#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 167 of 1
it's the finite field with p elements
An isomorphism is a function f , which takes elements of R, \matbb{Z}
So true
How was that related to previous discussion anyway
An isomorphism is a function f , which takes elements of R, \matbb{Z}
...what
should be \mathbb
algebrains in chat what is your favorite isomorphism between R and Z
x -> 0
but those aren't isomorphic!
An isomorphism is an aplication continuos of funtions
whoosh
No u
so true
what about when there isn't a topology
there's always a topology 😎
the topology is only convex to a subset of Rn
??
i managed to do it by the way he hinted me toward, how would you have proven it?
Every sentence Fabian utters is more deranged than the last
So a = b^2^k such that 2^k doesn't divide the order of G.
The order of b divides the order of G, so equals 2^l m for l<k and m odd.
The order of b^2^k is the order of b divided by gcd(|b|, 2^k) which equals m, so a has order m, which is odd.
Their writing looks extremely similar to someone that posts about resolving the Hodge conjecture a lot on Reddit.
what if 2^k does divide the order of G though
Then you have to choose k a little bigger
The statement is that for all k we have a = (b_k)^2^k , so in particular it holds for ks such that 2^k doesn't divide the order of G
This is such a weirdly specific connection
if you know you know
I don’t 
Christiano de Barros?
No but I don't think I'm going to share the account.
hmmmm, so I'm tempted to consider the sequence $0 \rightarrow I \rightarrow A \rightarrow B \rightarrow 0$ and show that it splits, but this doesn't even work since $A$ has to be the first nontrivial module in the sequence... I need a map from $B$ to $I$ tho, so it would be natural to consider $0 \rightarrow A \rightarrow B \rightarrow I \rightarrow 0$ but then the splitting doesn't tell me anything i think
okeyokay
So 0 -> A -> B splits, so you have a map B -> A
you recall the proof you did for projective modules? or was that moamen
that was me, i think that problem was showing that we could always consider a projective module P as a direct summand of a free module tho (assuming that every short exact sequence with P as the last factor splits)
ah right
oh, so let's call this map $h: B \to A$. could I just let $\lambda: B \to I$ be $fh$?
okeyokay
oh wait I haven't even thought about commuting yet
Yeah, so that's the map. Now you just show that this commutes
oh yea
that works
cuz gf = id
yea I gotta learn to not approach things so "visually" I was searching for an explicit map from B to I and not considering composing things
at least when it comes to these problems, idk
but thanks!
if u have a proof for an object...
the proof of the dual is not far behind
yea ig so
but like this was a conceptually different problem right
so i couldn't just reverse the arrows to the other problem
or whatever
The ring of matrices of the [[Z, Q], [0, Q]] should work
this is right noetherian btu not left noetherian too right?
Yeah
conceptually you were still trying to find a map going backwards
or maybe not but that's usually the quickest way to show things are split exact
Yeah, it wasn't litterly just the dual problem, but the strategy was pretty much the same anyway I guess
oh okay
well now i have to show that every R-module being injective implies that every R-module is projective, so I guess this will be a better instructive exercise of that notion
yeah ok it's not quite literally the dual unfortunately
oh I don't actually know the proof of this
I'll do it with you
(anything to get out of trying to prove this theorem)
lol ok cool you're gonna finish wayyyy b4 me
so tempted…….
so close! But what if the ||surjective map was out of an indecomposable module??||
ooh ok
so tempted to click
but must resist
ok if i don't get it in like the next half hour or whatever i'll take a peek
can I smash something together using the horseshoe lemma
that would be funny I think but definitely overkill
A possible hint is that ||you can use the exercise you just did||
Don't know if that's the strategy you want to go for though
||that's what I'm doing lol - it makes sense if the exercises follow each other||
I'm nearly getting like... a homotopy out of this lol
shits wild
I feel like it would be easier to just ||show that every module is a summand of a free module, but then you wouldn't use the previous exercise, so...||
oh actually yes you would
||you'd automatically know the sequence splits by the previous exercise||
||the sequence would split because the kernel is injective. The previous exercise was the converse, i.e. in a semisimple category every object is injective||
||now I'm very confused. It's incredibly trivial that every object is injective in a semisimple category... this exercise is showing that if every object is injective then the category is semisimple the previous exercise was showing that exact fact about the kernel being injective||
wait did I read projective and injective backwards
nope
||the previous exercise was "if every short exact sequence in Mod R splits, then every module is injective"||
we gotta be in two different timelines
||the one okay solved at exactly 26 minutes ago||
Indeed
does the solution use split exactness? i'm experimenting with that and think it might work, idk
considering the sequence $0 \rightarrow P \rightarrow C \rightarrow B \rightarrow 0$ which I know splits since $P$ is injective....
okeyokay
@rocky cloak thoughts? prayers? hopes? dreams? ||the upwards map is induced by the universal property of the coproduct using the injective map from A and the section from B (which exists as the sequence is split) and the downwards map follows from the universal property of free modules using the maps out of A||
wait fuck ||A might not be finitely generated||
ahhhhhhhh so close
I have a feeling I may need a ||second exact sequence||
||I'm a bit confused about what's going on here. Where does the maps from A and B into R^n come from?||
If you just choose the right sequence, it could
yeah ||B needs to be finitely generated too||
I'm too used to that property man
I'm still confused with that assumption, but...
|| you have an exact sequence K -> F -> A, with F free. Since K is injective, the sequence splits, so A is projective||
oh there's a proof using derived functors that's rather nice
not quite what I'm after here 
since fucking when is that implication two ways
||that direct summands of free modules are projective?||
||no! That if a SES splits the image has to be projective?!||
||I ran into this exact question in my proof like 10 minutes ago||
||since the sequence splits A is a summand of F||
||yes, if the central module is free, but it could be anything||
||my whole proof strategy was trying to show that the central module HAD to be free||
||I'm confused. You start with A, then you pick some free module that surjects onto A. Like not every short exact sequence has the middle term free...||
I'll try and show it - ||maybe there's something with the universal property of the coproduct+free modules||
||yes, exactly - but inorder for C to be projective we have to show that for any surjective morphism out of ANY module, there's another one such that the triangle does its thing||
||what is C? Wut?||
||sorry, B||
I wrote C on my paper then changed it to B for the diagram
Okay, so your talking about what you wrote before now? I'm lost
the definition of projective is that for each surjective morphism between any two modules it factors through the projective module
||we require the middle term of our SES to be free in order to show that the right term is projective via being a direct summand of the middle term||
||however, by assuming that - we have failed to show that any surjective module between ANY two modules (not always free) factors through our right hand term||
it seems like each of these claims imply each other and not in a good way
||I just wanted to show that every module is a direct summand of a free module. Since that implies it's projective||
I think I'll just accept the ext proof
So you don't accept this?
I believe you dw
I just don't see why
I know that ||if the third term is projective then it splits - hell I even posted the proof like 30 mins ago lol||
it's the reverse direction
||like you have A, and you want to show that it's projective.
(i) There exist a surjection F -> A from a free module, agree?
(ii) This has a kernel so fits into a short exact sequence K -> F -> A, agree?
(iii) Since every object is injective K is injective so this splits, thus A is a summand of F, agree?
(iv) This implies A is projective.||
ok so I have the graph [\begin{tikzcd}
&&& I \
0 & A & B & C & 0
\arrow[from=2-1, to=2-2]
\arrow[from=2-2, to=2-3]
\arrow[from=2-3, to=2-4]
\arrow[from=2-4, to=2-5]
\arrow[from=1-4, to=2-4]
\end{tikzcd}]
and want to show that there's a map from $I \to B$, so I'm considering $B$ as an injective module, specifically the diagram [\begin{tikzcd}
& B \
C & I & 0
\arrow[from=2-3, to=2-2]
\arrow[from=2-2, to=1-2]
\arrow[from=2-2, to=2-1]
\arrow[from=2-1, to=1-2]
\end{tikzcd}]
since I want to eventually produce two maps coming out of $I$, was wondering if I'm on the right track or not
okeyokay
yeah that's what I've had in my head for ages
the problem is I just don't believe it - I know I'm being difficult but like
Like I'm supposed to believe that because 0 -> C_2 -> C_2xC_2 -> C_2 -> 0 is a split exact sequence of Z-modules so C_2 projective?
No, you're not supposed to believe that at all
Yeah, or you just want to produce the one map I -> B, but it should fit with the map you already have.
A hint can be to consider ||what do you know about A||
Which point in the proof is making you believe that?
Well I have to worry about something
hence my rather direct reaction 
cause that sequence immediately came to mind
So what's the theorem you're trying to get out of?
it's basically clifford's theorem for fusion systems
I'm like... 2/3rds of the way there
I think anyway - my supervisor hasn't commented yet 
What's Clifford's theorem
it's uhh
when you restrict a character to a normal subgroup you have that the restriction decomposes as a multiple of a sum of conjugate characters
mainly, they're all the same degree and have the same multiplicity
that part is proven!
it's extending that result to "the degree of the constituents of the restriction divide the degree of the character you started with" that's hard
now quick somebody post another question so I don't get scooped lol
Conjugate meaning like galois automorphism or what?
if you have a character \chi of a normal subgroup N <= G then precomposing \chi with c_g (the map sending x -> gxg^{-1}) gives you another character of N
and it sends irreducible characters to irreducible characters
Ah of course, that makes sense
fun exercise! (one I can actually do lol...)
I won't share anymore cause I am paranoid about getting sniped (it kinda happened to me in April lol)
That sucks, what got sniped from you? If you're at liberty to tell?
What is an ring-Chow???
I don't wanna say "scooped" cause that implies some maliciousness on their part lol - it was just unfortunate that we were working on similar stuff - it was determining when the representation ring of a fusion system was freely generated or not and doing some calculations on fusion systems on sylow subgroups of PSL(3,2)
I can send the paper if you want
Sure, don't know how closely I'll read it, but sounds good
Hopefully you hadn't sunked too much work into it.
I told my supervisor once that I wanted to look into tilting in exact categories. Then just like a couple of weeks later, I attended a talk called "tilting in exact categories". Pretty funny coincidence, but I can't really say I got scooped
nah - to be honest it probably saved me a lot of work and let me accelerate in other areas way quicker than I otherwise would have. But yeah it sounds a lot like your story 
you gotta have the mindset of "oh that's saved me a lot of work! I can't wait to read it"
just don't do it a week before my thesis is due in please ;3
Is your thesis not like a collection of papers you've produced over your degree?
yeah mine will end up like that
cause I'm nowhere near cracked enough to make my thesis be like, it's own contained work, like some people are
and also publishing as you go avoids this very issue
I wonder what Im gonna title my thesis. Like what actually is the common thread between the projects I'm going right now?
"various things about endomorphism rings of nice modules"
Does a ring-Chow have embedded categories?
"things that vaugely involves some generalization of tilting"
"what if we did character theory but on finite categories"
what is the endomorphism ring of Z_p^infinity
It's really unfair that rep theory of groups get all those nice character tables. Why can't I get a character table?
working on it boss...
simply study a ring that is isomorphic to a REALLY nice ring
fun question lemme think about it
ik the answer
My gut feeling would be p-addic integers
oh yes yes yes
wait there's a few other steps there
its like the inverse limit?
no, the direct limit
wait yeah it's not so simple
I had these two things in my head but they don't work out so nicely
Yeah, do abstract nonsense solution would be
$Hom(colim Z/p^k, Z/p^\infty) = lim Hom(Z/p^k, Z/p^\infty) = lim Z/p^k$
jagr2808
Hom(Z/p^k, A) = elements of A with order dividing p^k
yurrrrr cause u map the generator to any one of them
what type of math is this
this is the coolest shit ever
one of my favs is the like duality with like Hom direct product and sum
Category theory
okay category theory arc it is
Left adjoint preserves limits or some nonsense
lmfao yea i remembered
the currying one
Hom(M tensor N,P) is Hom(M,Hom(N,P))
lmfao this is dark magic
Ext and Tor are fun
What
ctorial
Sure
yea
i guess
someone here told me that they measure how bad hom and tensor are not left or right exact
so i just thought why are they so cool arent they just the ker/im
Yeah this is true
For example Tor^i will be 0 if ur tensoring with a flat module
They’re what happens if you take the left/right exact sequence you get from passing an exact sequence through some functor and just keep extending it
And no this is homology (which is related!)
hahaha wait why isnt it just ker/im
What do you mean by that
I dunno what you mean by that. If you have some exact sequence A -> B -> C and then tensor it you get a long exact sequence … -> Tor^i(B) -> Tor^i(C) -> A -> B -> C -> 0
Replace the is with 1
And add tensors in
I’m in mobile I cannot be bothered
You get the picture
yeahh
Please explain what u meant by that lol
I think you mean homology but I’m not sure
i meant like
like i just thought okay how much a sequence is not right exact
well then just mod out
ker / im
like
okay let me try to think of an example
if like u have some exact sequence 0-->A-->B-->C-->0
take some functor call it F
for F(A)-->F(B)-->F(C)-->0 to be exact we have to like see at each point the ker and im
so if u define the other functor to be just exactly that
then wont u get that its right exact by definiton
What does n_rt(a) mean
Positive real one? or any complex numbers which x^n=a?
like ker(F(B)-->F(C))/im(F(A)-->F(B))
Yeah that’s homology
And it does measure how non-exact a complex/sequence is
Tor/Ext are what are called derived functors and are specifically for tensor/Hom
As the derived functor to Tensor lol that is the definition - I think the Wikipedia definition is alright (or nlab if ur brave)
is this ideal not just {0}??
because 0 is in the set and {0} is a prime ideal right
wait
WAIT NO
that's only in an integral domain
tricky tricky stuff
what are some examples of rings with zero divisors that are not Z_n for n not prime?
M_n(R)
oh ya
R[x]/(x^2)
oh ya
wait.... this "set" would be a subring right?
C[G] with G a finite group
Hmmm
I mean yes it’s a ring
Depends if you need your sub rings to have the same identity or not
*multiplicative identity
right
well what if this set with zero divisors and 0 WAS the prime ideal
hmmm
i'm looking at Z8 rn lol
Then you’re in an integral domain and the result is trivial
Wait
Sorry misread
Entering mild divine orthogonality but other than that I’m as right as rain old chum
that wasn't sane
I would like group like structure for multiplication: Fₚ[√1] (but this does not make sense)
Sqrt of 1 is 1 so this is just F_p
i feel like contradiction is the way to go here... assume that given any ideal of this ideal it's not prime and deduce a contradiction from the fact that we're working with zero divisors and 0
I would like that √1 is treated as an extesion
so √1 √1 = 1, but √1 ≠ 1
So you want like, F_p[x]/(x^2-1)?
x² -1 is (x+1)(x-1)
This isn’t a field, it’s isomorphic to (F_p)^2 by the Chinese remainder theorem
That’s how you’d formally define a new square root of 1
*adjoin, not define
that was also my idea
Well there you go
As for the multiplicative structure uhhh I’m not sure how the unit functor plays with products lemme think
Right it should just be C_{p-1}^2 for the multiplicative group
if R is a commutative ring then R is immediately isomorphic to its opposite ring R^op right?
yessir
abstract algebra god?
is it true that if $\varphi: R \to R^{op}$ is an isomorphism, then $\varphi = id$? it seems like that's the case and I'm going to try to prove it
okeyokay
for commutative rings yes lol
it is NOT true for non-commutative rings which is why rings are a bad object
Wew no it isn’t lmfao
can't embed as a category? lame!
-1
what about it, loser
@obsidian sleet
what is even happening
The invasion
algebra
my divine connection is glowing like autumnal dayspring
anyway I uh suggest ceasing this exercise now that I've actually read it lol
well I'm trying to give an example of a ring R that's not isomorphic to it's opposite ring
if the identity is indeed a ring isomorphism from R to R^{op} then precomposition with the map multiplying by any unit gives you another non identity isomorphism
and I found that any non commutative ring works i think
because we must have $\varphi(ab) = \varphi(a) \circ \varphi(b) = \varphi(b)\varphi(a) = \varphi(ba)$ and so if $ab \neq ba \in R$ then our map would not be injective
okeyokay
uhhh lemme thing :glowingmind:
we have to map U to U^op which is natural so like w/e but then this doesn't play nice with addition so yeah
bro said addition
????
you have to extend it to a ring homomorphism you muppet
nah
alternatively T_2(F_2) is not isomorphic to it's opposite
addition = multiplication
le sigma algebra has arrived or something
where does the last equality come from?
This doesn’t make sense
hell, where does the first equality come from
it's insane!!! it''s crazzyy
Definition of homomorphism
nah
They used circ to mean the product in R^op
think about it real hard
well the first is the fact that it's a homomorphism with the opposite ring
the last part doesn't follow from anything
yea that's true
hard to think when the people in front of you are making out in the library
time to move
sorry I'll stop
lol wow, throw a book at them
join them
Babe no…
nooo not the wholesome bookerino
sorry bby.... okey''s grind comes first...
TTeppAllCrabsAreBlue
flex on them with your knowledge of advanced algebrum until they vacate the premises
i just had that stink with max and the mods come to mind recently and i wanted to honour it
first thought is no, any automorphism of a commutative ring is an isomorphism with the opposite ring, so just look for non-trivial automorphisms of some commutative ring
oh sorry I missed that
🤯
what about it, loser
lol wouldn't have said that if I saw that, sry
ngl I saw "id" and stopped reading
I should start implement similar practices
Tor and Ext end up being cohomology actually, the long exact sequences are the long exact sequences in cohomology
See “Wew Lads Tbh” and stop reading
I penanced for my sins
oops! What's that? You don't have a yummy can of unopened pringles on your desk?... yikes... sucks to suck ig....
oh shit that's facts
when I say it I get ignored I'm going to cry
pringles are salty
hyperbolic paraboloid
saddle
Two questions: i) Are root systems a special case of Coxeter systems ii) Have the finite Coxeter systems been classified fully?
okay i gave up on the exercise i'm sure it has something to do with considering the ring R generated by some chosen matrices or something smart but i'm no lin alg expert sadly!
wait what
yes, and the finite coexter groups have been classified fully and their corresponding diagrams are known
if you want to read about coexter groups I recommend Humphrey's book on them
what's the best way to show that I prime => I maximal in Z again? quotient it out and show it's a field?
yeah Z_p being a field is enough
Z_p 
I know the classification of the groups; I'm interested more in the systems
I figured it out. I am ret*****, thanks.
i feel like i should prove (i) implies (iii) first lol
but fuck it we going 1 --> 2 --> 3 --> 1
I'm also wondering about a possible analogy:
root system : Coxeter system :: compact simple Lie group : compact Riemannian symmetric space
I'm speculating this analogy exists. But forget the speculation. How are Coxeter systems classified?
lol trew! this I was assuming
ugh this problem is annoying
lol give it some time! not all questions are 5 minutes ones
you can speed this up by first showing that ||Z is a PID|| if you're not allowed to use that as just a standard fact
oh yea i'm using that fact
i feel like i'm close, i let a + I in Z/I and am trying to show that ar - 1 is in I for some nonzero r in Z
which implication is this for
uhh prime implies maximal
so i quotiented about by it and trying to show it's a field
I strongly suggest going the other way
ii => i is immediate for a start
and as you said so is i => iii (cause PID)
ok i'll try (ii) => (i) => (iii) => (ii) then
i feel like i'm getting somewhere with (i) => (ii) tho but idk might be hard to do
iii => ii is way easier to apply your quotienting idea to
That's the order my first thought would've been too
oh so (iii) => (ii) is just saying show Z_p is a field
exactly
which should be fairly quick via ||bezouts|| you probably don't need it but I don't care it's easy to remember
oh yea (a, p) = 1 => ar + sp = 1 => ar \equiv 1 mod p
here since a PID is a Bezout domain i could just say ar + sp = 1 is in (a, p) right
but that's like kinda cheating
Why would that be cheating
lol no, these are facts about Z, you're free to use them
We have machinery for a reason: to make our lives and proofs easier
same with prime factorization, that's used in a few of the implications too
It would be a waste to learn the machinery and then not use it
alright
then i guess i'll prove PID => Bezout domain then
i had a solution for this question before tho and it didn't use the fact that PID was a bezout domain
wait
oops
this is trivial isn't it
cuz I principal
J principal
I + J principal since we'er working in a PID
an I + J is an ideal
yo i'm actually a fucking moron. i'm trying to prove that in a PID irreducible => prime, and am assuming a divides bc and a does not divide b. trying to show that a divides c
holy shit i'm an idiot i've been sitting here for 20 minutes and have been able to make no progress
don't call yourself a moron 
bro i literally can't think of a single thing 💀
no
I think i've seen the proof for UFDs, and then just combined it with PID ==> UFD
Well okay then. Since a is irreducible, it should generate a prime ideal, no? Combining that with this should give a start
well i'm assuming i don't know that
why
Like are you expected to be able to prove literally everything from scratch for your midterm?
If not, then you should feel free to use results, assuming you've seen them in class or in assigned reading
yeah you're proving too much, like imagine having to prove the uniqueness of prime factorization whenever you want to use it, this question is specifically about Z, you should be using what you know about Z
I mean he might be on a different question now
But still. PID ==> UFD is a standard fact that you should be able to use.
yeah, i just want to get practice with using the definition of prime and irreducible and stuff
i guess not
how do people get insights
or how are ppl so creative
when it comes to proofs
like my dumbass just writes down definitions and tries to derive things directly from them
idk how you do it man
think more and be really, really patient
The developments you learn in a class took place often over like 50 years lmao
With some things being even further apart than that in earlier classes.
if you aren't getting enough sleep then go do that because sleep is the source of most of your creativity
i need to sleep more
Ig that’s true. I’m aboutta burn out lol midterms got me studying 7-9 hours per day
you're doing it how you should be doing it, it's tough to see the forest for the trees but seriously, you're not asking stupid questions or approaching things badly
learning math deeply is like a 5-10 year journey just to not be considered a "student" anymore, don't underestimate how hard it really is
thank you, yeah sometimes I need to really remember that math is hard for everyone ig
Yeah, I mean even when I started my masters I felt insecure compared to everyone else about my proof writing skills, being a basketcase around exam time like I was going to forget everything, then you hear phd students talk and you feel like a complete moron, everyone feels like that
You just need to prove that if f=gh, and neither g or h is a unit, g and h have strictly lower degree
In fields
In fact, this holds for entire rings, since deg(fg)=deg f + deg g for polynomials over an entire ring
it follows almost immediately from the definition
so what you have is that the degree of a unit is 0
fields are entire rings by definition, so it follows immediately
ah ic ty
i knew all degree 0 were units but i kinda forgot that all units are degree 0 -_-
for polynomials
This is a general thing. Any vector space of finite dimension n, which is F^n, over a infinite field F, can’t be equal to finite union of proper subspaces. Hint: consider vectors (1,x,x^2,…,x^(n-1)) : x from F
You also need to know that both deg f and deg g are less than deg fg, which isn’t necessarily true for rings that aren’t entire.
entire?
Integral
integral domains
i was actually wondering why integral domains were used with warning for the whole polynomial/factorisation topic i guess thats a good way to justify it
Because if you have f*g equals 0 for f and g non-zero
then obviously the degree is lower
yeah
a space vector by definition is an isomorphism of the characteristic field $F_{n}$, but it can also be quadratic in $F_{2}$ since being "finite" it is composed of quadratic unions.
This is not true for a Vector subspace, in general it is a technical contradiction (since it is not finite), you can prove that F_{2}=0 "for example" at each point of a Vector-subspace (where the latter does not have finite unions)
(I'm not properly awake, ignore me).
Damn it tropo. I thought we’d finally found a space vector…
cool, thanks! I'll write it out.
le vandermonde determinant has arrived or some such
Exactly
hey i did my linear algebra final project on this
@coral spindle but why is it trivial?
a finite field of size p^k has exactly k automorphisms - specifically powers of the frobenius automorphism, here k = 1 so the only automorphism must be trivial
I am not considering k, only p. Here the isomorphism is ordinary. Now in $k$ the isomorphism is not so trivial
Nice method
There's also a nice geometric ish method I know uh
What is it?
So suppose we have V our finite dim vector space and proper subspaces U_1,...,U_k. Let's assume that there are no containments between the U_i or we can just chuck one out lol. Then pick v in V \ U_1 and w in U_1 \ (U_2 u ... u U_n).
Consider the affine line L through v in the direction of w
Now U_1 doesn't intersect L (since if v + λw is in U_1, so is w)
this was the proof strategy I was trying to guide them down I think
oh lol
and then you show intersection with U_i has cardinality <= 1 by similar arguments
What's nice about this is uh i think it shows that this is impossible even with finite fields, provided like
k <= size of field
true
@delicate orchid I will try to explain, the only trivial or ordinary isomorphism is true for F_{p}\otimes{}F_{2} (where F_{2} is a quadratic field and finite in F_{p}) here is true the trivial-isomorphism under a finite-dimensional vector-space V.
In k the Isomorphism is not trivial, here for example the Abel-Jacobi map emerges.
I don't know what you mean "in k". k is an integer
Yes it can be integer, but under the isomorphism of an Abel-Jacobi map, that is why I affirm that in k the isomorphism is not trivial
you used the phrase "in k" again. That is nonsense. k is just a number. You asked why the finite field F_p has no non-trivial field automorphisms (well, that's what I presume you meant by "is an isomorphism of the characteristic field", because a priori that is nonsense), and I explained using a fairly elementary result in Galois theory.
I do not and will never care about whatever the Abel-Jacobi map is
This proof has been used in various contexts of the algebraic geometry
I don't care. A vector space is not "by definition is an isomorphism of the characteristic field", it is by definition a module over a field.
Being generous and assuming by "an isomorphism of the field" you meant "an automorphism", then this is obviously false. As F_p has no non-trivial automorphisms and yet has many vector spaces over it
Wasnt the Abel Jacobi map sending sums of points of an elliptic curve to the divisor class or something
is it relevant to the discussion of vector spaces over finite fields and is there an integer associated with it
well
relevant to the definition of vector spaces over finite fields
I dont really know about it, but when I breafly read about it, it was all over C 
a formal sum is principal if the p_i vanish of order n_i (if the n_i are negative then it will be a pole of the respective order, or the other way around idk) for some meromorphic function on X
This does not make sense, a characteristic field is by definition a vector field. Since the character is a polynomial.
@rotund aurora defines the Abel-Jacobi map (there are many people with new proofs like Voisin-Sacca for example)?
@delicate orchid What university are you from? ha ha ha
could you link me a source which defines a vector field
a characteristic field is a section of the tangent bundle of a manifold
right, ok then I can see that they're vector fields
now i must reiterate: what does this have to do with the automorphisms of F_p
Are there any more properties? If not isn't that just a vector field?

Bruh lol I was just joking
To me char field is meaningless or would refer to the prime subfield
that teaches me to simply go "oh yeah I guess vector fields do kind of look like that lol"
not making the connection that we're talking about a completely different kind of field like the moron I am
English really shot themselves in the foot with that one
The chat could have been called groups-rings-bodys
@rocky cloak I don't understand???
german moment
Neither do I man, neither do I
🇯🇵 does this too, I think because it's literally translated from 🇩🇪
群 (gun) for group
環 (wa) for ring
体 (tai) for body
"prove that ZxZ is not cyclic"
can't I just say that ZxZ is all lattice points on the cartesian plane, and since the identity of the group is the origin, and any generator I wish to employ must be a single lattice point, each potential generator can only generate a particular "line" of elements since for any two points on the cartesian plane, they must be colinear, and I need something that is non-linear in order to describe the plane?
or, I suppose another way to say it, the dimension of the associated vector space is 2, and I don't have enough linearly independent basis vectors to span the space if I only get to define one generator
Yeah, this argument makes sense(in an 'intuitive', hand-wavy manner)
What vector space?
A lot of languages take their terminology from German. 🇳🇴 is among them for example
Not super precise
Also not a vector space
Exactly
I kinda like this argument lol
Intuitively I have no issues with it, that's a good way to think about it
I mean not even intuitively, it shows that Z^2 must be 2-generated as a Z-module
It hasn't been 'fleshed out' properly, that's all
I ain't got no flesh it's all robotics on this mofo
sorry, don't have the word for "vector construction made with a scalar ring instead of scalar field" if it exists
free module
Lattice also works in this case.
like, this description makes perfect sense to me, and it's good I'm not barking up the wrong tree, but it's frustrating when I don't have the language to formalize the concept lol
Ring is かん not わ btw…
fuck I forgot
i did actually find out it was kan a few days ago because i was watching some videos
Yeah we use 音読み here
o
Never seen someone specifically write that out just to say on'yomi
Didn’t know it’s from German. I guess a lot are from German? Like ideal of a ring comes from number theory by a famous German mathematician ? I forgot his name
German
I was gonna type some patriotic germany nr1 thing but ended up having second thoughts

ich liebe deutschland jawohl!!!
Dedekind I think
Hm quick q so like uh so like
Could call that a combined effort I guess. Though I guess Kummer came up with the name
Let $D_i$ be divison rings over $\mathbb R$ and $n_i \ge 1$ some pos integers and $A := \prod_i M_{n_i}(D_i)}$ I know any f.g. module $V$ over $A$ is isomorphic to a direct sum of $D_i^{n_i}$ where basically $M_{n_i}(D_i)$ acts on $D_i^{n_i}$ by matrix multiplication and everything else acts trivially. Is there any simpler way of proving this than what I currently have: $1$) show that modules over a product of rings are in correspondence with tuples of modules over each ring (i.e. $(R \times S)$-Mod $\simeq $R$Mod $\times S$Mod) and then $2$) show that $M_n(D)$Mod $\simeq $D$Mod where $\mathbb D^{n}$ corresponds to $D$, so that every module over this matrix ring can be decomposed as a direct sum of copies of $D^n$
potato
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I suppose the first step is unavoidable, but for the second we could just write M_n(D) as a direct sum of copies of D^n and show M_n(D) is semisimple directly instead
this is kind of like a converse to Artin-Wedderburn?
But thenidk the fastest way to show that M_n(D) is semisimple with only simple module D^n other than using the correspondence I just wrote down
as you've said you know that A is semi simple
So I may just keep what I've got lol
Basically I am trying to write some intro to rep theory thing and trying to keep stuff as self-contained / easy as possible lol
Suppose there exists some arbitrary generator of ZxZ (a,b). because (a,b) as a generator means that all elements will be of the form (na, nb) the ratio of any elements generated by (a,b) will always be a/b. However, for all elements of ZxZ (a,b) there also is an element (b,a), and for any a != b, a/b != b/a which means that (b,a) cannot be generated by (a,b). ergo ZxZ cannot be generated by a single arbitrary generator (a,b). (also if a=b you can only ever have elements where a=b, but that last element of the proof is trivial)
Sort of. It's a bit weird, like rather than tyring to work out the A-W decomposition using reps or whatever, I'm findg representations given the A-W decomposition
yeah
Yeah, nice
So actually you have basically like
It's essentially the same proof as showing that Q^2 is not one dimensional
as a Q-vector space
and in fact you can use that fact for Q to deduce it for Z
with slight retooling we could do some kind of idempotent decomposition to find them
Yup
So really I just need to show M_n(D) is semisimple
I suppose you could just show the jacobson radical = 0 etc
that's easy - submodules of a semisimple module are semi simple right
or am I smoking WEED
using the ol $e_{\chi} = \frac1{|G|} \sum_{g \in G} \chi(g)g^{-1}$
Wew Lads Tbh
Hm sure
I do wonder what the fastest way to do this is lol
would you go for Jacobson radical
Tbf, I quite like the idea of using this correspondence since it's more structural
petition to redefine the object declension of weed as used ("we" is a subject pronoun with "us" as the associated object pronoun)
these project your big module A onto the M_n(D_i)s, via a -> e_{\chi}a
then J(A) = 0 => J(e_{\chi}A) = 0 right
So maybe I'll just keep that
Yup yeah
yeah sorry I'm getting distracted trying to prove this using idempotents when you've explicitly said you want it self contained
use the jacobson
Yeah and then ig i'd have to explain a bit about the Jacobson radical but that's probably nto hard
I like it, you can also check that (1, 0) and (0, 1) both being multiples of (a, b) leads to a contradiction (just a slightly different approach)
"prove that Z2xZ is not isomorphic to Z" uh, Z is cyclic, Z2xZ is not.
lol also Z2 x Z contains a copy of Z2 in it, but Z doesn't
yeah, that too, I've been getting drilled with cyclic groups for this chapter
I had just proven that ZxZ2 wasn't cyclic, so I just went "a pairwise cartesian product is isomorphic to its commuted product, see earlier example"
Oh yeah this is that funny thing from stack exchange I remember
Somebody was like uh
To show $\mathbb Z \times \mathbb Z \not \cong \mathbb Z$, note that $\mathrm{End}{\mathbb Z}(\mathbb Z) \cong \mathbb Z$, whilst $\mathrm{End}{\mathbb Z}(\mathbb Z^2) \cong M_2(\mathbb Z)$. The former is commutative; the latter is not.
Lol
End_Z(Z) = M_2(Z)
HOW
Anyway wew lads
Oh it's just a 2x2 matrix
you can send the generator boys anywhere
I think you missed a ^2
and there it is 
potato
Lmao
Anyway
Wew I have found a better way to do the matrix thing i said lol
I just forgot some stuff from my rep theory course
Lol cause we learnt a lot of in the specific case of group ring
the best thing about mathematicians is that we all know what we're talking about, but talking about math is hard so we all sound like idiots, so we can each individually feel like the smartest person in the room.
no I was going to go on a rant about the Automorphism groups of metacyclic groups how could you do this to me
Just show that M_n(D) is semisimple (since it is a sum of D^n)
and then like
f.g. module over ss ring is ss
gg
Lol
it's semisimple because it's a direct summand of a semisimple module surely
Wdym by "it"
Which semisimple module is it a direct summand of
Of which group?
Lol
Okay idk that feels kinda wrong way round though like finding a group
What I'm dealing with isn't like group reps
oh are we not assuming A is a group ring?
right then yes it's semi simple because of what you said
so in the middle of this section on cyclic groups, I get "show that QxZ2 is not isomorphic to Q" and I'm now mildly confused as to why it's here. Q is already non-cyclic, isn't it? it's equivalent to ZxZ*. so I can just go with "they're different sizes" but still
and I doubt there's a quicker way to show it unless J(M_n(D)) = 0 like SUPER obviously
it is not equivalent to ZxZ*, ZxZ* is isomorphic to Z2xZ
it's the field of fractions of Z which is what I think you wanted to get at but nvm we chill
and yes Q is not cyclic
@delicate orchid read this paper https://arxiv.org/abs/1502.04040
We show that a wide class of hypersurfaces in all dimensions are not stably rational. Namely, for all d at least about 2n/3, a very general complex hypersurface of degree d in P^{n+1} is not stably rational. The statement generalizes Colliot-Thelene and Pirutka's theorem that very general quartic 3-folds are not stably rational. The result cover...
I think you were getting vector spaces and vector fields confused
like I said, I always sound like an idiot.
we all do dw
but the heart of my question still remains: why is this asked here when this is the exercises for cyclic groups??
just a general confusion
Z2 is cyclic lol
well yeah, but QxZ2 isn't
same torsion argument works
haven't hit torsion yet
that's fine, I'll let you prove it
I may have accidentally used torsion in my proof for the integer variation, but I aint't got a definition to work with, so I won't find out for like 3 months at this rate
did you use the fact that there is an element in Z2 x Z that squares to the identity but there isn't one in Z
read the paiper,
no, just the fact that regardless of which "parity" of generator you choose, you can't hit everything, and there's no way to generate one from the other.
oh right yeah, chapter on cyclic groups
you either get {(0, 2k-1), (1, 2k)} or {(0, 2k), (1, 2k-1)}
interesting next question to self-study: is it possible to create a cyclic group through careful cartesian products of non-cyclic groups? My intuition says no, so it's time to go back and reread the chapter and prove it.
@delicate orchid , no I don't confuse vector space with field,
I think you can prove it right here and right now
I believe in you
I mean, if we have two non-cyclic groups, then for any subgroup with form (0,a) there's no singular element "a" to generate the entire group. This leads to entire swaths of inaccessible members of the product according to what element is in the first spot, mutatis mutandis.
latin... cringe!
but yeah, if you can't generate just H with an element of H how u gonna generate G x H with a single element
I'd do it in old Norse but it's not as catchy
it's more like I just have absolutely no idea what it means because I'm not a lawyer or a doctor
"changing what must be changed.". In other words, extend this basic argument to the rest of the idea, making adjustments as needed
if (a,b) generates GxH then (0,b) must generate H, contradiction.
Same vein as "the remainder of the proof is left as an exercise for the reader"
now find the cases where GxH is cyclic
Well, it is a necessity that both G and H are cyclic, to start with (from the above argument and its symmetric variant). I'm making lunch so I'll be figuring it out as I go.
I'm having trouble seeing why this is true rigorously
assuming commutativity
(p1, p2)=1
I can see that ord_p(x1x2)<=p1^a1 p2^a2 clearly
but not the other direction
ignore the subsript p
I'm assuming this is an abelian group
I'm going to just say ord(x) = a and ord(y) = b
if there was some smaller number, say d, such that (xy)^d = x^dy^d = 1, then d would have to be a multiple of both a and b, and since they're coprime, the smallest number that is both a multiple of a and b is just ab
one moment, slight technicality I missed
I'm having trouble seeing why x^dy^d=1 implies that d=ka and d= lb
that's the technicality I missed
certainly if x^d=1 and y^d=1 individually
yeah cause this doesn't hold actually
maybe I'm smoking weed
take a divisor d of ab and assume (xy)^r = x^ry^r = 1
then 1 = 1^a = x^(ra)y^(rb) = y^rb
this implies that a divides rb, but since a and b are coprime, we have to have that a divides r. Identically we obtain that b must divide r as well, so ab must divide r
thus r = ab
there we go
from wikipedia on order (group theory)
we're in an abelian group
yes
of course it's completely arbitary in a non-abelian group
<x, y | x^a = y^b = (xy)^k = 1> gives you a group where x,y, xy are whatever order you want
end of the third line is the result you're basically showing here
alternatively we could do something really funny and embed everything into some symmetric group and then the result follows from cycle length results
altenratively again, consider the orders of the groups C_a = <x>, C_b = <y>, C_a x C_b, because (a,b) = 1 there is an isomorphism from C_a x C_b to C_ab = <z> sending xy to z
shouldn't it be y^ra and b divides ra? where do we use that x and y are coprime?
this looks like it works as long as the gcds are relatively prime
oh never mind we don't need x and y coprime
we definitely do
the conclusion that a divides rb => a divides r is only true when (a,b) = 1
(a,b)=1 but not (x,y)=1
right I was thinking of Z_p as an example
and then I realized (x,y)=1 wasn't necessary for Z_p
so it works in any abelian group
Z_p is a field so gcd is pretty boring on it
Z_p isn’t a field
Z/pZ is a field
I understand the notation is overloaded but we were clearly talking about cyclic groups
and besides local rings are basically fields ;3
What about completions
slow your roll...
some general musings I haven't worked precisely through yet, but an example of a potential cyclic group is if the orders of the "factor" groups are finite and coprime. both halves of the element would cycle through their respective cycles until they eventually meet up, and since they're coprime, until you reach the LCM (which is the product of the respective orders) you wouldn't have any repeat elements. I think that should be enough elements to satisfy AxB
I'm not sure if that's the only way it can happen (because I haven't written it down to double check) but this seems to be the best setup for it. If they weren't coprime you wouldn't have enough members. I think having infinite order would cause problems as well.
you yourself have shown that Z/2Z x Z isn't cyclic
I have, which shows that it needn't be cyclic, but I'm just making sure in my mind that it cannot be cyclic if one or both members has infinite order.
I don't understand how the proof would change if you swapped out 2 for any n
it shouldn't. I'm also overthinking and conveniently forgetting that all cyclic groups are isomorphic by order
wow, nice to meet you phoenix from plato
I'm notoriously bad at going "this is a group, I'm still learning groups, therefore there may be possibilities I haven't yet considered" instead of "this is a group, if it satisfies the conditions, it's a group of X variety, otherwise, it isn't, all other properties are either irrelevant or derivable from the defining conditions"
just comprehend basic properties of isomorphism lol, and it wont require theorem proofs for your attempts at making exceptions
yo, if I'm considering $M = \mathbb{R}[x]/\bigl((x - 1)^2(x^2 + 2)\bigl)$ and I want to show that $M(x^2 + 2) \simeq \mathbb{R}[x]/(x^2 + 2)$, it would suffice to construct an isomorphism $\varphi: \mathbb{R}[x] \to \bigl((x - 1)^2\bigl)$ (since $\bigl((x - 1)^2\bigl) = M(x^2 + 2)$ by $f(x) \mapsto f(x)(x - 1)^2$ right?
okeyokay
and show that it has kernel $(x^2 + 2)$
okeyokay
What does your notation M(a) mean , a-torsion?
${m \in M \mid (x^2 + 2)^i m = 0 \text{ for some $i \geq 0$}}$
okeyokay
i'm a fucking moron tho, assuming that that was the right map I didn't even show that it had kernel (x^2 + 2) on the exam lmfao
but hey at least i showed it was an epimorphism
hopefully the grader knows where i was headed and knew i goofed
sucks when you find out your mistakes after the exam haha
yeah so ANNOYING
also there was a question about showing that if G is a nonabelian group of order 10, then there's only one Sylow 5-group, so I assumed for contradiction that there was another, then they must be conjugate (gHg^{-1} = K) and somehow deduced that either g was in H or in K, so H = K, was wondering if that's the right strategy?
this group is isomorphic to D_10
but
number of sylow 5-subgroups is 1 mod 5 and divides 10
so there's one sylow 5-subgroup, and the number of sylow subgroups is equal to the index of the normaliser
so it's normal
I mean if it worked it worked
true but i kinda vaguely said that HK = G without justifying it, then deduced that either g is in H or g is in K without justifying it as well, so...
If H and K are distinct, they make up 9 out of 10 elements
9 out of 10 elements recommend HK
So I guess there is one pesky last element that needs to be argued for
ok cool i said they must be distinct lol
But yeah, seems like this should be a fine argument. How detailed you need to explain it might depend on the grader though
Either way, I say good job
cool! thanks :)
the groups of order 10 are C_10.... and D_10.... the result follows....
100 marks
Any books or resources to learn how to work with group presentations? E.g. how to find all subgroups of a given group presentation?
pretty sure that's undecidable in general
if you have finitely presented you might be able to do Todd-Coexter
I see. Thank you
I don't have any book recommendations unfortunately
is there a reason you want to do this?
like is there a larger goal?
because like Wew mentioned, it's a really really hard problem
why does showing N(2) does not divide N(1+sqrt(-5)) and N(1-sqrt(-5))
imply that 2 does not divide 1+sqrt-5 and 1-sqrt-5
this is the norm function for reference
oh ic i assume im missing some basic number theory is it cuz if a|b then a^2|b^2? and just use the contrapositive of that? or is there some other reason
We know that Sₙ is generated by the transpositions (i i+1), where 1 ≤ i ≤ n-1.
But how do we actually go about writing some arbitrary element of Sₙ as a product of such transpositions?
Context: This came up when I needed to write an element of Sₙ (when examining it as a finite reflection group) as a product of simple reflections (i i+1).
Well, what’s (1 2)(2 3)
And the (2 3)(1 2), idc which is which because both are useful here
(1 2 3)
(3 2 1)
The first thing you probably wanna do is write an arbitrary transposition as a product of these, hint ||what's (i, i+1)(i+1, i+2)(i, i+1)||
After that you can sort of think about how you'd sort a full bookshelf. Like maybe you'd start by moving the book you want at position 1 there, then you'd move the book you want at position 2, etc until the bookshelf is sorted
The norm function is multiplicative, so N(ab) = N(a)N(b). So if 2 was on the form a(1 + sqrt-5) then N(2) would be off the form N(a)N(1+sqrt-5)
i follow what your saying but i still
dont quite see how that implies 2 does not divide 1+sqrt-5
im clearly missing something obvious i just dont know what...
So imagine 2 = a(1+sqrt-5).
Taking the norm in both sides gives
N(2) = N(a)N(1+sqrt-5)
So
4 = N(a)6
So if 2 was a multiple of 1+sqrt-5, then 4 would be a multiple of 6
Why does a Chow-ring associate an arithmetic measure for a subscheme?
This is producing linear-bundle of class $\mathbb{P}^{1}-$ at each point of the ring-Chow ?
ok so i totally forgot to finish this problem lol, is this right?
we have $ra + 1 = bs$ implies $ra - bs = 1$, multiplying by both sides gives
[ \begin{aligned}
x + y &= (ar-bs)(x+y)\
&= arx + ary - bsx - bsy\
&= ary - bsx
\end{aligned} ]
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
ig i could change the negative to positive since -bs = 0 mod b too
and then you can map bsx + ary to (bsx, ary) and x + y to (x, y) giving a bijection between <x> (+) <y> and <x+y>?
ig a shorter way is since R is a PID we have bezout's
so a and b coprime implies there exists r, s such that ar+bs = 1
then you get x + y = bsx + ary
How to prove that P in A[X] is irreducible with A integral domain, c an invertible element, d whatever element iff P(cX+d) is irreducible
I would love a hint plz
ig alternatively you have that Ann(<x+y>) = Ann(x) cap Ann(y) = abR = Ann(M) so <x+y> cong M?
but idk how to show equality
as opposed to isomorphism
this is true bc <x> (+) <y> and <x+y> are cyclic
Yeah, so what I was getting at was that
bs(x + y) = bsx = (ra+1)x = x
So the module generated by x+y contains x (and therefore also y)
ohhhhh ok
ah ic ty
Is there a formula for the number of matrices in SL(2, Fq) with any given trace? This seems kinda random to me but the numbers seem to be q(q-1) or q^2 or q(q+1):
Cool question
agreed
I have to say that the answer seems to be related to the order of SL_2(F_q) which is q(q+1)(q-1)
Yeah well, the sum of these numbers is q(q+1)(q-1) 😆
almost like trace is constant on conjugacy classes or something
Those multiplicands are to do with the maximal tori of SL_2
Dammit, I'm bad at this stuff
q+1 is the nonsplit torus, and q-1 is the split torus
q relates to the unipotent radical of the borel, all having trace 2
it's ok homedawg I nearly said "constant trace matrices form a subgroup" which is so false it's unreal
I think
the relation to parabolic subgroups is cool though
There's gotta be a way to use the fact that every element has a unipotent and semisimple part aghghahf
I can't see it yet
well we know by orbit stabiliser that the number of matrices with blah blah trace have to divide the order of the group
Nice observation
I agree with the torus nonsense. There's a copy of p_-^{1+2} in the non-split case and the split case is obvious
wait is that true. Probably
Yeah I've studied the nonsplit case in this particular case
Related to the calculations I've been doing, funnily enough
Le epic McKay
anyway
Hm I don't know what the trace would actually be in the nonsplit torus. Any idea wew?
I find it interesting that these terminologies (Borel, Cartan, split, nonsplit) are used in things like SL(n,p)
Bruh, they're finite groups
Well yes, it's a finite group of Lie type
You can use all the junk from SL(n, \bar F_p) in this finite group
Yeah I haven't had the chance to learn these things properly unfortunately :/
Join the club
Split = diagonalisable, I'm guessing?
Yeah that's pretty much it. There's some details.
So like Cartan or something
Right... so somehow the q(q-1) elements form a torus?
No it's just q-1 elements
q elements form upper unitriangular elements. That's the unipotent radical of the Borel
there are q-1 elements in the split torus. Those are just diagonal.
Then there are q+1 elements that remain. They're harder to spot.
Give me five minutes. Bonnafé has a book on representations of SL_2(q) where he has an exercise where you describe the nonsplit torus.
if it's what I think it is it's in James-Liebeck as an exercise
Yeah this gives us all we need!
one mo
the exercise is describing reps of SL(2, q) and you lift from subgroups of order q+1
The trace should be surjective from F_q^2 onto F_q right?
which sounds a lot like what we're doing
It sounds like Harish-Chandra induction lol
sure
You inflate from a torus to a borel, then induce to the whole group
that's Harish-Chandra
right?
the elements of order q+1 are of the form
\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 1 \ 1 & r+r^{-1}
\end{pmatrix}
with r \in F_q^2-F^q
does this look like the torus to you?
Wew Lads Tbh
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
fuck off my latex is divine
Wtf D:
Up
Suppose P is reducible, so P = QR for some Q and R, then P(cX + d) = Q(cX + d)R(cX + d), so P(cX + d) is reducible, and vice versa?
Wow im incredibly dumb, thank u
Oh I guess my code is wrong for q not prime lol
Is it important to define lattices
nothing is important; we are all going to become dust
Please elaborate on what your question means.
Doing number theory shenanigans, lecturer has decided to skip defining lattices
And modules but that's old news
Define dust.
So it sounds like it's not important for that lecturer
Yea but like, idk if I'm gonna be fucked later lol

I mean I'm lost now lol
Assuming that a finite group (ℤ/nℤ)* has a subgroup (generated by α) of large prime order p, is it possible that discrete logarithm with base α is still easy (for some n = k p + 1)?
Well he's using them now so idk
Which exercise is this?
I guess I still don't quite get it: you have a bunch of tori that are subgroups, but these constant trace sets are not subgroups at all, and I don't see how they're related
I have a copy of Bonnafe, and from what I'm reading I can determine the sizes of the conjugacy classes based on whether they're in the image of the d and d' maps, but that still doesn't tell me which conjugacy classes have the same trace so I can add them up
How did you get this? I can't find seem to find any such element e.g. in SL(2,5) :/
Can you guys give me some examples of normal subgroups of GLn(Z) other than SLn(Z)
The center
Is SLn(Fq) the unique index q-1 subgroup of GLn(Fq)?
Thanks. I can’t think of others. Is this classified? Like all normal subgroups of GLn(Z)
no idea, but definitely an interesting question
Do you have recommendations of books about general / special linear groups? I am interested in both general case, over a domain or something, and over finite field particularly.
Best way to hunt is probably kernel of actions.
Eg. action on the x-coordinates of all points
The trivial group
I see, thank you
i was tryna think of non-obvious ones but i cant 
Yeah there aren’t many normal subgroups in GL over a finite field so makes sense that there aren’t many over Z too
y'all, is it necessary for the left inverse of a function to be surjective?
uhh, I got this question while doing something else in abstract algebra so I accidentally ended up putting it here. My bad.
I assumed there was gonna be more to it
dont u get it after writing the defns down 
I figured this out: turns out Tr(k) occurs q^2 times for k = 2 and k = q - 2; it occurs q(q+1) times precisely if k^2-4 is a quadratic residue mod p; it occurs q(q-1) times for everything else
Thanks for the help!
Nicely done
me staring at the lists of numbers until God tells me what they mean
inshallah the funny numbers have a funny pattern
funny sequence I'm looking at atm
Yeah I had that intuition that it has something to do with quadratic residues, but I wasn’t sure exactly what until I proved it
found it.
Bruh
yeah that's the one

index of the normaliser of some subgroup of S_{p^2}
Gigabrain wtf
that's not the right expression lemme think
That would just be (p-1)^2