#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 184 of 1
order(a) = 4
Great
So if G = Z/2Z x Z/2Z were cyclic, there would be a generator with order 4.
Now can you see why this means G is in fact not cyclic?
because we have only 0 and 1 ?
Why (0,1) is order 2 ?
OK
What does it mean to be order 2
How can we work out the order of a group element
to elaborate, if F_27 was a field extension of F_9 it would be a F_9 vector space, and thus must have order equal to a power of 9
How do we know we can construct that homomorphism?
A group G is of order n if it contains n elements
A group G is of order 2 if it contains 2 elements
OK but we're not talking about the order of a group.
We are talking about the order of the element (0, 1)
Do you know the difference?
What does it mean for an element to be of order 2?
Please don't spend ages replying. If your answer is just "I don't know" then just say it.
Let G be a group and a be an element of this group. The order of a is the smallest positive integer such that a^n = e where e is the neutral element (the identity) of the group
I don't know
OK, so what part are you struggling with? You have the definition of the order, so can you apply it?
Not to hate on Pg and his struggles, but the tenor of this conversation strongly reminds me of this.
This is so validating you have no idea
hii Boyt 
(0, 1)² = (0, 1)
Hey det
OK there's the confusion. This isn't right
The group operation on Z/2Z x Z/2Z is not multiplication!
The group operation is (a,b)(x,y) = (a+x, b+y), where + is the operation of Z/2Z.
Clear?
Ok
If (0,1)^2 = (0,1), then every element of Z/2Z x Z/2Z would be the identity, which is obviously impossible.
Now
Is it now clear why the order of (0, 1) is 2?
Time to make a cup of tea ig
To show (0,1) is order 2 , I I have to multiply it by 2 and see if that gives the neutral element (0, 0)
You have to add it to itself, yes
But 2 * (0,1) is multiplication
Sure, whatever you feel most happy with.
a,b,x,y are any elements of Z/2Z.
but 2 * (0,1) = (0, 2) not (0, 0)
OK, I give up
This is like an unravelling shirt: I've pulled a thread and the whole shirt has fallen apart.
Ok sorry
You need to do some reading in your own time, because you are missing a lot of knowledge.
Good luck studying.
You dont “multiply” it by “2”, you compute (0,1)^2 and see if its the identity
The actual operation to finish the “^2” computation depends on the group ur working in
Well from what I understood, he told me that (1,0)^2 is false
because the law is addition and not multiplication in this case
(1,0)^2 = (1+1, 0+0) = (0,0)
so (1,0) is order 2
because you can see (1,0)^2 is (0,0) which is the identity in this group
why (1, 0)^2 ? is not 2 * (1, 0) in this case ?
well why do you think its 2*(1,0)? what are u basing that on
(1,0) + (1, 0)
.
in a group there is a defined operation
one operation that is defined
so in the group we're working with, the operation is (a,b)(c,d) = (a+c, b+d)
The n • x notation is common for abelian groups.
well also (0,2) is the same as (0,0)
In fact what I didn't understand is why noted 2 * (0, 1) = (0, 2)
If 2 = 0 in Z/2Z
2 * (0, 1) = 0 * (0, 1) = (0, 0)
ok sure
telling that 2 * (0, 1) = (0, 2) in my head confuses me
yea so (0,1) has order 2
in this context (0,2) = (0,0)
ok thank you
Send x to a root of f
(I didn't include the details because I only meant it as a hint)
U study in english and in french are u Algerian ?
yo can i ask something?
if i have a group G and H and T are subgroups of G ,also i know that T is a subgroup of H ,can i apply lagranges theorem to T and H?
G is finite of course
sure, why not
T is a subgroup of H so you can just go
so i can say that |H|=k|T| right?
,tex Is there an easy trick to finding an $R[x]$-linear combination of two polynomials $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ as an expression of $\gcd(f(x),g(x))$?
cat_food_sounds
With f(x) and g(x) as elements of R[x], that is.
Nvm, remembered how to work backwards with the Euclidean Algorithm
is it true that if $E^x/K^x$ is finite, say its members are $K^x, e_1 + K^x, e_2 + K^x, \dots, e_n + K^x$, then $E = {0} \cup \bigcup_{i = 1}^n \langle e_i \rangle$?
okeyokay
this is my suspicion and i'm trying to prove it - i've already shown that each <e_i> is a proper subspace of E (since they're not a unit of K and E is a K-vector space)
This looks like a linear combination.
yeah, i'm trying to get to the suggested contradiction that E is a union of finitely many one-dimensional subspaces
does anyone know if my approach is correct/how to start on this problem?
hi can anyone help prove prove that for p(x) = x^3 - x - 1 in field Q, since p(x) is irreducible over Q, and let a be a root of p(x), then [Q(a) : Q] = 3.
I think that a little linear algebra can help. I had seen that the finite union does not necessarily generate the entire space, but its intersection does generate it. Look, that section must be in the direct addition part.
two ways to do it, rational root theorem says if it has a root it must be 1 or -1, plug and check - no linear factor, so irreducible.
Other way, reduce mod 2 and see that it's always 1 mod 2
Could someone help with proving this definition of algebraic integers?
rational root theorem says if it has a root it must be 1 or -1,, can you give a link to this theorem ?
Well <= should be straightforward, first thought for => was that if you have some polynomial with root alpha then p divides that polynomial, but that’s only in regards to p being the minimal polynomial over a field
why does p divide that otoher polynomial
oh
I should've kept reading
hmmm
no just look up 'rational root theorem'
oh I didn't even answer your original question, I was just mentioning how to prove it's irreducible but your question is already contingent on knowing it's irreducible maybe that's why I've confused you sorry
so going back to this question, use the fact that a^3=a+1 to see why every element of Q(a) can be written as x+ya+za^2
with x,y,z in Q
is it a general formula that if a is a root of an irreducible polynomial in K, then [K(a): K] = n ?
I guess we should try to prove it
Artinian (DCC on ideals) integral domains are fields
(Not to be confused with Noetherian (ACC on ideals))
why doesn't the proof stop at z in K(w)? isn't K(w) a subfield of C which is obtained from adjoining a square root, and which contains z?
H might be empty
Doesn't point number 1 imply that there has to be some element in set .
There can't be binary operation in a set if it's null set.
You can have the empty function HxH -> H
Let $n \in \mathbb{N}$ and $a,b \in G$ where (G,) is a group, show that if $ab^n = b^{n+1} * a$ and $ b * a^n = a^{n+1} * b$ then $a=b=e$
Cyrenux
Here is what i have done
is G an abelian group?
We have a group G with order p^n with p prime and n>=2 natural. G is not cyclic. Show that the number of distinct subgroups of G is at least p+3
What I tried:
Since G is a p group
The center is not trivial
So there must be an element x in G* that is in Z(G)
The subgroup <x> is normal
And if we look at G/<x> we can see it has at least p elements since the order of x is p^(n-1) at most
But the cosets of <x> are not subgroups
I mind if we can make some bijection between the cosets of <x> and subgroups
Another thing I have tried is to look at Sylow subgroups
That is not given i believe
Is this true? For n=2, G with order p^2 but not cyclic, it should have p+1 subgroups of order p. And, +2 for the trivial group and G itself, so we get p+3.
Yes
I think this theorem is related to my problem
I'm wondering how to extend the argument to n>2
Have you studied Sylow's theorem by any chance ?
Yes I know and I tried
There are at least n subgroups by sylow I
ok you know that for all $g\ne 1$, you have $g^n\ne 1$, so that every $g\ne 1$ belongs to some maximal subgroup $H_g$ meaning $\bigcup_{g\ne 1}H_g=G$. You know that $|H_g|\le p^{n-1}$, try using that to show that there are at least $p+1$ distinct subgroups $H_g$.
upheaval
Sylow isn’t relevant here, you’re working in a p group so the entire group is the sylow subgroup
Your goal is to show that any non-cyclic p-group contains Cp x Cp, as then that subgroup will itself have p+3 subgroups
yea I missread the question but indeed Sylow doesn't apply
If you’re stuck on this, then note that any non-cyclic abelian p group has to contain Cp x Cp
See if you can prove that first
Please help, stuck on all subquestions for weeks
Try proving the axioms of a group given in each subquestion.
Like think about how the existence of a left identity and left inverse imply the rest of the axioms. We don’t need to prove associativity cus it’s given by the operation.
assume g in G is idempotent, i.e g = g^2
then eg = g => hg^2 = g => hg = g => e = g
use this to show that gh is also e, and then you show that the left identity is also a right identity via bracket reshuffling on the equality g = eg = (gh)g
for a)
c implies b, those statements being true are essentially saying cancellation works
c implies a, set h = g then we have left/right identities and immediately have that xg = gx = g so the identities are two sided and equal, then set h = e to get inverses
a implies d, gx = h has a unique solution - specifically x = g^-1h
thx, but how do you talk about idempotents when you're not even given that G is a group
You only need a binary operation to define idempotents; you don't even need associativity to define them.
well if G is a group there aren't any non-trivial idempotents so I have no idea what you're getting at
ah
gh is an idempotent
so substute g with gh?
apologies, I meant hg
hg is idempotent so it's equal to e
so g = eg = (gh)g = g(hg) = ge = g
so e is a right identity as well
yes, it's up to you to show that (hg)^2 = hg, and so hg = e
the main logic here is that if you have a left/right invertible idempotent then that idempotent must be the left/right identity
(hg)^2 = hghg = h(gh)g = heg = hg
thus hg = e by the above argument (#groups-rings-fields message)
well if u like u can just avoid using idempotents
yeah if you have a cleaner solution feel free to say
this is just what popped up into my head
if hg = e, take left inverse of h, say kh = e,
how do we know k exists
oh yeah sorry I'm getting left/right backwards
as an aside I find it funny that the question after this is a very basic consequence of Lagrange's theorem, putting semigroups before even basic group theory is bizzare pedagogy and I've never been a fan of it
then gh = egh = khgh = kh = e
oh i see
I see how both work now but i was just a bit messed up with substituting stuff before
what abt Q30
hint
lagrange's theorem
i had the sense but i couldn't write it down clearly
At least this chapter didn't give theorems about how to get the "prime" or basic elements
like what $\sigma$ and $\tau$ usually is
Logic_VY
I don't see any sigmas or taus
uh
(maybe only in this book?) the write eg. $S_3 = {\epsilon, \sigma, \sigma^2, \tau, \tau\sigma, \tau\sigma^2}$
Logic_VY
Are you sure they don't mean D_6?
aren't they isomorphic?
They are I just realized that lol
on the book, it didn't mention D6 yet though
ok then sigma can be either the permutation (123) or (132) and tau is either (12), (13), or (23)
they're just elements of the group as long as you know how they multiply who cares what they are
yeah it was truly
but i got the sense of how it works but i couldn't write out a clear proof
for any a, g -> ag is a bijection G -> G
create an equivelance relationsip?
and say that the equivelance classes had same amount of elements?
cuz i thought of this idea of having like 1 x, x^2, x^3, ... as a family, and consider the disjointed families a ax ax2 ax3 ....... b bx bx2 ......
but it just felt sketchy to me
u can consider this as a particular case of (30), taking G = (Z/pZ)*
sry not familiar with this notation
Z_p \ {0} in this image
still didn't understand how to generalize, I'll try my equivalence relationship method by saying a equiv b iff there is m s.t. ax^m = b, but still thx
maybe tmr, im 6 hrs from school
I think you're onto something
clearly i can only deal with the finite case right
since like everynumber is a factor of inf?
write G = {g1, ... gn}, look at aG
I have a problem where given A and B are free groups, show that A X B doesn’t need to be a free group
This problem is difficult for me because I’m being told to observe additional properties that free groups are not required to have and those properties disprove it being a free group, but it seems like that would just make it a free group with extra properties..
the whole point of free groups is that the elements don't satisfy any more relations than they absolutely have to in order to be a group
so if a free group "has extra properties" it won't be free
to be specific, find a group without those extra properties, then the standard map from the universal property won't factor through properly
I don’t understand that last sentence
as part of forming the direct product of groups you add in relators so each generator of A commutes with each generator of B - this means the group isn't free, consider any group where none of the generators commute and see if you can go from there
Alright thank you
Since when is ${1}$ a subgroup of $(\mathbb{Q}^+, +)$?
Seagull
every group has the trivial group as a subgroup?
the group operation of Q^+ isn't addition
cause then there wouldn't be any inverses!
very strange
unless there's some secret other operation on Q^+ that has 1 as the identity that I don't know about
like some kind of commutative 1 dimensional formal group law
Q^+ is then bad notation
wait are they using "additive" to mean ABELIAN?
i think they mean like
you take Q^x and use the notation +
instead of normal multiplication
that's deranged
I think it is just Q*_{> 0} as you said
it's the strictly positive rationals under multiplication
This is weird
it has to be
it has to be for that map to be an automorphism
no, recall that we're using additive notation here
so -r is 1/r in sane world
yeah it's fucking dog water notation
I mean yeah the problem is easy now lol
take orbits under the action of Q-{0}
wait. No I still don't buy it. If t = 1/2 then theta_t most definitely maps outside of Q^+
unless it's actually this and tr does quite literally mean t times r
but then that's not an automorphism, hell it's not even a homomorphism
Q^+ = rationals under addition and 1 denotes the identity
(When reading comprehension)
(misread)
(When reading comprehension indeed)
I'm guessing they meant {0} and that it's just a typo
(Can anyone ping me if they find a way to solve this)
No
say phi_a is the conjugation by a, i.e. phi_a(g) = aga^(-1)
notice that a^n b a^(-n) is applying phi_a on the element b, n times.
and you already know what phi_a(b^n) is in terms of b. try playing with a lil ><
important question, is n any integer or any natural
it doesn't actually make a difference for my proof it just means I'll have to show why if it's true for any natural it's true for any integer
lmk when you solve it cyrenux so I can post my proof
Doesn't every collection of sets have minimal element?
Not in general no
Consider the collection of sets of the form [x, 1] where x < 1 is a real number.
For example the set of infinite subsets of N doesn't
Or more relevant to your image the set of ideals (2^n) in Z
are you using something super clever which really depends on n being a natural?
no it requires n being an integer
and tbh I've forgotten the proof completely by this point
yea would be just some messy conjugation stuff ><
i didn't pay full attention when i was thinking about it, but ig i only needed that n and n+1 are coprime and have different parities
I've been stuck on 7b) the 1st and 3rd conditions of a partition I've had little trouble with. But I'm stumped on how to show images either coincide or are disjoint
Contradiction?
Well that's likely the overall approach, yes. I'm having a hard time figuring out what I can use from my assumptions to show said contradiction
how do you prove that the solution to gx=g is same for all g though
does anyone know?
set g = x, then x^2 = x so we can use my idempotent nonsense again to show that x is the left identity, and is thus also the right identity
hi dackid 
can you really do that
it says that gx=h us solvable
doesnt that mean gh need to be constants?
I think it's quite literally the opposite
given any g and h we can find an x such that gx = h
says right here
oh right no I see what you're saying
since if i say ax=b is solvable in the a b in real
oh well I don't really care enough to try and rediscover what my logic was
it doesntt mean that xx=b is?
show that for every intersection sigma_i(B) \cap sigma_j(B) this is equivalent to showing there's a nonzero proper intersection B \cap sigma_k(B) for some k
but like ax=b is solvable in R but xx=b is not
can somebody explain to me how you would construct an angle phi/3 with ruler and compass that doesn't involve obtaining the point X (since that's the problem)?
lmao
they first tell you the problem in words, and then rephrase it in terms of being able to construct the point X from a triple of given points
... lol?
isn't trisecting an angle a thing that's famously impossible to do via ruler/compass
they're prolly gonna prove that after that paragraph?
we had that as a hw 
one may hope
oh so the problem is "Given an angle of measure phi, construct an angle of measure phi/3 with ruler and compass"
oops
LOL
how exactly does multiplying both sides by i imply that t, t' is in K?
my brain is dead
Maybe it’s related to that K = over line K
Like now t,t’ are the solution of a system of polynomials right
oh yeah, i guess that makes sense
does anybody know what it means to mark off the distance "against" the circle S?
i don't really know how to start on this problem otherwise... because i mean, aren't the points just going to be vertices of the heptagon?
and clearly 1 is such a vertex, but 1 is not equal to that complex number or any nth power for n = 1, \dots, 7?
Hey det! Long time no see 😄
anybody like Tool
A disjoint union of quotient groups? 
what is X here?
Remember, The elements of these quotient groups are cosets of the form xH_i, not the elements in these cosets.
arbitrary set
the context of the problem is a group action
okay so this is just a map from a set to a disjoint union of cosets
i think i understand what they want me to do i just have no clue wtf they mean by G/Hi disjoint union
is this just cosets of different sets
will they then be disjoint
how would you prefer to combine multiple sets into a set
you're literally just taking a bunch of cosets and taking their disjoint union as a set
maybe the confusion is
a precise definition of disjoint union
you can take disjoint unions of anything
oh wait thats it
it ignores any ambient object which spawned the constituent sets
yes
yup
and the two unions are disjoint if they dont share any cosets?
it is like by definition
..
they will indeed be disjoint
but it doesnt matter
(probably)
often people abuse this notation to mean “union of disjoint sets” but i suspect that is not happening here
ah, alright
full problem for context
the question was about 7
but 6 is relevant
i was right
How to show a non cyclic p group contains a non cyclic subgroup of order p^2
This isn't true. Perhaps you meant non-cyclic quotient group
I have this problem to show that a non cyclic p group has at least p+3 subgroups
And I want to show show there is a subgroup of order p^2 that is non cyclic
But I guess I cant
I tried using the fact that the center is not e
So there must be an element that has centraliser G
So you can do this approach by showing that the group has (Cp)^2 as a quotient group and use that every subgroup of a quotient group corresponds to a subgroup of the original group
Yes I was thinking about this
To look at quotient group and make some bijection
Between subgroups
As for how you can prove that (Cp)^2 is a quotient.
First not that ||any non-cyclic abelian p-group has (Cp)^2 as a quotient by the classification of finite abelian groups||
Then ||if G is not abelian consider G/Z(G), it's a standard argument that G/Z(G) is never cyclic.||
Then just ||iterately mod out the center until you get something abelian||
we allowed to assume finite p-group?
I think yes but in my problem the group is finite
Ok I understand if G is abelian then G is isomorphic to C_p^a1 ×...C_p^ak and k>1 because G is not cyclic
By the classification of finite abelian groups
I found that: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2377726/let-p-be-an-odd-prime-a-non-cyclic-p-group-contains-a-normal-subgroup-isomo
Can you explain why a non cyclic abelian p group has (Cp)^2 as quotient?
C_p^a1 has C_p as a quotient
C_p^a1 x C_p^a2 has C_p x C_p as a quotient
hence also any non-cyclic finite abelian
What do you mean as a quotient. That there is a quotient group C_p^a1 / C_p^b isomorphic with C_p?
yea if C_p^a1 is generated by g, then <g>/<g^p> is iso to C_p
quotient by some normal subgroup
but since abelian, every subgroup is normal
Can you explain this
I would appreciate
I study group theory for a month and I want to understand every step
basically if G1, G2 are groups N1, N2 respectively normal subgruops, then
(G1 x G2)/(N1 x N2) is iso to (G1/N1) x (G2/N2)
so, (G1/N1) x (G2/N2) is a quotient of G1 x G2
(did that make sense? >.<)
yea more or less
Define the map G1 x G2 --> (G1/N1) x (G2/N2)
clearly surjecctive, easy to see N1 x N2 is the kernel
Can I say that by using sylow theorem? If a1=1 the normal subgroup is C_p^a1. If a1>1 by sylow there is a subgroup of order p^(a1-1) and that subgroup is normal because C_p^a1 is abelian
yea sure
Can you explain this
okie lemme just say it directly lol
you have C_p^a1 x ... x C_p^an
wehre n >= 2
look at the subgroup N1 x N2 x ... Nn where
N1 = C_p^{a1-1}, N2 = C_p^{a2-1} the unique subgroups of those orders
and other N_i = C_p^a_i
the quotient is then iso to C_p x C_p
What this means: " mod out the center"
To take G/Z(G) where Z(G) is the center
So now G/Z(G) is a non cyclic p group
Exactly
And now induction
?
To take the case when G/Z(G) is abelian or not and if is not abelian take Z(G/Z(G))
And so on?
Yes, G/Z(G) is a smaller group so you can just do induction
Let's say G_(i+1)/Z(G_(i+1)) is abelian and is not cyclic and also is a p group. We know there is N a normal subgroup of G_(i+1)/Z(G_(i+1)) s.t. (G_(i+1)/Z(G_(i+1)))/N is isomorphic to Cp×Cp. So now Cp×Cp corresponds to a subgroup N_(i+1) of G_(i)/Z(G_(i)). But N(i+1) correpsonds to a subgroup N_(i) of G_(i) right? So Cp×Cp corresponds to N_(i)
Hey sanity check. A principal ideal of a unit x of a ring R is the entire ring xR=R right?
Yes, you still have your sanity intact
That last line is a little confusing
Lattice isomorphism theorem says there is a bijection between subgroups of G containing N and subgroups of G/N, so in a sense there is a correspondence but there is not an isomorphic copy of C_p x C_p in G from just that
Yep. since x is a unit there is some $y=x^{-1}$ in $R$, and $yR \subseteq R\implies xyR = R \subseteq xR$. And $R\subseteq xR \subseteq R$ means it's the entire ring.
nHail
in specifying a group presentation for $\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}$, we write $\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z} = \langle x, y \mid xy = yx \rangle$. why do we not have $x$ as $(1, 0)$ and $y$ as $(0, 1)$ if those are the generators of $\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}$?
okeyokay
what do you mean we don't have x as (1, 0) and y as (0, 1) @white oxide
like is there any reason in group presentations
they don't specify the generators
they just write x and y
the generators are x and y
I mean technically those are two different (but isomorphic) groups
presentations are nice compact ways of carrying around groups and their generators and relations
they're isomorphic groups, but not equal as sets
i see, so when we have equality it's really isomorphism
yea
Z x Z is pairs of integers
<x, y | xy = yx> are words of x's and y's
but yea, isomorphism
ok cool, thanks
ok wait I'm dumb, so I'm trying to verify that $\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z} \simeq F(S)/N$, where $F(S)$ is the free group on ${x, y}$, and $N$ is the smallest normal subgroup that contains each element of $R$, where $R$ is the commutator $xyx^{-1}y^{-1}$. intuitively, I know that $N$ looks like the set of all commutators of $S$ (at least I think?) but why is this the case? won't $N$ just be the set of all powers of $xyx^{-1}y^{-1}$ since $x$ and $y$ are generators?
okeyokay
S_3 and D_6 are isomorphic, but the things they represent are different enough that nobody would really call them the same group.
is this true though or am I high
that the smallest normal subgroup of F(S) containing xyx^{-1}y^{-1} is the subgroup generated by it
I would call them the same group
If someone in the definition of the 3x3 determinant iterated over all of D_6 rather than S_3 I'd have a stroke reading that
S_3 and D_6 are isomorphic, but the things they represent are different enough that only a set of people of measure zero would really call them the same group.
I mean S3 is the permutation group of three points, while D3 is the permutation group of three points that preserve their distance.
I think it's pretty natural to think of Dn as a subgroup of Sn in this way, in which case D3 = S3.
Okay sure it's maybe more natural to think of a group presented in one manner over another in a specific context, that doesn't mean they're not the same (up to iso or w/e)
Is it the case that for any ring R. When I view R as an ideal of itself R then R is the unit ideal?
So for instance with the integers Z I'm pretty sure if you take the 2Z multiples of 2 and the 3Z multiples of 3 then ideal product 6Z is the multiples of 6.
On the other hand the ideal product of Z and 3Z is just 3Z for example. So is it fine to call Z the unit ideal and further any ring R is the unit ideal amongst it's ideal with respect to ideal products?
(1) = R, yes.
And indeed if you take the product of R and any other ideal, you get that other ideal.
We wouldn't really call it ‘the unit ideal’ though, that's certainly not a name I've heard.
Indeed if you see the set of ideals as a monoid under ideal multiplication, it would be the identity, but it's not particularly helpful to recall this fact.
I see people more often just call it ‘the whole ring’
yea, but it's sometimes nicer if the word ends with "ideal"
you could say it would be...
zero ideal, unit ideal, etc
I'm pretty sure anyone with any reasonable knowledge of algebra equates "isomorphic" with "the same". So pretty much everyone would consider these to be the same group
same is isomorphic to isomorphic 
like even using the action argument, it's obvious that any permutation of 3 elements preserves the triangle between them
I guess. They're the same as groups, but if you put D_6 in a context where S_3 makes more sense it will look weird
They have different connotations
Hence this. They're still "the same", but it's two different ways of thinking about the same thing
Every vector space looks like a direct sum of your field. Doesn't mean we only ever work with that description of vector spaces
I think you need to consider higher homtopical data for this, honestly
Non-naturally/non-canonically isomorphic breaks this slightly, in my opinion
based
Let $(G, \star)$ be a group and $(N, \star)$ one of its normal subgroups. Show that G/N is abelian iff N contains the commutator subgroup $K(G)={a\star b \star a' \star b'| a,b \in G }$ I showed that if G/N is abelian, N contains the commutator subgroup. But i'm not sure how the second step
Plazzi
Hint: a group is Abelian iff its commutator subgroup is trivial. What do normal subgroups of a quotient look like?
$a \star N$, but if G/N is abelian, that doesn't mean that G is abelian aswell or am i wrong?
Plazzi
Sorry, im bit lost here how does the abelian group is helping me?
It's a hint so I will not just reveal the answer.
You may know the second part of the hint as the correspondence theorem
Normal subgroups of G/N correspond to what in G?
What is the correspondence theorem?
this is really neat lol i never thought about $R[t] = \oplus_i t^i R$
anamono
I've never seen that notation
This description is more common when you want to start learning about graded rings in general
Not the most useful description outside that context as far as I know
Hey I'm confused about rings of quotients. If I have the rationals Q then m/n=p/q iff mq-pn=0. Q is the localization of the integral domain Z by the nonzero elements Z \0.
For general localizations of rings $S^-1 R$ I think the equivalence relation is that m/n=p/q iff there exists t in S such that t(mq-pn)=0.
I think if R is an integral domains then you don't need the t for the relation. But why exactly do you need the t generally if R isn't an integral domains?
HausdorffT1
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
For some reason lang seems to like this term
is the stuff in red a typo? (hypotheses of 2.16 is that S is a central multiplicative set in a (not nec. commutative) ring R, M and N are finitely presented)
should it be f \in p instead of f \nin p?
also, here P is a finitely generated projective module
That looks like #algebraic-geometry, definitely not #groups-rings-fields level.
Also I have no clue what a central multiplicative set is
it's from Serre's Conjecture on Projective Modules by Ty Lam :(
i assume it's just a multiplicative subset in the center of the ring
but ok i will ask in alg geo
Spec sounds like alg geo, but at least #advanced-algebra.
I've seen it a lot in older papers
I think it's somewhat common in commutative algebra in general
would appreciate some help with this. very stuck
if k=gh, then k^-1 = h^-1g^-1
I don't get what a the cdot means for operations on the left, would someone explain please ?
(what i mean by there is, does it represent just a normal product ?)
group action mb
Then it's the group action operation
Field extensions F/K have the same identity id_F=Id_K
I used that fields have no zero divisors. Is the corresponding statement for rings and subrings true? Any obvious counterexamples?
is this multiplicative or additive identity
Multiplicative identity
additive identity - a subring is an additive subgroup of a ring so it's obvious from that
does the same statement hold true for monoids? Idempotents could mess with this
lemme think
Cause x(id_F-id_K)=0. Yeah I'm not sure. I was hoping there was an obvious counter examples lol
I think it follows from the definition of a subring but that's really boring
like by definition the multiplicative structure of a subring is a submonoid with the same identity which sucks but it is the answer
a far more interesting question is if for an arbitrary submonoid of a monoid does it have to have the same identity, which I'm not so sure about.
Oh woops I didn't realize that okay thank you!
nah, even this has to be by definition - if it wasn't the case we wouldn't have an inclusion map from the submonoid back into the main monoid (monoid maps have to preserve the identity) which seems like a very stinky thing (mainly, they wouldn't be subobjects categorically speaking)
Any idea of how i can solve this?
its bugged it should say in A_n in a)
for n>=5
Wait I'm confused. I was looking in hungerford and he mentioned a theorem that the identity of a monoid is unique but he never talks about submonoids specifically unless I missed it.
But there is an example on wiki of the ring of 2x2 matrices over R with the subring of constant 2x2 matrices whose multiplicative identity is the 2x2 matrix consisting of 1/2
oh good example. Take a ring R as a subring of RxR, the identity of RxR is (1,1) but R also has the identity (1,0)
but I'm not sure if (Rx0, +, *, (0,0), (1,0)) counts as a subring of (R, +, *, (0,0), (1,1)) due to these issues
this must have been why the idea that idempotents would mess with things came up into my head earlier, if e is an idempotent of a ring R then eR is an ideal of R but acts like a subring with identity e (assuming R is commutative)
Nice new pfp btw wew
Maybe it's worth talking about unital vs non-unital subrings and homomorphisms. Often when we talk about subrings we specifically want them to share the same unit, but as Wew alluded to there are also very important cases where they don't. These latter ones are 'non-unital' subrings. The same goes for ring homomorphisms – by default people tend to require them to preserve the unit, but they don't have to.
What's like a general strategy for this kind of problems especially for the 9
I got so many pictures of these guys it's unreal
they're everywhere
kind of tedious
ok so we agree that we know Z(sqrt(2)) is an integral domain, so we just need to show the Euclidean part
so you need to check
1: The norm of Q(sqrt(2)) works for Z(sqrt(2))
2: (which will suck, ngl) you need to do the Division algorithm
Spamakin🎷
so it's straight forward but annoying
Hey I came across this def of an opposite ring Rop where the underlying set is the same set as a given ring R but the operation is done in a different order.
For something commutative this ring Rop is isomorphic to R right?
yep.
Generally there's a geometric strategy by looking at what the maximum distance between any two points in the fundamental mesh of the lattice
Easy exercise to prove this
i tried asking there no one answered
so you thought the algebra channel would be better??
it said fields
and the class i have for this is numerical analysis with the current subject being linear algebra
so yes
how exactly does this imply that $h$ is unique? is it because if we tried it with another homomorphism sharing the same property, say k, then we would get $k_{\alpha_1}(x_1)\dots k_{\alpha_n}(x_n) = h_{\alpha_1}(x_1) \dots h_{\alpha_n}(x_n)$, and then we could just cancel elements from both sides or smt
okeyokay
Cause what h is is forced by that
The condition is necessary, but also totally determines h
wdym
how exactly is this well-defined? can't words have multiple representations?
Did you prove that every word has a unique reduced representation?
Cause then there should be no issue
No, but they proved it afterwards basically
Hmmm
I mean you can just note that if you have a different representation for the same word then it must just have some x*x^{-1} term inside or something along those lines
But then $\phi (w)$ is the same either way
colejagdtiger
ye sorry i mean that they showed that phi(w) is the same regardless if it's reduced or not
but yea beforehand i was a bit worried it wasn't well-defined lol
anyways thx for the help
Is the underlined isomorphism true also true when i=0? i might be abusing notation, but i consider m\textasciicircum 0 = B. so i am wondering if the following is true:
$B_\mathfrak{m} / \mathfrak{m}_\mathfrak{m} \cong B / \mathfrak{m}$
and how would I see that, if it is true?
reking
Hi
I find rings of polynomials problems difficult
Any tips where I can find some problems some results, some techniques
yep that's true :3
It is true but the rest of the calculation isn't since when i=0 this isomorphism is equal to k
you can be tiny bit more general, A_p/pA_p = Frac(A/p)
pA_p is what i'd write as p_p right
why so? it will have constant and linear terms, so 2 dim right?
yep
there are no terms with just x
B/m is isomorphic to k
its x^2, x^3, x^4 ...
ah oops, i didnd't read definition of B >.<
:P
It's alright :3 :3
ig my bad, it couldn't have been both k^2 and a maximal ideal ><
so this is what you should prove, if A --> B is a map of rings, and S is a multiplicative subset in A
then you can localize B as an A-module, but also localize it at the image T of S. both these are iso, i.e. S^-1B = T^-1B
in particular A_p/pA_p = (A/p)_p = invert non-zero things in A/p = Frac(A/p)
first = is by exactness of _p
and image of A\p under A --> A/p is non-zero stuff

why does n_q have to divide p?
that's part of sylow theorems
don't remember if it was 2 or 3, prolly 3
n_q = 1 mod q and divides order of G
but since it's 1 mod q, it is coprime to q and hence divides |G|/q^whatever
so in this case it divides |G|/q = p
?
ah right n_q is the index of a subgroup so it must divide |G|
yep
thanks for the help

what exactly does this mean? all i know is that (A/p)_p is isomorphic as an A-module to A/p ⊗ A_p
so you have an exact sequence
0 --> p --> A --> A/p --> 0
if you localize at p, aka tensor by A_p, as this is exact
you get
0 --> pA_p --> A_p --> (A/p)_p --> 0
so A_p/pA_p = (A/p)_p
proving S^-1B = T^-1B is just some universal property stuff
you can be explicit and construct maps in both direction by hand
but yea, the bijection corresponds b/s with b/t where t is the image of s in A --> B
(you only need right exactness here if you haven't proven that localizations are exact)
thats handy ,thanks! i can use exactness. i dont want to get explicit if i can avoid it
but yea, it reduces the work to this.
(det no have anything better to say than "pick any book >.<")
I mean like a pdf where I can find online
Find the name of any commutative algebra textbook, then search that name and type:pdf on google
Idk, Lang might be good
Thx
how does the preceding paragraph imply that the separable degree is 1?
because isn't [k(a): k]_s the number of extensions of the embedding of k into K^a to an embedding of k(a) over k
does it just show that the only extension is the trivial one?
sigma leaving a fixed => sigma (regarded as an extension to K) also leaves k(a) fixed
Hey guys, for Q4, i dont really get why hes saying Z3[i]
Is the point here, that the field Z3[x] \ <x^2+1> isomorphic to Z3[i] so he just wrote that?
And Z3[i] is a+bi with a and b in Z3?
cause i^2 = -1, so you're appending an element that squares to 1
but yes, this is correct
Oh i see cause for the other field u get that x^2+1 = 0 mod (..) so then x^2 = -1
So u joined an element that has a square of -1 but is 1 in Z3
So thats like joining i
Also elements in that are a+bx but thats the same as a+bi so yea
yur
Dats kinda neat
i enjoyed groups more than this stuff so far
it prob gets more interesting later
its kinda neat having all these different constructions for the same ideas
If someone helps me out I’ll say that I’m grateful for u at tonight’s feast
Given an ideal I in a ring R, A an R module, and S a subset of the R module A then there is a construction in hungerford
IS is a submodule of A consisting of linear combinations of elements from the subset S with coefficients from the ideal I, with respect to the ring R. I can't find a good example of this. I tried to imagine subspaces of R^3 but ran into a problem because I don't think fields like R have a lot of proper ideals
Is there a lattice subspace of R^3 that you can make with this type of submodule construction?
Take the Z-module R³ and S the generators of the lattice
Z-modules is itself a pretty nice case: since I ideal of Z is necessarily principal, we can make IS in two steps by first scaling everything in S by the generator of the ideal, and then taking the submodule generated by the scaled S.
(But then again, "just pretend the arbitrary ideal is principal" is often good enough for rough mental images).
Ah okay so you need to start off with R^3 with a Z module structure. Then this construction works thanks!
Okay
(groups get annoying and weird quickly)
how do we know that K is separable?
could you share the name of the book or something
Hi ,can someone tell from which book I start Field theory?
how we know it depends on what has been covered thus far in the book
Lang's algebra
yeah i assumed so but couldn't find it aha
🙇
ye this is the first section on galois theory i believe
i love lang's writing so much omg
depends on how much experience you have i guess, since field theory usually leads to galois theory lol
if you're first learning i learned from fraleigh which was very very good
albeit very wordy but it's very helpful when you're first learnin git
if it's your second time then I would recommend Lang
he has a very elegant writing style
so i guess the way i would do it is that we can write E = k(a_1,...,a_n) for some separable a_i. Then K is just the splitting field of the product of the min polys of the a_i
and those min polys are separable, so the splitting field K is separable
or i guess more concisely: K is generated by the a_i and their conjugates, and all of these are separable
oh right yeah, i forgot that Lang actually made it explicit earlier
and then he talks about conjugates on the next page yea
How are you supposed to interpret that this construction IS works if R3 is a Z mod but it doesn't if it's an R mod? Are the lattices inside R3 capturing the integer structure or something like that? This feels like we're calling the lattices invariant subspaces of some specific endomorphisms that arise from the z mod structure of R3
Oh thanks
Is Ring of Fractions is subring of Field of Fractions?
i don't know what you mean by that
you do have every integral domain embedded in its field of fractions tho
Albeit?
although
hmm i haven't heard of that but i would assume that it's similar to the construction of the field of fractions, just leaving out inverses or smt, but honestly i'm not in a position to answer
someone smarter than me here can tho lol, you might wanna post theorem 15 as well
Oh
so theorem 4.5 states that separable extensions form a distinguished class. how would you go about showing that the compositum is separable using theorem 4.5 and induction? i'm assuming you would use (2), but that would require showing that sigma_i(E) is separable over k for all i; does this just work since it's isomorphic to E lmfaoo
It still works, but as you pointed out yourself, the I doesn't really do anything in that case, since it's either all of R or {0}.
this is a proof that there is a unqiue action on the inclusion map such that the inclusion map Orb_G(x) -> X is G-equivariant
not complete yet I have to show uniqueness. But I am a little lost on how to start.
Is there a way we can say that the orbits under different actions are related?
If $K/k$ is separable and $\lambda: K \to \lambda K$ is an isomorphism, how would you go about showing that $\lambda K/\lambda k$ is separable? i was thinking about doing some shit like setting up a bijection $\tau \mapsto \tau \circ \lambda$ between the embeddings of $K$ over $k$ and $\lambda K$ over $\lambda k$, but I'm sure there's something much easier
okeyturkay
nvm that doesn't even make sense
oh wait i'm dumb i can just use the fact that every element in K is separable over k lmfao
Yea...
Undergraduate Algebra Lang review anyone?
yes
hmm
this is because of undergrad role tho
How do I show e) is not a field?
you could try to multiply or divide two elements
Why do we care about normal subgroups and conjugates? Artin just defined them basically with no motivation
Conjugation is a great way to understand the structure of a group as a whole. Normal subgroups are what allow us to look at quotients of groups, which may at first seem mysterious, but again are a very powerful way of analysing the structure of a group.
An example of a thing you can prove with a couple of simple arguments involving conjugacy and quotients: every group of prime-squared order is Abelian.
I guess I'll understand more when I get to the quotient section haha, thanks for the answer
Have you seen group homomorphisms yet? Normal subgroups are exactly the subsets of a group that can be the kernel of a homomorphism. This is an important tool for understanding how homomorphisms from a given group can behave.
I have a problem
We have K a finite field. Show that 1+1=0 iff for every polynomial f in K[x] with degf>=1, f(x^2) is reductible in K[x].
|| Use char property I think||
Here x^2 matter?
Of course
I think yes? Even power?
I tried to say smth like this if f(x^2)=g(x) is irreductible then g(x+1) is irreductible
And somehow to use the char
The fact that K is finite
Means K* is cyclic maybe this helps?
To see the coefficients as powers of generator
Idk why K is finite
K has 2^t elements if t is even then there is an element in K* with order 3 maybe this helps?
I think if you take g(x+1) is irreducible then g(x) is irreducible
Isn't this a property?
Yeah it's property
f(x) irreductible iff f(ax+b) irreductible with a≠0
I do not know about iff
May be you are right
Oh thanks
Book?
Is not a book, only a pdf with 2 pages
Okay
For "if": x²+1 is reducible, and if -1 != 1 is different that means K contains i of multiplicative order 4.
Since K contains i, now x²-i is reducible, giving an element of multiplicative order 8.
Continue this to find elements of arbitrarily large multiplicative order.
Oh so here we get a contradiction because we can generate elements in K with 2^t order for every t>=1
Thanks
From which book you find this question?
But for the first case when we need to show that every polynomial f(x^2) is reductible?
It is from a contest from Romania
Oh
Or expressed more slickly: since x^2-a is reducible, every element has a square root. But if 1 is not -1 , that means every nonzero element has two square roots, and then there are twice as many elements as there are...
Which one?
On the other hand, in a char 2 field, an element can have at most one square root; if it is finite, every element must have at least one square root too.
Now the square of a polynomial is made by squaring the coefficients and doubling the exponents, since the cross terms cancel out in char 2. So a polynomial with only even-degree terms can be square rooted by reversing this.
Im trying to remember the Z mod nZ automorphism. In the quotient if you had a representative [x] in Z/nZ then if (x,n)=1 the representative is relatively prime it follows x has an inverse since the gcd is spanned x and n. rx+sn=1 then taking mod n; 1= rx mod n. Now I know multiplication by numbers relatively prime to n have an inverse. In fact, by having inverses it's clear multiplication by a relatively prime p; (p,n)=1 is an automorphism of Z/nZ since it has an inverse.
I think these are all the automorphisms of Z. Is there some obvious issue if f:1->m with (m,n) not 1 so they aren't relatively prime. How can I tell this wouldn't be an automorphism. Is it something simple like looking at the order?
If $f \colon 1 \to m$, say $\gcd(m, n) = g$, notice that $f(i) = gi$ and is always a multiple of $g$
Sig
thus, it is not an automorphism since the elements that are not a multiple of $g$ do not have an inverse
Sig
Did you mean f(g)=mg? Sorry I'm still not following why something doesn't have an inverse if it's not relatively prime to n.
I think in Z/6Z I can see that the powers of [4] will always be a multiple of 2. I just can't pin point what the issue is exactly. I think if I divide any multiple of 2 by 6 I can't get 1 as a remainder
ahh yeah
i meant $f(k) = mk \in (g)$, where $(g)$ is the subgroup generated by the element $g$
Sig
this subgroup does not contain 1
Ah okay! That's interesting. I guess that is enough to say it's not invertible
If I'm reading the initial post right, this is about automorphisms of Z/nZ, not of Z or subgroups thereor.
When it says “what is its multiplicative group”, what am i really supposed to say?
I wrote down the multiplication table, its an abelian group of order 9
I mean what else am i supposed to do?
The group of order 9 is the additive group.
What?
I think you've written down an addition table rather than a multiplication table.
Hm
Since 0 is not an element of the multiplicative group, there should be only 8 elements.
Ohhh ok wait wait
Oh yea of course thats not a group table lol what am i thinking
So a field is an abelian group under addition and an abelian group under multiplication but without 0 (additive inverse)
Yes, but you mean additive identity in the last parenthesis.
O yes
So in previous questions it asked for the + and x table for the field
So that one i included 0 cuz its not talking about the group structure
So for this question then , its askinf what is its multiplicative group, which one is it talking about? The one with 8 or 9 elements?
"Multiplicative group" means "the group whose operation is the multiplication of the field", so that's the one with 8 elements.
Yes, well done. Noticing that is the point of the exercise!
So the answer is that the multiplicative group "is" (that is, "is isomorphic to") the cyclic group with 8 elements.
There's a general theorem saying that the multiplicative group of a finite field is always cyclic.
Yes i was thinking hmm maybe there is some theorem involved here haha
Thats neat
For 5, that notation for the field is the “smallest” field that contains Q and the golden ratio right?
Thats what it means?
non-standard to use square brackets for that but yes
Actually the notation is for "smallest ring that containd Q and the golden ratio", but that ring just happens to be a field in this case.
Ok, and technically to show that that field is in fact of the form a+bq we need to show right?
I dont think the question cares to do that but
The elements of the field are each of the form a+b·phi with a,b in Q.
Yea thats what i meant to say
But im asking technically we should prove that instead of just taking it as given?
Yeah, that would probably be instructive.
Ok yeah
Although i dont think question cares
I mean, multiplication “rule” is just multiplying them out like normal isnt it?
Nothing reallt fancy
U gotta reduce phi^2 to something with phi i guess
Source?
Yes, exactly.
My homework lol
Oh
And I think the exercise author has simply forgotten to ask you to prove that the reciprocal of an a+b·phi also has this form.
Prof just made up question
Yeah, like we arent really doing the full justifying that its a field right
Kinda just taking it as given that it works
Besides showing multiplication works
Addition and subtraction are so easy that it makes sense to omit them. Associative, commutative and distributive laws you simply inherit from R. So all that's really missing is reciprocals.
I see
Makes sense
Showing reciprocals are in the field automatically implies “division” makes sense etc
Yes.
Cool
how do you pronounce sylow
si-low or see-low depending on how I'm feeling
I would have said /saylow/ but the prof. says /se:low/
silly-o
Hall p-subgroups
sy:lɔv apparently
It’s like see-lahv isn’t it?
Isn't y like ü from Mandarin 
Or tu from french
It's like you make the ee-sound with your mouth, but then round your lips
The sound is not used in English as far as I'm aware
I've always found this weird
What is this

I have never associated [y] with ee until recently
How you pronounce y in Norwegian
But it works somehow
That’s cool
As in the name Sylow
You saw nothing
It’s not S-ayyy-low?
No
Weering of the topic of math, but Dr Lindsey has a great video on vowels
https://youtu.be/FdldD0-kEcc?si=CqCTBNKtJiGKatiH
To try everything Brilliant has to offer—free—for a full 30 days, visit http://brilliant.org/DrGeoffLindsey/. The first 200 of you will get 20% off Brilliant’s annual premium subscription.
0:00 Vowels are not discrete
1:50 Vowels and colour
3:40 Resonating cavities and formants
5:40 Synthesizing vowels with Praat Vowel Editor
6:33 Vowels and ba...
Let $A$ be a ring and $I \subset A$ a maximal ideal. Prove that $A/I$ is a field.
Proof: Consider $A$ as apartition of cosets: $A=\bigcup_{i\in \Gamma} a_i + I$. If $A/I$ is not a field then there exists $i \in \Gamma$ such that $a_ia \notin 1+I$ for all $a \in A$. This however means that $A\setminus (1+I)$ is an ideal in $A$, a contradiction.
Seagull
Is this correct?
You have the right idea, but A\(1+I) won't be an ideal. It should be something like (ai) being an ideal in A/I
where did they use the fact that F is normal over k? is it just that F is separable over k, and it being normal by assumption implies that we're allowed to consider the Galois group of F over k?
If F isn't normal, then the restriction of sigma to F, might not be an automorphism of F.
$if k \subset F$ and $F \subset E$ are normal, then it doesn't follow that $E/k$ is normal right
okeyokay
or rather it's not necessary
oh nvm, so to show that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{a_1}, \dots, \sqrt{a_n})$ is normal over $\mathbb{Q}$ where each $a_i$ is a square free integer and $|a_i| \neq 1$ for all $i$, we can just say that it's the splitting field for the family of polynomials ${x^2 - a_i}$
okeyokay
would this be an acceptable proof for the first part?
you don't have to say a lot about separability, as you're working over char 0. the hardest part in this is to show that degree [Q(sqrt{a_1}, ..., sqrt{a_i}) : Q(sqrt{a_1}, ..., sqrt{a_{i-1}})] = 2 and not 1.
it's not clear directly why irred(sqrt(a_n}, K') = x^2 - a_n
hmm, so are you saying that this is the hardest part in showing separability?
yeah to be honest i kinda hand-wove that, i'll def return to it tho
nah, separability is automatic, if F/k is algebraic and char 0, then it is separable.
hmm, so what would be the purpose of showing that the degree is 2 then over each step of the tower?
that will be required to compute the galois group
if my argument that it's normal is fine
oh yeah that makes sense, i also used that in my argument implicitly
normality follows like you say by looking at the splitting field of product of (x^2 - a_i)
ok thanks! i'll go back and revise that
How do i show that for any two n-th primitive roots of
unity $\omega_1, \omega_2$, there exists an automorphism
$\sigma$ of $\mathbb{Q}(\omega_1)$ which sends $\omega_1$
to $\omega_2$?
elgato
hint: automorphisms send roots of irreducible polynomials to conjugates
have you proven that minimal polynomial of these omega_i over Q is the nth cyclotomic polynomial?
it's essentially equivalent to that
I find it funny that every statement about left cosets ends with "and similarly for right cosets"
when do we use the right ones
smh
actually i'm suppose to use this to conclude that n-th cyclotomic polynomial is irreducible over Q
yee thought so much
A right coset of G is a left coset of G^op, so practically never
basically the only time you'd need to think about these differently is when you have like
double cosets
do it in steps, instead of proving for an arbitrary omega_2, reduce it to proving when omega_2 = omega_1^p where p is a prime not dividing n.
i.e things of the form HgK
every team I read ^op I read it like gangnam style, when does this end

then you'll need to exploit this prime p a lot. this is a little tricky, but pretty neat.
When talking about 2 separate actions of the same group on the same set, how do you distinguish them?
give the actions name
like alpha and beta
so \beta_g and \alpha_g are different
one nice case is when one of the actions is a right action and another a left action
in which case this isnt an issue
Yeah, but then what? Do I just have to use $\alpha(g, x)$ instead of $g\cdot x$?
nHail
JohnDS
but doednt matter
nHail
sure that works too
the difference between G x X -> X and G -> (X -> X)
yep for me an action is a homo G-> Aut(X)
An action is also a functor BG --> Set
and a G-equivariant map is a natural transform
The argument goes like this,
||Let f, g in Z[x] be the (monic) minimal polynomials of omega_1 and omega_2, by assumption g(omega_1^p) = 0. Therefore the polynomial g(x^p) has omega_1 as a root, so we can write g(x^p) = f(x) * h(x) inside Z[x]. Look at this equation mod p.||
||In F_p[x], g(x^p) = g(x)^p = f(x) * h(x). So, f and g have a common non-trivial (irreducible) factor in F_p[x]. If f(omega_2) was not zero, then f(x) * g(x) divides (x^n - 1) in Z[x]. If we look at this in F_p[x], we see that x^n-1 has repeated roots (because of the common factor between f and g). But that can't be true as x^n-1 is separable over F_p (its derivative is nx^(n-1) which is coprime to (x^n-1) as p didn't divide n). ||
||Thus, f(omega_2) is also zero and f = g. In particular Q(omega_1) and Q(omega_2) are both isomorphic to Q[x]/(f) hence there is an automorphism of Q(omega_1) sending omega_1 to omega_2.||
Really appreciate it! But first i'd just take the original hint and see how far i can get!
det sleepy >.<
go eep det 
based frieren is great
how does one get an G-isomorphism between X and G/H given that G acts transitively on X?
H here being the stabalizer?
you're doing this last minute too? lmk when you get to 1.7
are you guys in the same class lmao
yeah
In Z[x] , we have to prove (2) intersection (x) = (2x) ... so can I use here co-maximal property?
is every abelian group given by a unital ring structure
wdym given, like is the addition of some ring?
mhm
I think I recall seeing you can't put a multiplication on the Klein 4 group, maybe check that one
Maybe I'm thinking you can't give that one addition
f.g. abelian group is easy by structure theorem
just show it directly. if you have something that looks like 2p(x) = xr(x) then r(x) is divisible by 2 (why?)
Q/Z supposedly
This question claims it's well known lol https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3075364
2 and x are relatively prime
right
But I have a doubt
In Chinese Remainder Theorem we take (m)(n)=(mn) is it both are same?
In general?
For Q/Z,
say the unit is p/q≠0, then rq = 0 for any r, so q/(q+1) = 0
could you add some more context
Yes
If I =(a) and J=(b) then IJ=(ab)?
Yes if commutative





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