by NIST reversible or did they omit an algorithm step?
Did you copy the code in the pic word for word?
I'm new to NTT and would like to understand it
I tried my best. It should work, but since it's pseudocode and it's an initial public draft(ipd), I'm not sure if it's correct or I'm wrong
Have you tried using a sample set of smaller values and see if that works
what is this variable k
https://www.nayuki.io/page/number-theoretic-transform-integer-dft
This website has a NTT and Inverse NTT calculator of some sort that works
they dont seem to use it
nvm they do
https://csrc.nist.gov/pubs/fips/203/ipd
The NIST page for it
A key-encapsulation mechanism (or KEM) is a set of algorithms that, under certain conditions, can be used by two parties to establish a shared secret key over a public channel. A shared secret key that is securely established using a KEM can then be used with symmetric-key cryptographic algorithms to perform basic tasks in secure communications,...
Basically, this thing is gonna replace current encryption algorithms, so I have few places where I can search for relevant information
it's not necessarily going to replace
afaik these are all just candidate protocols
It's already implemented by Cloudflare to eventually replace all their assymmetric algorithms. Maybe one of us is using it rn without knowing
Cause it's theorized as Quantum-safe
What does it mean for a fourier transform to be quantum safe
they're talking about the whole encryption protocol being theoreized as secure against attacks by quantum computers
not just the FFT portion
I mean, the whole FIPS 203 ipd is supposed to be quantum-safe where it's also hard for quantum computers to crack the encryption. Current encryptions are vulnerable to Quantum computers
NIST started this drafting competition to protect US security
For the most part

I guess I'll go stare at math for hours. No one here seems to know NTT
What are similar elements in group called?
Let G = rubik's cube.
Then every element that is similar to F are {F,R,U,L,B,D,F',R',U',L',B',D'}.
The word I am looking for is not conjugate because F looks different from RFR'.
I know a better server that's more cryptography focused @sharp viper, send me a Discord friend request
what do you mean "similar"
can you give an example in a more standard group?
not necessarily the rubiks cube group (just because I'm not super familiar with it)
Done
Seems to me you just have the symmetry group of the cube act on the Rubik's cube group.
I don't know if there is a word for two elements in the same orbit, though something like "similar under the action" or something like that seems reasonable.
Oooo, NTT!
In mathematics, especially in the area of abstract algebra known as combinatorial group theory, Nielsen transformations, named after Jakob Nielsen, are certain automorphisms of a free group which are a non-commutative analogue of row reduction and one of the main tools used in studying free groups, (Fine, Rosenberger & Stille 1995). They were in...
Basically FFT over a finite field
Yep. You know it? 
I wrote a toy python implementation of it to understand it a bit a couple of years ago
So sort of?
Do you have it on Github?

Nooooo haha, but I'm sure some implementations exist. I probably did it in a Jupyter notebook that's long gone
I've seen and read a lot of implementations of it in code. I'm looking for more to get it to click in my head
Awwww
Do you understand FFT?
Basic understanding only
Basically isolate frequencies, right?
Yeah, but the NTT doesn't have a physical meaning like that.
It's just exploiting the fact that you can do convolutions (polynomial multiplication) faster
I haven't looked at the thing you posted above and won't have time to read that in detail for a bit
Yep! But my implementation is not reversing/inversing. According to the NIST paper I'm following, it should be inversiblr
Compute it with a small example by hand then compare with your implementation
It uses a lot of optimizations like Montgomery Reduction so everything is clouded in my head
So you can find out if it's your transform or inverse that's giving you problems
That's a great idea
Thanks!
I think I used one of those two videos to understand the FFT
This is what I used to understand the NTT
I've been staring at that page for a while, but the algorithm used in the paper I'm following is different
You'll want to know a bit about what a primitive root is. People in this channel or elementary number theory channel should be able to help with that. It's covered in Jones & Jones Elementary Number Theory
Yeah the algorithm is different in your paper as the link I shared is just textbook NTT, but the underlying concept is the same
I've managed to produce primitive roots with the help of the paper
i.e., they should give the same output for a given input
I have a document my master's supervisor wrote to help explain FFT and NTT a bit I can share with you privately if you'd like
Are you sure?
That sounds like personal stuff

Yeah, it's fine. I have the TeX source so I'll just redact names
Thank you! That will be great. Some guy posted in a blog that anyone can implement FIPS 203 without understanding NTT, but my failing code says otherwise lol
If I consider A:=Q(√6,√7) and B:=Q(√6-√7), clearly A contains B, and the dimension of B over Q is 4. But I'd say also the dimension of A over Q is four, and when I have two vector spaces with the same dimension, and one contains the other, they are equal. But they are not equal, in this example. What am I getting wrong?
Ohhh yea you are right
Thank you everything makes sense now
There is a guy on the internet that explained to me using galois theory (which i havent studied yet) that they were different, so i trusted him
Don't trust anything that guys on the internet say. They're always lying. 
So true
If (H,•) group where H is included in (0,inf) and has the properties: if x in H then 1/x in H, 2023 is in H and x•y=1/x • 1/y for every x,y in H, show that H is not an interval and (x•x)(x•1/x)=1 for every x in H.
How I can show H is not interval
is the dot just the usual multiplication of real numbers?
No, it is the operation that form a group with the set H
i see
ok first question
is 1/x different than the inverse of x respect to the operation dot
I ask because you say "if x in H then 1/x in H"
after specifying H is a group
Yes 1/x is not the inverse of x in H
in the last part is it the product of real numbers xx and x1/x?
just the actual number 1
or the product in the group
idc
fair
i think its clear what i meant
Yes 1 is the real number 1.
what have you tried for this question
It is the usual multiplication between (x dot x) and (x dot 1/x)
If H is an interval then [1/2023,2023] is included in H (I dont think 2023 is relevant for the problem).
I'm not sure how you're concluding the entire interval is in H
also just out of curiosity, is this a competition maths question
can you prove that for 2023 replaced by any integer n? any real number?
did using the "2023" give it away
lmao
2023 is in H and by the property of the group 1/2023 must be in H. Because H is an interval every element between 1/2023 and 2023 must be also in the set H.
oh
ignore my question
Yes
it's the fact that this situation would never actually come up in any real mathematics, but that didn't help either 
that would have been good to state earlier lol
nvm you did state that
I can't read
they did
I know that. But yeah.
1 dot y = 1 dot 1/y for all y
if that interval was in H
then 1 would be in H
hence you can cancel it
so y = 1/y for all y
Oh right.
:))
using the famous theorem 2023 >= 1
"x•y=1/x • 1/y" every product of distinct elements is its own inverse?
the 1/ there isn't referring to the . operator, otherwise this would be easy via summoning facts about 2-torsion
see the many clarifying questions asked above
fair
interesting problem
I have proven it is commutative 
the problem is I have no idea how the two operators interact
this isn't like a bigroup or whatever
so much like every other comp maths problem there's no reasonable approach one can be expected to take and instead you have to spot some obscure arcane trick
I bet this is a formal group law somehow
Yes. This is from Mathematical Gazette.
EH to the rescue?
couldn't have given me an easy one huh
Maybe zassenhaus lemma works 
Imaginary groups
Idk man
This type of problems are so tricky
Only basic group properties
Using this we get that 1 / (x dot y) = (1 / x) dot (1 / y) idk how helpful that is
uhhh massively? if true
what
because 1 / (x dot y) = x dot y right?
what i wrote finishes the proof
This was a contradiction
oh wait
its an immediate contradiction
yeah I'm focused on the (x.x)(x.1/x) = 1 part
basic rearranging gets me nowhere so we're going to have to start inserting x.x^-1s until it works
If e is the identity of H we have x=1/x dot 1/e = 1/e dot 1/x for every x in H
So e=1/e dot 1/e (doesnt help)
more than that, we have x = 1/x.1/x I think
what how
using this
oh wait nvm
yeah I was wrong, I have something else though
x = 1/x.1/e => x.(1/x)^-1 = e => x^-1 = (1/x)^-1
does that not prove that x = 1/x
what
x dot 1/x = x dot x dot 1/e
how did 1/e become e
also that
Yeah
Maybe agree on using some other notation for the group inverse for now, idk, bars?
I'm not latexing this
oh actually
x = (1/x).(1/e), together with e = (1/e).(1/e), implies that x^{-1} = (1/x)^{-1}
nvm
yeah
I just keep proving that x and 1/x commute lol
i think i added in the assumption 1/e=e somewhere and can delete some stuff again, how fun
who actually enjoys these sorts of questions. Seriously.
okay wait,
e = e.e = 1/e . 1/e = (1/e . e). 1/e = e . 1/e . e = 1/e?
Morse code
What problem are you doing?
.
oh. OH
let him cook chat...
wait, doesnt (1/x)^-1 =1/x^-1 follow from just e=x.x^-1=(1/x).(1/x^-1) too?
right
yes
I don't see it
Wait now I dont understand that
was this directed at me?
yes
yeah nvm that
alright buddy if you wanted me to stop contributing you don't have to be so passive aggressive about it in the future
what
I don't see how you cancel the x or the 1/x
the multiplciation does not distrubute in any manner over the .
chill out its just a math problem
that e=1/e implies x=1/x?
no, this
Are you assuming that if x in H then 1/x is also in H?
I can see that from just the starting relation
how does what i said not answer your question
it is just the cancelation
uniqueness of inverses?
you have equation a.b = e
you cancel
idk why you got so defensive about it
here a=1/x, b=1/x^{-1}
yes now cancel the first two factors on LHS
ok there we go, thank you
I try to show 1/(x.x.1/e)=x.x
If it were an interval, wouldn't it contain 1 so that y=1/y ?
OH
so what happens with e.y=1^-1 . 1. y = 1^-1 . 1/1 . 1/y = 1^-1 . 1 . 1/y?
I did it I think
oh yeah 1^-1 is the thing we haven't thought about yet
1 cannot be in H
if it was that seemingly forces 1/x=x, a contradiction since then everything must be 1
1^-1 is a bit too cursed to start the week with tbh
you lowkey solved the problem
uh
oh that's clever
sorry but the star notation was the worst choice imagineable :sob
smol dot or x with a line through it
For clarity. Let a be the inverse of 1. Then:
x=a.1.x=a.(1/1).(1/x)=a.1.(1/x)=1/x
How do you know 1 is an element of H?
ah, that was for the interval situation
it contains 1/2023 and 2023, so if it was an interval it contains 1
how do you get the 4th line (not counting the crossed out line)
I used x.y=1/x.1/y property
how does first step in the first line work
oh probably add e and then shuffle it around ig
x = x.e = 1/x . 1/e
oh and x . 1/x = 1/x . x
yeah
Now I see that the problem asks to show that there exists a group with such properties

doesnt it happen to work out with giving {2023,1/2023} the structure of Z/2Z?
What operation
call a=2023, then a.a=a, a.1/a=1/a.a=1/a and then 1/a.1/a=a.a=a
(i just put the Z2 structure on there, the law just happened to work out in the last line afaict)
yeah you can just make 2023 the identity and 1/2023 . 1/2023=2023
wondering about less boring examples
There are probably many
why isnt {0,1,5} a subgroup of <Z_6;+>? it satisfies all conditions to be a subgroup (inverse, n.e 0, closed under addition), no?
1/e is always idempotent, so it generated a subgroup iso to Z2. Furthermore we have this neat "reflection" property 1/e . a = 1/a
so kinda feels like they maybe look like G x Z2?
You just want x.y=f(x).f(y) where f is an involution
And f(x)!=x
Well this last remark is vacuous
So you can ignore it. If f(x)=x for some x then f(y)=y for all y
what is 5 + 5 (mod 6)?
Given a group, we can ask if such an f exists
Did someone prove H was abelian?
So x^{-1} f(x) is constant
It's not
Nah, I am dumb. But maybe the constant is true, my brain is not functioning
So you want an element a in the center with a^2=e
And this is the only possibility
Why are you asking?
Is it true that if $E/F$ is a finite extension then $E = F(\alpha_1, \ldots, \alpha_n)$ for some $\alpha_i$'s and $n \geq 0$?
rbmuk
Does this give a direct product Z/2Z x G ? Probably not idk
Nah
y . f(y)^{-1} = x^{-1} . f(x)
Ah so it is indeed multiplication by involutive element
Yes
Perfect thanks
But this is trivial
I wrote a proof but i was suspicious
Just keep adding elements until its the whole field right
Each time you add the degree goes up by a factor of >= 2
So has to end somewhere
The primitive element theorem is far more interesting

