#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 173 of 1
if you want it to be in the extension you need to seperatly add v1^2 to the basis
the basis dont interact with each other or itself
$v_1^2$ is absolutely in $K(v_1,\ldots,v_{n-1})$
ShiN
i'm not taking a span here
yes
this is notation for the field generated by these elements
but that means v1^2 is also part of the basis
if its not then its generated by some other linear combination of basis
but you cant say v1 x v1 =v1^2 so therefore v1^2 is in the ring
remember the field extension is just a vector space
that's not a basis, it's linearly dependent, 1+w+w^2=0
yes you can!!
it's a vector space, but it's also a field...
no

i know what group ring field vector spaces are
i mean i know what an algebra is but ive never done anything with it
a field extension $L/K$ is also a $K$-algebra naturally, so thereiis an internal notion of multiplication. In particular, if $v_1,\ldots,v_n$ is a basis of $L/K$ as a vector space, this does not contradict the fact that $v_1^2\in L$, simply because multiplication is defined
ShiN
I am not sure what you are talking about
anyways, you can always find a basis element that if you exclude, the degree goes down, and conclude by degree considerations
ok idk what you mean but in linear algebra basis dont interact with each other or itself and the same is true in field extensions
they dont
you have multiplication which interacts with the vector space structure
its a matter of definition not a big deal
reread the definition
its important for defining the degree of an extension
kevin, I think you need to review the definition of an algebra over a field
wait til you learn what channel you're in
I think this should be an example, take the degree 2 extension {1, sqrt(2)} then remove sqrt(2), now you can't generate sqrt(2)
For posterity: I am assuming $L/K$ is seprable, so I can choose the basis to be powers of a primitive element, then I can just choose e.g. the square of the primitive element
ShiN
or sorry, I want to remove the primitive element itself
i.e. if $L=K(a)$ then $a\notin K(a^2,a^3,\ldots,a^{n-1})$
ShiN
ok consider
Q(cbrt(2))
it is deg 3 extension
meaning it has basis of size 3
and 1,cbrt3 isnt a basis since cbrt9 isnt in Q[1,cbrt3]
the basis is 1,cbrt3,cbrt9
uhh, it is
cbrt(9) = cbrt(3)^2
but it is not a basis
you are confusing notation here
square brackets mean the ring generated by Q and those elements
this include linear combinations of PRODUCTS of those elements
this is different than the Q-linear span of these elements
which is smaller, and also lacks a field or ring structrue
hmmm taking a primitive element doesn't work a priori either I think
yes
basis are just like span
and rings do just that
I think it's false if you have a primitive element like that
suppose $a$ satisfies the minimal polynomial $$\sum_{k=0}^nc_ka^k=0$$ Then we can pull out $c_1a+a^n$ and factor out $a$ to get, $$a=\frac{-1}{c_1+a^{n-1}}\sum_{k=0}^nc_ka^k$$
Merosity
sum should have k != 1 or n
hmmmm
so we can make a from what you listed, a^2 to a^{n-1}
then i'm not sure why this proof i'm looking at is true
the word basis in extensions is called basis cuz its the same as the word basis in vector spaces
ok and
well c_1 + a^{n-1} is invertible so it just boils out to a linear combination
whwen you multiply it out together
mero, i'm trying to show that finite extensions of complete discretely valued fields are complete discretely valued. On completeness we want to show that if you take a basis for the extensions, then a cauchy sequence gives cauchy component functions. at one point we derive a contradiction by taking that the n+1-st element of the basis is not in the extension generated by the first n basis vectors
idk, is that not invertible here cause we don't have a
my question is essentially why can you always find such a basis element
just because im high schooler doesnt mean everything that i say is bs đ
or is this proof wrong
it's not because you're a highschooler, it's because you're fundamentally misunderstanding how different algebraic structures can interact
it's true that 1,cbrt3 is not a basis of Q[1,cbrt3], but it still generates Q[cbrt3] AS A RING, which is what the square brackets mean
degree of extension is same as dim of vector space over base field
which is size of basis
you can have generating sets that are smaller than bases
K[x] is generated by a single element, but it is infinite dimensional over K, where x is some indeterminate
yes i know
but basis dont interact so its like generating a ring
but if the basis is correct then the ring is actually a field
this makes no sense
ok
@rocky cloak I see you lurking, any idea?
In mathematics, particularly in algebra, a field extension is a pair of fields
K
â
L
,
{\displaystyle K\subseteq L,}
such that the operations of K are those of L restricted to K. In this case, L is an extension field of K and K is a subfield of L. For example, under the usual not...
Given a field extension L / K, the larger field L is a K-vector space. The dimension of this vector space is called the degree of the extension and is denoted by [L : K].
yes, that is a true statement.
What are cauchy components? Like you express each element of the sequence in the basis?
I meant like
yea
expand out the sequence w.r.t the basis
and consider the components of each of the basis elements
these should be cauchy sequences
I mean that's just background
Alright, and then since the components converge the whole thing does, yeah seems reasonable
nono
that's not the question haha
there's a detail in the proof i'm not sure about
that's what i'm asking about
this is true just by the defn of convergence in valued fields
I'm asking if for a finite separable extension $L/K$ of degree $n+1$, can you always find a basis $v_1,\ldots,v_{n+1}$ such that $v_{n+1}\notin K(v_1,\ldots,v_n)$
ShiN
I would expect you can basically never do that...
then i'm not sure why this proof we gave is true at all
I think maybe i'm misunderstanding the notation my prof is using
nono
something is wrong here
What is the proof, or what are you proving
this is the theorem, specifically the part of proving the extension is complete
this is the proof
I don't see the problem
This is just what you said before right. That a the components become Cauchy sequences and then it's complete
the problem is the contradiction
to prove that the compoennts are actually cauchy
specifically this part
the contradiction is only given if L(b_1,...,b_n) has strictly lower degree
But L<...> is just the linear span right?
then why would the induction hypothesis hold
we are inducting over degree of extension
so in particular we are inducting on field extensions
that's what I thought
I think they're just inducting over the size of the basis (which equals the degree of the field extension)
how would you phrase the induction hypothesis in this case, since E is fixed
I guess it would be a little cleaner to say that you're proving that L<b1, ..., bn> is complete, then do induction on n
saying L<b_1,..,b_n> is complete is a little murky since we can't define a valuation on a vs
I guess this is a semantic matter moreso
if we consider L<b_1,...,b_i> as subspaces of E I guess that's fine
Yeah it would be a subspace of E
are you confusing generating an algebra with generating (spanning) a vector space
basis elements don't "interact" in the sense that they are linearly independent, but you often have algebraic relations between these basis elements in a field extension, meaning they satisfy some nontrivial polynomial (or multiple)
If im given some subset of a group, what are quick ways or faster tricks of checking its a subgroup or not?
I know by lagrange thm, if number of elements doesnt divide order of G then automatically it cant be subgroup
a(b^(-1)) is in the set for all a b in the set
The eg i have rn is this
Group is units of Z21 and subset is {1,4,10,13,16,19}
So do i just have to manually check that condition
For each element?
each pair of elements, although you can infer some pairs from others
there isnt another elementary algorithm thats faster, so yes you do have to check
I had this question...
I see
this requires you generate the inverses first ofcourse
It seems like you have to look for like inverses and that
Seems like it could take a min
whats the question
most things with groups do
quick way to find 'all' subgroups
but it looks like you just have to check systematically
there are some algorithms that require highly non trivial results
that are faster than this
I see
Random thought but classes really do go so quickly thru material
Its like u just have time to have some sort of grasp of the topic before moving on
Same with mine, and they leave out a lot of detail...
are you UK?
Hey Guys I am new here. I am following Dummit and Foote's book on abstract algebra and I am on Class Equations. Solving questions takes a lot of time? Any advices in general?
I am stuck at this question Q19 now. Any hints would be much appreciated
Someone else also thought he knew me
We all just struggling with groups...
is it a big uni? i'd be surprised
there's a lot of good algebraists at the big unis
Its generally gonna take a lot of time until you develop the intuitions that work for you. How far into 19 are you? Have you built up some examples, (say from S4 or S5?)
For now I am trying to prove the first part of the problem. I am not able to figure out how to calculate k, I know x is in K and If I could calculate the centraliser of this then I think maybe able to work out the number of conjugacy classes
Hey all, assuming this is the abstract algebra chat. I'm currently taking this in uni with Paulo Aluffi's Notes from underground textbook.
I would like to master this topic. Not sure how popular this text is, but is anyone interested in doing every problem and writing a solutions manual together?
got a link?
I think that hint is plenty useful if you remember some stuff about inner products
whats getting you stuck with the hint in mind?
cool! would it be alright if i could help with some specific chapters?
Inner products? I am not able to find the centraliser
Yea! Which ones are you interested in?
My semester covers Chapter 1-5, 10, 11, and 12. So I would like to prioritize those
HC_G(x) is the innerproduct of H and C_G(x) no?
Oh yes but how is it related to that I don't see
Well the hint talks about how the intersection of those two is non trivial, so that innerproduct wouldnt be isomorphic to the direct product, maybe im wrong but perhaps that could tell you about the size of its index with respect to G
I can certainly help with those, was hoping to recall some stuff doing chapters 7-9 and 15 as well
Thanks I will give it a shot
bon chance!
yes i know
im not confusing anything with anything
im not an algebrist or whatever and i dont do stuff with algebras
I just don't know why you were so persistent then
you are confused
Use H CG(x) / CG(x) being isomorphic to H/ (H cap CG(x))
guy asked for a hint not the answer :(
Editing
just becuas wim a highschooler doesnt mean i have to get bullied
but i do understand cuz i bully elementary schoolers who claim to know calculus
if you cant help, dont help friend
Xooks
Who was helping whom? Checking previous messagesâŠ
the comment easnt for you mr.mind, it was for yang
.
I see, thought it was resolved long ago
not really but ok
Is it a requirement that every irreducible polynomial must be monic?
No. Consider 2x over Q
nope
minimal polynomials have to be monic though
maybe that's where you're getting confused
If you're working over a field then every polynomial is associate to a monic one, so you might as well consider monic polynomials. In general you can have irreducibles not associate to a monic (like 2x+1 over Z)
there's also the cyclotomic polynomials over Q or R, no?
What about them?
they're not reducible to monics
They are monic, or what do you mean?
oh woops, my bad!
Atm I don't care about Q
I'm working with Z
still no.
And why don't you care about Q
we love Q here
you're in a field so that's all that matters
a different prime field no less, basically Q
Is it better to only care about monic cases?
Well I'm counting both cases and see what I get
I had another question but I forgor
your coefficients are in F_p?
n prime or not?
iirc Z_p = F_p
"yes"

If n isn't prime then you should also consider non monic polynomials
use CRT to separate into powers of primes, then work in F_p and Hensel lift back later
right
Hensel lift from F_p up to Z_p so you're in Q_p, so you have Q hanging around too why not
There aren't many "non-monic" poly over Z_n so I thought why not include them
Oh yeah I now remember what I was gonna say
is there a special notation where you only denote linear polynomials or quad or whatever in F[x]?
F[x]_n may work for degree n polys, this is notation used for graded rings. In some sense F[x]/(x^n) is degree < n polynomials
But you should just say how youâre gonna denote it tbh
also fair
Yeah I'm just gonna create some fancy notation for that
Is there a way to count how many irreducible monic polynomials are there given a degree n and Z_m?
If m=p is prime, you can use the fact that there's a unique field of order p^n , then use a little Möbius inversion to get that the number of minimal polynomials of degree n is
Sum Ό(d) p^(n/d)
If m is square free you can use Chinese remainder theorem, and reduce the problem to the primes that divide m.
If m is not square free like m=p^k it's a little more complicated. Like you can account for most of the polynomials using Hensels lemma, but you have stuff like x^2 + 1 modulo 4, which I don't see any obvious way to account for.
Can you show me an example of how to do the second case?
I guess the differentiator here is unramified vs ramified extensions of Q_p
like, all the irreducible polynomials of unramified extensions of Q_p end up reducing down to irreducible polynomials of F_p, and then the extra junk lifted up with them with Hensel in Z/p^kZ
Hmm, that's interesting.
So say m=6 = 2*3. Then Chinese remainder theorem gives us that
Z/6 [x] = Z/3[x] \times Z/2[x]
A polynomial of the form (f, g) can be factored as (f, 1)*(1, g), and (f, 0) is factored as (f, 1)*(1,0). So the irreducibles are on the form (f, s) or (s, g) with s a unit in Z/2 or Z/3 respectively. But such polynomials will never be monic, so I guess there are no irreducible monics in these cases. For example
x + 1 = (3x+1)(4x+1)

Thanks
I am for the 2nd part, I am unable to find proper submodules so that they are disjoint, hence I can't express C^3 as the required direct sum.
If someone has any hints for this it would be appreciated, as I am stuck at this for hours
<@&286206848099549185>
How do I avoid common blunders like thinking there is no surjective homomorphism from free group of 2 generators to Z/2Z * Z/5Z * Z/10Z
That matrix has three distinct complex eigenvalues
By not missing Z/2Z times Z/5Z = Z/10Z next time
Idk
đ I guess I cannot avoid some deductions then..
practice more?
Hmmm
OH WAIT SO
It's all about the eigenvalues
I just did the R^3 case
e1 and e3 are enough to generate it
Looks irrelevant
Because (2A + I)e_1 = sqrt(3)e_2
What I wanted to say was
Ax=λx gives you a cyclic F[T] module Fx, which is isomorphic to F[T]/(T-λ)
Or should I say 2x + 1
My bad, three cyclic R[T] modules not three cyclic C[T] modules, rethinking
Maybe the mistake of mine was just because I was out of time solving the problem
@terse crystal figured it out
(1,i,0), (0,0,i), (0,0,1) are the generators of the each of the cyclic R[x] modules
And as C[x] modules, we can safely omit the 2nd one as that's generated by the third
I was thinking four , (1,i,0),(1,-i,0), (0,0,1), (0,0,i)
Do you need that one?
Looks like if you remove the one generated by (1,-i,0), itâs not going to cover C^3
Either i am being dumb, or this question might be wrong. Cause you view C^3 as R^6, three real three imaginary, then T acts on R^6 by matrix diag{A,A}. So since you have written R^3 as direct sum of two cyclic submodules , then R^6 here is direct sum of four cyclic submodules
And four many add up to dimension 6: two copies of R[T]/(T^2-2cos(2Ï/3)+1) , two copies of R[T]/(T-1). 2+2+1+1=6
Is there a name for monic quintics whose quadratic term has coefficient 1?
Any ideas for how to prove this? We defined the determinant as a wedge product and I'm not sure what I should be taking the wedge product over. (k is a field)
If A ^ otimes n you mean n many A taking tensor product, and A otimes B you mean the blocked matrix (aijB), then for m times m A, n times n B, we have det(A otimes B)=det(det(A)B^m)=det(A)^n det(B)^m. From this you can easily generalize it to det of multiple otimes . Second looks trivial
Can someone give me a quick hand with magma? I'm wanting to describe a subgroup of GL_8( Q(i) ) generated by a handful of matrices. I realise this is probably very simple, but I would be very appreciative of a code example as I've not used magma before.
A simple example of a matrix group over Q(i) with any number of generators would be very helpful.
if G = GL_8(Q(i)) then you can make subgroups like sub<G | g_1, g_2, ..., g_n> where ur g_i are your generators
Ah ok so sub is the generator notation
So how can I describe Q(i)? I'm working through the docs slowly and haven't got there yet
I won't ask much more lol this is the wrong channel really
#computing-software if you want but I feel like it's fine here
I've answered magma questions in here and #advanced-algebra before
I fear people will start saying "just use matlab đ€Ș" if I go to that channel
ext<Q | x^2+1> should work
yeah you'll say that until you try and do anything even remotely weird
like, oh idk, try and work with fusion systems?
Sounds like a you problem 
my supervisor made a library for them but the uni will not buy me the full magma version so I can't use it
Hi, guys, let k be a field, i know that k(a_1,...,a_n) = {f(a_1,...,a_n)/g(a_1,...,a_n) : f,g\in k[x_1,...,x_n]}. But Let A be a set, what does the element in k(A) look like? A could be uncoutable
the same? I don't see why A being uncountable would affect anything
you just couldn't write it using that notation
i am thinking if A is uncountable, I write element in k(A) as f(a_1,...,a_n)/g(b_1,...,b_m) where f,g\in k[x_1,x_2,...], a_i,b_j\in A. But doesn't k[x_1,x_2,...] give a way to count elements in A?
_ _
But what notation should i use
I'd just use f(a)/g(b)
with a,b being understood to be elements of $\prod_{i \in \mathbb{R}} A$ if you want to be explicit
WewGhostTbh
np
Why R lol
first uncountable set that came to mind
Sure just seemed a lil misleading
I will mislead and you are powerless to stop me
Idk, potato has some power now
I'm looking for people for a server that deals with nature that helps not contaminate anyone wants :))
@here
I will contaminate this channel with analysis
Nooooo 

Algebraists gonna hate us
.<
e
Is there a systematic way to find which functions belong to certain irreps of a group?
I'm struggling to find functions that belong to the one dimensional irreps of the tetrahedral group and I can't find any intuitive way to tackle this issue.
what do you mean by "functions belong"?
if you mean class functions on G then you would take inner products with the irreducible characters to find the decomposition coefficients
I mean that for each irrep of a group there is a set of functions, usually called partners, that transform among themselves when operated on by the matrices that form the irrep. Finding these functions has been very difficult for me.
I think I have an idea of what you're trying to say. If I understand correctly, for each irrep there is a projector operator that depends on the irreducible characters that will project an arbitrary function to the function that belongs to the said irrep. But in practice, these are difficult to implement, even for relatively small groups like the tetrahedral.
they're not difficult to implement, you just do the inner product. Explicitly multiplying by the projection idempotent inside the group algebra is unwieldy I'll agree there but it would be possible for a group of order 12
haven't heard of these "partners" things before, I'll have a google
there seems to be next to no information on them, could you link a source?
Thank you for your help. Wigner calls them partners in "Group theory and its application to the quantum mechanics of atomic spectra", chapter 12.
And so does Hamermesh and Tinkham.
ah it's applied
that'll be why I haven't heard of them!
I want to construct this field by following this instruction, if I set p=3, k=2, then the order of F is 9, but what is F?
F can't be Z9
F_3[x]/(x^2+1) as the definition says
is F_3[x]=Z_3[x] ?
do you understand the definition that you've posted
it is to construct the coset of the maximal ideal, right?
yeah but you're asking what F_3 means when the thing you've posted uses F_p so
I don't understand what is F_3 is, because I need to choose coefficient from F_3 when construct the polynomial
if I don't know what F_3 is, how can I choose coefficients...
In an ordered ring, does it follow that a<b implies b=a+e for some e>0?
seems not but can't figure any counterexample
How about e=b-a
you can think of it as Z/3Z, yes
damn I'm very dumb sometimes ty
but I am confused, let K=Fq, and if the char of K is p, can I say 1_K is the generator of K?
I mean to treak K as a group
Working on a proof that required to show this : if $a_1, \cdots, a_{2g} (g > 1)$ are complex numbers (if it helps they are eigenvalues of an invertible matrix with integer coefficients). Want to show that I can find an integer $n >1$ such that $\sum a_i^n \neq \sum a_i$. This feels very easy but I don't have any immediate ideas. I am thinking about how characterstic polynomial change when you raise the matrix to a power but I am not getting it
ru0xffian
Since K has characteristic p, the subgroup generated by 1 will have p elements
So it's not all q of them (unless p=q)
If K has dimension n, then let k1, k2, ... kn to be the basis, (where k1=1_K), can I say k1 generate a subgroup of K and this subgroup is F_p which has p elements? and similarly, k2 generate a subgroup with p elements (is not equal to F_p) ... kn generate a subgroup with p elements (is not equal to F_p).
Yes, as a group K will look like (Z/p)^n
i see, first time to see this notation :_)
You can always identify F_p with Z/pZ, take 1 as the generator
for something like F_9 the underlying Abelian group is going to be Z/3Z x Z/3Z, and the multiplication is going to be determined by the polynomial you used in the construction
so if treat K as a group, then it is like a n-tuple (a1, a2,..., an) and each ai is selected from Zp, hence there are totally p^n elements, and each slot _ of (_, _, ..., _) is the basis vectors ki, and ki is in K, if write it in vector form we get a1 k1+...+ an kn, is this correct?
yes you can always write field extensions as vector spaces over the base field
Yes, allthough writing it this way is perhaps not the most helpful if you want to understand the field structure
important to note that even though the multiplication is different, the fields will still be isomorphic regardless of what polynomial you chose
what is the best way to write this?
I just learn field and still used to the group format...
as polynomials
for example I would write the elements of F_4 = F_2[x]/(x^2+x+1) as 0, 1, x, 1+x
yes
thank you!
np
I have a small question regarding the proof of this
PROnoob
so n/d is the maximal number that divides both n and m
Now if we divide one of these by the gcd, they no longer have any common divisor apart from 1 since we just removed the one they had
you can probably argue by like prime factorization
i just realized that for your argument to work we need to divide both n and m by the gcd.
if we divide just one of them, there may still be common factors
so like if m=n^2
They produce isomorphic fields it doesnât matter
Pick either or (I recommend x^2+1)
or do it both ways and verify that they are isomorphic
Are you sure this first polynomial is irreducible?
Or prove thereâs only one dude of each order
Wait is that an x^3 or an x^2
Yeah Iâm assuming this is a mistake
I presumed x^3 but then theyre not the same order so yeah
i don't read things that aren't texed 
i close my eyes and compile the tex in my brain
here's what i came up with but i think i might be making some mistake
PROnoob
how exactly does this follow?
i understand that p can't contain any units
but i don't understand the converse
maximality
any non-unit is contained in some maximal ideal
(shoutout to zorn's lemma)
oh is this a theorem
yep, prove it :)
classic lang
anyone know if this can be proved without zorn's lemma (or some equivalent)? or if this is equivalent to zorn's
No need for zorns here
If x is some non-unit element outside of p then p U (x) is a strictly bigger proper ideal, contradiction :uponthewitnessing:
Showing this requires zorns tho
Canât see anyway of doing it otherwise
oh yeah that's what i meant
does anyone know if there's a copy of solutions to lang's algebra
if you aren't familiar with the kind of zorn's argument, do it as an exercise
You can prove existence of primes from the ultrafilter lemma which is weaker. Existence of maximal ideals in this form requires Zornâs I believe
it is x^3, but the book says the irreducible ploy is unique (up to a constant factor) and is a minimal degree greater or equal to 1
it is x^3 , so it is irreducible
the minimal polynomial should be unique, but... those polynomials are different degrees?
why would they be correlated?
the quotients get you two completely different fields
F_27 and F_9
why can't I choose x^3+2x+1 as the irr poly?
I know it is degree 3, I don't konw why can't I choose degree 3?
is that due to degree 3 is not the minimal poly?
... because you want to get F_9...
so you need a degree 2... because 9 is 3^2, not 3^3
ah, i got it...
sorry i am confused just now, the book says it is unique, so do you mean if I fixed the degree of irr poly first, then the irr poly is unique?
in this prob, it is to ask to construct the 3^2, so the degree must be 2
no, the minimal polynomial is unique
there can be many irreducible polynomials of a given degree (even up to scalar multiples)
for example, x^2+4x+1 and x^2+x+1 are both irreducible in F_5
this is the minimal polynomial of alpha, as I said
and as the book says, it just says it's irreducible not that it is the irreducible
do you mean, after I plug in alpha, since alpha^2 will be expressed by the linear combination of 1 and alpha, then the two ploy alpha^2+4alpha+1 = alpha^2+alpha+1 ?
the polynomial p(x) is the polynomial of minimal degree that has alpha as a root
it should be obvious why it has to be irreducible
I understand it is irr, because <p(x)> is the max ideal, then implies F[x]/<p(x)> is a field, I don't understand why it says unique but your counter example shows not uniqe?
father give me strength
YOU claimed the "irreducible polynomial was unique", my post was a counter example to that claim
the theorem you posted, makes a different (true) claim
oh, it says alpha is a root, so given this fact, then the irr is unique, right?
i miss the alpha as a root
the corrisponding irreducible (called the minimal polynomial - third time now) is unique yes
your example shows if the alpha is not first given, then the irr ploy is not unique, right?

First we assume |aj|<=1 otherwise n big enough it can be proved. Now if we really have tr(A^n)=tr(A) for any n.
Then recall that there is its characteristic polynomial b0+âŠ+bm x^m (m=2g)
So b0+âŠ+bmA^m=0
Multiplied by A both sides, then take trace , we have (b0+âŠ+bm)tr(A)=0
We also can take trace directly of b0+âŠ+bmA^m=0
(b0)m+(b1+âŠ+bm)tr(A)=0
We have b0(m-tr(A))=0.
Since A invertible, b0 non-zero
tr(A)=m. And their length<=1, so either all aj are 1, or all aj are -1. Latter case take n=2 ,m=-m, contradiction, done. So unless A is identity matrix , itâs true
my eyes
I fix the steps, f(x) is a coset, not a poly. Is this time right?... @delicate orchid
@main needle since i think they pinged texit and not you 
what does lang mean by "set of representatives for the irreducible elements"
we're not talking about equivalence classes or anything here right
he doesn't mean collection of irreducible elements of right
because then why would he say "representatives"
Oh. Didnât know that. Thank you. I have pinged otherâs tex lots of timesđ
here this decomposition cx/b + cy/a doesn't satisfy the theorem right, since we could choose c to be not coprime to b
Pick one under each equivalence class where the relation is differing by a unit
JoelWantsCoffee
a paper I'm looking at has this line:
JoelWantsCoffee
any insights much appreciated đ đ đ đ
y^p-y=Î (y-s)
Replace y with g(x)
Polynomials y^p-y and Î (y-s) equal because Fp is made up with p roots of y^p-y
Any justification on why the definition of ordered ring is as such? It gives the consequences I'd expect, but the conditions seems very arbitrary
looking for some abstract nonsense that justifies it
or something like that
I donât see how it seems arbitrary
You have an order that works with addition and multiplication as youâd expect
it means that addition/multiplying by a positive preserves order
is there something else you expected
hmmmmmm
not really sure, like I guess I'm expecting something like a topological group has continous operations because that's what a group object in Top implies.
Sum with one parameter fixed preserving order while somewhat natural feels like its missing something
if you want I think you could also develop the same thing using the idea of a positive subset
either x is positive, x is 0, or -x is positive
and positive plus/times positive = positive
now that feels better to me I think
but still somewhat hmmmm
like consider the theory of some n-ary operator. The 'natural' way to impose an order is to require that the n-ary operator preserves all orders in each coordinate
i.e. ai<bi implies f(a1,...,an)<f(b1,...,bn)
what general nonsense tells me that this is natural indeed
or maybe it's just an illusion that this is natural and is actually somewhat arbitrary
a < b implies f(a) < f(b) is pretty natural to me
itâs an iff statement in the case of a total order
maybe you can read it as saying that f distributes over <
is this equvalent to asking how many rotations by 28/37 degrees until I get R_360 (the 2x2 Identity)?
Cause it would take 475.7142857 rotations but does it make sense to say a^475.7142857 and that the order is 475.7142857
or am I not making any sense
the order is either an integer or infinty, your first sentence is correct the rest doesnt make sense
you dont have an integer cause
$475/37\approx13$ and 1328=364 so your close but you dont do exactly an exact full turn. This means you have to do multiple turns, (2 full turns are equivalent to 1 full turn) in fact you know that doing 36037 turns would be a full turn so the order is finite
rayane
rotate 37 times you get 28 degrees ( 37 is prime so you have to rotate multiples of 37) then 360 and 28 have gcd 4 so that $37\alpha$ has order 90 (prove it) and so $\alpha$ has order 37*90
rayane
Ohhh
that makese sense, it most certainly didnt feel right putting a non integer as my order
yeah but to get a feel for it try that : given a cyclic group of order n and a generator g. compute the order of $g^r$
rayane
then suppose your cyclic group is contained in another cyclic group of order m and generator a such that $a^k=g$. Compute the order of $a^r$
rayane
I promise this will be useful, try to link that to your original question and prove it
will do!
@primal beacon does this make sense while we're at it?
I'm assuming we cant tell because we dont know if the cycles are disjoint
since this theorem only holds for disjoint cycles
or is there another way around it that im missing
you are right non commutativity breaks everything
consider $S=\begin{pmatrix} 1&1\ 0&1 \end{pmatrix}$ $T=\begin{pmatrix} 0&-1\ 1&0 \end{pmatrix}$
rayane
then $ST$ has infinite order while $TS$ has order 3
rayane
which means any commutative expression of the product order from the orders will fail
ohh okay
im not completely honest because here T has infinite order which cannot happen in $S_n$ but you get the point
rayane
There wouldn't be
If there would be then what we divided by wouldn't be the gcd
The idea is that by dividing one of them by the gcd you remove all the common factors from one of them
So that means those factors are no longer common between them
So gcd = 1
If im working with two finite k (=some field) vector spaces e.g. k^2,k^3 and im given two explicit matrices that represent an endomorphism from k^2->k^2 k^3-k^3 and I shall compute Hom_kX.
I look which k-homomorphisms f respect "y * (f(v1,v2)) = f(a * (v1,v2))" where "y" lies in k[X], keeping in mind that different matrices act on X depending on where im multiplicating?
Also I can assume that f is k-linear because otherwise it would certainly not be k[X]-linear?
Im roughly aware of the very basic definitions of module stuff.
That canât really be true since they are conjugate by T
I think they both have order 6
S has infinite order not T
oh yeah youâre right I exchanged the names and I said some nonsense
I dont what I was thinking about
I think the interesting thing is that T and ST have finite order and they generate a group of infinite order
yeah SL2
In particular that ST*T^{-1} has infinite order
thats what I should have said
Which was probably what you were going for
check this
something like that but it turned out bad ahah thanks for the correction
We can just say option 2,3,4 are false. But we canât say option 1 is true. You canât know for sure, if there is some one who has some secret formula order(ab)=f(order(a), order(b)), but that some one hasnât told anyone else. Also âcanât be determined byâŠâ looks not very formal.
You can just give an example where a and a' have the same order and b and b' have the same order, but ab has a different order to a'b'
Oh thatâs right
@terse crystal I managed to solve it using the ismorphism theorem. I am just not able to prove that all conjugacy classes inside K are of the equal size
Let me recall what was discussed last time.
Take any x in K.
|K|=[G: CG(x)|
The conjugacy class under H containing x, is of the size [H:CH(x)] so k=[G:CG(x)]/[H:CH(x)]=[G:CG(x)][H:(H cap CG(x)]=[G:CG(x)]/[HCG(x):CG(x)]=[G:HCG(x)]
This is what was discussed last time right, if all conjugacy classes are of the same size then k=[G:HCG(x)]
This time you want to know how to obtain that all conjugacy classes are of the same size, I see
Yes exactly I assumed that they have the same size and applied the ismorphism theorem
[H:CH(gxg^-1)]=[H: gCH(x)g^-1]=|H|/|gCH(x)g^-1|=|H|/|CH(x)|=[H: CH(x)]
Thank you. I got it now. đ
@terse crystal for Q35 I don't understand the question. Is it asking to find the number of conjugacy classes which have elements of order p in them? I am not able to construct an example
Elements of order p form a subset of Sn
Itâs asking you how many conjugacy classes this subset is divided into
(So essentially how many p-cycles can a permutation has, since two permutations are conjugate iff they have the same shape)
strange question
Without the thing in the parentheses it seems fine. What in the parentheses looks strange. I didnât use it anyway
I'm guessing you're supposed to think about the order of a product of disjoint cycles
I see. Though this case cycles are of the same length
Sure, but to know that you have to first think about what the order of a product of cycles is
I solved this question for all p-elements a few months back it was a mess
Why, isnât it just ||[n/p]|| shapes
I guess p-element means element of order p^k
it does indeed
Oh my bad
no worries
Still doesn't seem so bad though...
so it's the number of ways you can partition n where each part of the partition is a power of p
Yeah⊠present n in p-adic form
(p!)^k?
Since p is prime there will be one conjugacy class containing all elements of order p? Am I right?
No
Oh nvm not permutations
I see
anyway surprise surprise, it's iterative
Oh so there will be conjugacy classes with elements of order p^k as well?
No
No, number of p-cycles change
Sorry I meant p^k cycles
We are discussing things beyond the case of your problem. Not relevant to you solving your problem I mean
p elements have ||n|| conjugacy classes I think , right?
Since n= am ⊠a0 in p-adic. for a permutation having bj many p^j-cycles, itâs just numbers (in p-adic) ⊠b1b0 <= amâŠa0
What channel do I go to for lower level abstract algebra questions/discussions?
you're in it 
Isn't this it?
Oh and minus 1
Or what does "lower level" mean?
for S_n? definitely not
Undergrad lol
but which elements are you missing
Ah I see
this is all very much undergrad dw about it
for example for S_{p^2} you should have p+2 conjugacy classes of p-elements, the trivial, the p^2 cycles, and k p-cycles for 1 \leq k \leq p
ThinkingâŠ
Surely it's not just a simple formula in n and p
as I said before
I didn't consider the question for n not a power of p btw
the p-adic expansion is a good idea
gives you an upper bound on the number of p^k-cycles you can have in any cycle decomposition
n= am⊠a0, just b= ⊠b1b0<=am⊠a0, so n, then except those b such that all bj=0 for j>=1, so ||n-p+1||
I am finding error of thisâŠ
Nvm I am dumb
This is completely wrongâŠ
n = 6, p = 2, our partitions would be 1+1+1+1+1+1, 1+1+1+1+2, 1+1+4, 2+4, 1+1+2+2
so there are 5 different conjugacy classes of p-elements
for example
I see
let me find what I came up with
it was this apparently, I adapted the standard recursive formula for the number of partitions
Does this look right?
Pp(n) number of partitions of n into sum of powers of p?
correct
The answer is right
I see. No wonder Jagr said no direct expressionâŠ
yeah I asked some other nerds in this server about it - you can adapt the generating function for the partition numbers to get it as well
$\sum_{n=0}^\infty P_p(n)x^n = \prod_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac1{1-x^{p^k}}$ or something? I forget
WewGhostTbh
,w oeis A8642
yeah as expected the p'-part of the number doesn't affect anything
This seems to match for p=2 and the first 10 ns
I did prove it works but
Looks reasonable , but I guess from 0 to infinity?
I don't trust my own proofs 
the standard partition product goes from k = 1 so 
I don't know anything about generating functions
Ahh, says "number of partitions of n into 1, 2 or 4"
So not quite right
ah so we're missing the ol 8+1, 8+1+1
,w oeis A18819
There we go
I revised the work, is this right?
are you just trying to write the multiplication in F_9
yeah so it's standard polynomial multiplication except we set x^2 to be -1 = 2
so this looks right
(which is what it means to quotient by x^2+1)
the step on alpha^2=2 shows all higher order terms can be downgrade to combination of 1 and alpha
correct, hence why you get a field of order 9 and nothing bigger
yesterday you wrote as the combination of 1 and alpha, and ignore the <p(x)>, I know in the quotient ring the ideal <p(x)> serves as 0, so we ignore it just for simple in writing?
well if you use alpha you automatically have alpha^2+1 = 0
so no need to write the ideal
but yes it's incredibly common to skip writing out the +ideal when working in quotient rings
i see, thank you very much!!
Guys for the dihedral groups, when there is R^2, does that mean R * R or R+R. I only ask because technically you are carrying out successive rotations (which would imply you add them), but supposing you were given R = 2pi / 3 or 2pi / n for that matter , if also looks like you should to R * R ...
there is only one operation in a group
I'm concerned that this is even a question
it corresponds to applying the same rotation R twice, as you said
Ye so R+R
no? I'm presuming you have a matrix representation here which is why you're getting confused
R is a rotation
Is it a matrix or is it just a symbol representing the idea of a rotation.
symbol
OK
So if you carry out 2 rotations it should be R+R, but the R^2 notation is throwing me a bit
Please answer my second question: what does + mean to you here.
D_n only has one operation
I haven't studied dihedral groups yet
and using additive notation for non-abelian groups is a no-go
it's... the definition of a group?
it means carry out successive rotations
do you know what a group is
yes
OK then there is no difference between these notations
It is just very unusual to use + for it.
ok so if R = 2pi / n then R^2 = 4pi/n
Hold on, you said earlier that R is just a symbol representing the idea
so you are thinking about them as matrices
but in fact you're saying now that this is equal to a number?
just 1x1 complex matrices
well a rotation through an angle
So is R a symbol that represents the rotation through 2pi/n or whatever, or is it actually being set equal to 2pi/n
Is there a difference?
Yes
mm... Ill go and think about it. Thanks anyways

the difference is why we care about groups at all
It being a number in particular would also mean something that is highly unusual in the study of dihedral groups: that the turn by 360 degrees is not the same as the turn by 0 degrees.
The reason I asked was more because I was confused at the construction of the Cayley table of a dihedral group
I see
Why don't you ask about that directly. What's confusing you.
Ok hold on
ill get an example
Ok so the table of the D3 dihedral group has like R * R = S where R is a rotation 2pi / 3 clockwise and S is the same anti clockwise. My question is specifically, in the table where it gives the result R * R = S it is simply an addition right? If this is correct then does that carry for all dihedral groups?
Again, it is very rare and strange to write this as addition. I am going to say that we are going to only use 'multiplicative' notation in the style of R^2 or R * R from now on to avoid confusion.
Yes, this expression R * R should (in your mind) mean the rotation that we get by rotating 2/3 of the way around a circle, clockwise.
It is not addition; it is just an abstract operation which we think of as doing one action after another.
And it is most certainly not true that R * R = S for all dihedral groups, because they often do not contain the elements R and S, and in any case the comparable elements in the other dihedral groups behave differently.
Ok, so say I was given another dihedral group = { pi /3 , pi/5 , pi/4, ....}, when setting this up in a Cayley table how would I perform the operation between the elements?
That's not a dihedral group.
well say a group of rotations then
That's also not a group of rotations, if by pi/n you mean rotating clockwise by 1/2n of a full circle.
On my tutorial sheet it uses hexagon
We can do the example for hexagons, sure
this smells like chemistry, are you a chemist
it uses specifically { pi/3 , 2pi /3 , pi , 4pi/3 , 5pi/3}... How would I form a group table ?
they are anticlockwise rotations
You're missing one rotation
D_6 is the set {1, r, r^2, r^3, r^4, r^5, s, sr, sr^2, sr^3, sr^4, sr^5}
I am not going to use the notation you've been using, because it is easy to confuse the number pi/3 with the rotation that is anticlockwise by pi/3 radians. I am going to write R for the rotation clockwise by pi/3 radians.
That's all I have
r being rotation and s being a reflection
Oh and the identity
The the group you're actually talking about is {I, R, R^2, R^3, ..., R^5} where I is the identity (hence capital i) which is the rotation by zero degrees.
R^n means 'repeat R n times'
But my point is that's technically adding them?
no
I'm not adding anything. These aren't numbers.
you carry out rotation 1... then you carry out rotation 2
which is function composition if anything
That's right. We call that composition in mathematics, not addition.
not addition
jinx
A rotation is different from a number even though one uses numbers to measure the angle of a rotation
But wouldn't the angle itself be the sum of them?
No.
But yeah, composing rotations corresponds to adding the angles
That's not true, still
because for example a rotation by pi/3 then a rotation by 5pi/3 is a rotation by......... 0
(in this group)
This isn't addition anymore because of course 2pi is not 0!
This is the definition of the group.
because if you spin something all the way round... it hasn't changed...
But 2pi is not 0, yes?
Sigh.
OK it's clear to me you're not interested in listening. I'll leave you alone now.
pi+pi = 0 folks you heard it here first
I'm not even going to bother stepping on egg shells here
Please don't ping me, thanks
we're defining a formal symbol r, such that r^6 is the same as the identity of the group
then we are taking the group generated by this formal symbol r
you can think of this as rotations if you want, the whole point is it's abstract
it doesn't a priori corrispond to anything
it can be used to model ANYTHING that when done 6 times is equivalent to nothing
hopefully it is is clear that rotations of a hexagon where one corner lands on another obeys this "6 times is nothing" rule
which is why the group of rotations of a hexagon is what it is
this isn't the full group of symmetry of a hexagon however, which is D_6
as you have to account for reflections too
well with D_6 we now have two symbols, s (for reflection... for some reason) and r (for rotation)
and just by thinking about how a hexagon flips around it should be clear that reflecting twice does nothing, so we write s^2 = 1, and rotating 6 times does nothing, so r^6 = 1
and now the interesting part, if we reflect, rotate, and then reflect again, we get a different rotation
which is a lot harder to see
I learned recently that the German word for reflection is Spiegelung, apparently that's why
ofc it's german when isn't it german
but we can encode this symmetry of "reflect, rotate, and then reflect = another rotation" as "srs = r^-1" (it turns out the rotation you get is the same as the rotation you start with but clockwise instead of anti clockwise)
yeah, the group is how its elements compose far FAR more than what those elements actually are
which is why we care - we can look at all objects with a certain structure at once
dumb question but here is g(X) included in the summation or is it outside
hmm yeah ok
oh wait no i'm pretty sure it's inside, given the context from the last couple of pages that i just realized
strange
i also don't really understand how the terms in the summation are of the form given. If we divide each $\alpha_p$ by $p(X)^{j(p)}$, shoudn't each summand be for the form $\alpha_p = p(X)^{j(p)}h(X) + g(X)$?
okeyokay
or can the term $p(X)^{j(p)}h(X)$ be simplified to $\frac{f_p(X)}{p(X)^{j(p)}}$ somehow
okeyokay
okeyokay
There are infinitely many polynomials in P, so if g was on the inside this will not be a finite sum. Also g doesn't depend on p, so it would be weird to have it on the inside
oh nvm then rip
i've been verifying everything onwards from thsi theorem wrong then đ
ok now i'm a bit confused about the "trivial" existence
I think the point is just that if you have something like f/pq, then you can rewrite it as f_p/p + f_q/q and reduce so numerator and denominator are relatively prime.
But if f_p is a multiple of p, then you get a polynomial out (which will be your g)
(p and q relatively prime)
So this is just partial fraction decomposition
ohh, ok thank you!
yeah this is a section on partial fractions lol
oh so basically like if you have f_p being a multiple of p then you'll get a polynomial g_1(x), and then if this happens for multiple f_ps then their sum g_1(x) + g_2(x) + \dots + g_n(x) will be a polynomial which they take to be as g(x)?
Yeah, exactly
i see, thanks!!
no problem!
why is it that f_p = 0 if j(p) = 0? cuz then we get f_p(X)/1 = f_p(X) which doesn't necessarily imply that f_p(X) = 0 right?
or is it just saying that we don't include that term in the sum, and instead move it to be one of the summands of g(X)
this
omg this
This.
so when Lang says "state and prove the theorem for rational numbers" does he mean let A = Z, and prove the theorem for Frac(Z) = Q? because if we let A = Q[X] then there's nothing to prove lmfao
No
He wants A = Z[x]
Or wait uhhh
Yes A = Z
The idea is that thereâs a lot of similarities between Z and k[x]. A lot of this boils down to the fact both are PIDs, but eg the classification of primes in Z[x] and k[x][y] are very similar (actually it just follows the form for any poly ring over a PID)
One interesting way they differ tho is that Z has no derivations, which means some things that are easy for k[x] are not easy for Z at all
oh interesting
le homology or somesuch
In slang you can find a proof (literally only uses high school calculus) for the abc conjecture over a poly ring
And Fermatâs Last Theorem for poly rings follows
Ofc these are suitable adaptations for k[x], but it follows basically because d/dx exists
Look at IV.7 the Mason-Stothers theorem
Afaik this is where the F_1 thing comes from, we want to view Z as a polynomial ring over some field, but such a field would need to âbe a field with one elementâ or something. I donât know much
wait what exactly do you mean by derivation here chmonkey
Liebniz rule and linear
this would line up with other shit about F_1
alright so the diff geo derivation
Is there a different definition?
And for me this is the algebra derivation
Lmfao
they're probably equivalent I'm just skill issuing memory wise
but that makes sense
D(ab) = aD(b)+D(a)b with an optional twist/grading
but I remember some connection to homology
Ah yeah thatâs what I mean. No twist tho
Uhhhh idk thereâs connections of this stuff to homological stuff but the stuff I know I imagine is not what you are thinking of
yeah the connection I have in my mind is elementary - like the first homology is (isomorphic) to some set Dev which was short for derivations, as I said I can't remember
they were probably just 2-cycles
Makes sense
My view of it is that Der_A(B,M) = Hom_B(Omega_B/A,M)
But this leads to various homological crap
And like cotangent complex André-Quillen homology stuff
very smelly
$\emph{Let P be the set of primes in $\mathbb{Z}$. Then any element $r \in \mathbb{Q}$ has a unique expression}
[r = \sum_{p \in P} \frac{\alpha_p}{p^{j(p)}} + s]
$\emph{where $\alpha_p$, $s \in \mathbb{Z}$, $\alpha_p = 0$ if $j(p) = 0$, $\alpha_p$ is relatively prime to $p$ if $j(p) > 0$, and $\alpha_p < p^{j(p}$ if $j(p) > 0$.}
okeyokay
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
So is the point that there are |k| derivations on k[x], but for Z there is just the zero derivation?
I donât know if itâs |k|, you might get more
I mean d/dx is a derivation on Z[x]
there's definitely at least one though!
Aren't they all just multiplies of d/dx
what you want is a derivation on Z
Well if k has its own derivationsâŠ
And also, not in char p
map everything to zero ;3
Idk, maybe some of what I say is wrong
My point here was just that d/dx makes this tick for k[x]
And Z you got squat
If k has characteristic 0, then |k| is infinite, so that's not very interesting
found it
What's with the tilde in the middle?
there's a tilde map sending m -> (g -> mg-m)
They named it tilde? Some people ey
smells like the augmentation map to me
oh yeah that's how they prove it lol
When M is a right module you can naturally turn it into a bimodule by having g act on the left by the identity. Then this is an actual derivation, and you get that group cohomology is a special case of Hochshild cohomology
interesting
maybe cohomology does have a use after all
is there a way we can view higher order cocycles as "higher order" derivations
and what I mean by that is a function D(ab) that satisfies the leibniz rule for the nth derivative
probably not actually, each term in the leibniz rule expansion has a positive coefficient which is not the case for 2-cocycles
is a subgroup H of order p is normal in G if and only if H is a subgroup of Z(G)?
C3 is normal in S3, but S3 has trivial center
Perhaps you had some confusion regarding the definition of a normal subgroup. The condition that gNg^-1 = N for all g in G does not mean that gng^-1 = n for all n in N, because conjugation by g might send n to some other element of N.
So gNg^-1 = N is not saying that every element of the subgroup N is fixed under conjugation, but rather is saying that the whole subgroup remains invariant, viewed all together.
i mean there's not that much to prove here right, given this theorem
and uniqueness just follows from Z being a UFD right?
would it just be an if and not an only if then?
i feel like thereâs some truth to this just not as strong as i was thinking
Sure, any subgroup of the center is normal
Don't think you really need that Z is a UFD for that. You just multiply out the denominators, then reduce modulo p^j
help me understand class equation, is my answer correct, the class equation of Z_9 is
1+1+1+1+1+1+1+1+1
$|G| = |\mathcal{Z}(G)| + \sum [G : C_G(g_i)]$, here $\mathcal{Z}(G)$ so the class equation is just $|G| = |\mathcal{Z}(G)| = 9$
WewGhostTbh
if you're using the better but less common version that doesn't have the centre separate then you're correct
Is that summing over the size of conjugacy classes or what?
yeah
altenratively just orb-stab but yk
can't teach something TOO cool now can we
damnn, i think my prof expect the center to be separate
then u best make sure the centre is seperate!
i misunderstood it the first time i read about it.
i have already passed my problem set đ
well at least i know now, that i should add up all the centers and make it separate
I know it seems weird and arbitary to do the centre seperate - and that's because it is! I will never understand it
$|\mathcal{Z}(G)| = \sum_{z \in \mathcal{Z}(G)} [G : C_G(z)]$ so we can just move it inside and write it all as one sum but nope
WewGhostTbh
I feel like it's to separate the ones from the rest
I did it this morning, so I think it's useful for the 1st Sylow theorem, for example
didn't reread that yet though
ah ok
would it be fine to say we had to expressions of the form and then use the fact that p^j(p) divides \alpha_p - \beta_p, which implies that \alpha_p = \beta_p?
also i don't really understand how p^{j(p)} dividing fp - \varphip implies that it's zero... does it have to do with what's underlined in blue here?
or is it saying this
Yeah, the fact that f_p is 0 when j(p) is 0 is a restriction. Without this restriction you wouldn't have uniqueness
So yeah, move all the j(p)=0 stuff into g.
hm ok i'll have to think about that
thanks
i still don't understand what there really is to prove, it seems like the proof is basically like the proof of theorem 5.2
this feels like a trap
Yeah, the statements are basically identical. Just shifting around which things are 0
And 5.2 having a stronger uniqueness condition
i see, thanks
hi for clarifications, this is not a homomorphism right? because what does [a][b] even means ( [a] means class of a)
Please post more context...
But no typically this will be a homomorphism Z â Z_n where we consider the group operation to be addition.
im currently practicing some problems
[a][b] is notation usually reserved for the product in Z_n.
In this case the group operation would be the sum, although they should have mentioned that.
the book im reading defines it like this
I know.
so im kinda confuse what [a] [b] means
Nobody has written [a][b] anywhere, wym
If you're asking what the group operation is, as I mentioned it would be the sum of two equivalence classes in Z_n.
ohhh so [a] [b] means sum of the two equivalence classes
No, what
in a and b
No we would never write [a] [b] for that
We would write [a] + [b]
The group operation here is +
okay i mean [a] * [b] (supposedly we don't know the operation)
I'm not totally happy with this notation but it's clear at least you know what you mean here.
but + is the operation. it is not mentioned in the problem, so is this like directly assumed?
or what?
That is presumably the only group operation on Z_n that you know about.
No, it's a homomorphism.
Say we have a linear map f: V -> W with {v_i} a basis for V and {w_j} a basis for W. What is det(f) and Tr(f) in terms of just bases / dual bases?
without making identifications of f with a matrix
in terms of bases
without making identifications of f with a matrix
this is confusing to me
what do you need this for?
one way or another the matrix of your map in the bases is going to come up if you're doing anything with it and a basis
I originally answered this by just saying "let M be the matrix representation of A" and computed like that
and my prof said that I was making an identification and "not keeping track" of said identification
and that I shouldn't do such a identification of A with a matrix
I know what a basis for Hom(V, V) is given a basis for V
by "keeping track" they probably just mean being explicit with your isomorphisms and what not, and not just outright assuming that f is a matrix
like explicitly keeping the isomorphism Hom(V, V) -> M_n(R) in the picture for all the computation?
you're gonna have to pick a basis anyways. i can't imagine it meaning anything else
I guess just compose f with the isomorphism W -> V that maps w_i to v_i, then use the usual definitions
is X_G the same as Z_G it's just that Z_G is specifically when G acts itself by conjugation?
indeed
nice, thanks
Trying to prove this, cant seem to figure it out.As G is p-hypo from the definition there exists a P' normal in G st P' is a p-group, aka |P'| = p^m for some m in Z and G/P' is cyclic. So letting |G| = n, the order of P' must divide n by Lagrange so n=p^mq for some q in Z, which gives |G/P'| = q, however I dont know how to use the fact that its cyclic to force that the quotient by P' forces all of the factors of p in n to be divide out. Because q could still be written as p^a * p_1^a_1 * ... so not coprime to q. Any thoughts? Maybe im thinking about it wrong.
So you know that there is a p-group such that G/P' is cyclic. Now it's not necessarily true that G/P' has order relatively prime to p, but maybe you can find a bigger p-group P such that G/P is cyclic and of order relatively prime to p?
Hint: ||second isomorphism theorem||
It can also be an idea to investigate the easiest cases first, for example what happens if G is cyclic?
that hint jumpscared me
Thank you for the reply! I cant look at it currently but ill take a look later and let you guys know if I get anywhere.
i always forget about that one
Of course since there isn't any agreement of the order, timanaku will have to guess which theorem I mean 
going off of what wiki calls 2nd iso, I forget that one. But maybe you mean what they call 3rd iso, in which case I do remember that one.
One pretty much implies the other anyway
Wikipedia sidesteps the issue by calling then theorem A, B, C and D
But yeah I mean ||C/D||
discussion's second greatest moment

