#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 158 of 1
if i >= m or j >= l then c y^i z^j is in a or b
im claiming that i >= m or j >= l for every term in the sum (y + z)^(m+l)
by the binomial theorem
either i >= m, or, if i < m, j >= l
I think I'm on the cusp of understanding, I don't think I'll get it properly until I write it out myself
Which I cannot do right now 
I understand this at least lol
Just not that verrryyy last implication (x^n)^(m+l) is in a + b
you are writing it as a sum of terms that are either in a or b
hence the sum is in a + b
Don't we need one term to be in a and the other to be in b
I think I see
If for a sum x + y we have x, y in a, then just write x + y = x + y + 0, 0 is in b so we now have a sum of elements in a and b and 0, and obviously 0 is in the radical of b, so the sum is in r(a + b)
Why do we keep explicitly stating that the elements are sums? Isn't this implicit in an ideal being an additive subgroup?
If y1f(x1) and y2f(x2) are in a^e then so is their sum
Because if you don’t write the word “sums” then it won’t be closed under sums
There’s a difference between {yf(x)} and {Sum y_if(x_i)}
What
LMAO
what
but why not
Doesn't closure under sums come right from additive subgroup?
Try an example lol
If you don’t close under sums it won’t be a subgroup lmfao
That’s what I’m saying
But it's an ideal
Prove to me right now that if you take the set {yf(x)}
That this is closed under sums
I forgot f(a) isn't necessarily an ideal lol
Even though they literally just said it
ahah
f(a) is very far from being an ideal, it won’t even be absorptive for multiplication
It is closed under sums though
I feel like you are more confused
f(a) = {f(x) | x in a}
Class just ended so I haven't gotten the opportunity to process your latest messages
Closed under sums, not closed under multiplication by B
{yf(x)| x in a} closed under multiplication by B, no longer closed under sums
{Sum y_if(x_i) | x_i in a} an ideal
aight thanks boss
Chm I still don’t understand but I sorta came up with my own justification? Does this work?
Let’s say a has elements a1, a2, …then Bf(a) looks like {Bf(a1), Bf(a2), …}
Each of these elements themselves are sets
I can't figure out what the product of Bf(ai)Bf(aj) is
Never mind I don't understand actually lol
If we take the sum Bf(ai) + Bf(aj)
Then you're just adding up bf(ai) + b'f(aj) for all b, b' in B
Rings are closed under multiplication so both summands are in B, rings are closed under sums so the sum is in B
Ah wait the goal is to make it an ideal
a to indicate a set 
I think it's supposed to be the set of all bb'f(ai)f(aj)? Lol
I is ideal
Yes
closed under products and sums
(correct me me idiot btw)
rx is in I for any r in R, x in I
Yes
Yes
Oh so I need to show why one isn't true
i didnt necessarily follow your convo so far
You mean for why f(I)
is not necessarily an ideal
Ur right - u need to pick an example and show one axiom no hold
But about generating ideals --- i will use the notation say
(S) to mean ideal generated by set S.
(S) = {...} ?
No, why Bf(I) is not necessarily an ideal until you say that it's the set of sums b_if(x_i) for b_i in B and x_i in I
So this boils down to you figuring what this has to be in general
Yes
So use each axiom one at a time
rx is in I for any r in R, x in I
x + y is in I for any x, y in I
Okay
(we can use an explicit example and say S = {3, 5} in Z)
so like if s is in S
you know that ??? has to be in your ideal
So the claim is that Bf(I) is an ideal
So I need to show that for any r in B and x in Bf(I), rx is in Bf(I)
And for any x, y in Bf(I), x + y is in Bf(I)
Well it isnt
Well the only thing u can do is provide an explicit counterexample
Oh
But im trying to tell you that this problem is more general
And it fundamentally boils down to figuring out the smallest ideal generated by a set. Smallest in the sense that its minimal. The intersection of all ideals containing that set
ZS for example is not an ideal
to give the appropriate analogy to your problem
Well abstractly Bf(a) is the smallest ideal containing f(x) for all x in a (by definition), but concretely the set of all sums \sum y_i f(x_i) is an ideal, it contains each f(x) for x in a, and must be contained in any ideal containing each such f(x)
Literally try to prove that you can factor a sum
You will have different coefficients on the f(something in I)
And you can’t in general find a single element to squish that into
You’re trying to go from b1f(x1) + b2f(x2) = bf(x) and you can’t do it
If you want an explicit example, consider the inclusion of k[x,y] into k[x,y,z,w] and the image of (x,y). If you look at zx + wy you can’t possibly turn this into a monomial
if b1, b2, have preimages or something it might be more possible
I thought it would be if x had a preimage
Then everything is happening in the image of A and it’s a done deal
how could x have a preimage, it’s a part of the domain 😭
💀
brain so dumb sometimes
Sorry I think I meant that if b1(f1) + b2(f2) = bz, there may not be an x such that z = f(x)
That doesn’t matter?
If you don’t put a condition on z and b and f are both allowed to be just “exist in B” then that equation is pointless
z = b1(f1) + b2(f2) and b = 1
I wanted to say earlier that
(S) = { sum r_i s_i }
which is all (finite) linear combinations of things in S, coefficients in R.
And then you could apply this to your problem by attempting to show set equality (f(I)) = {bf(i) : b in B, i in I} - showing both inclusions. One inclusion holds, but as chmonkey said, ull be stuck in the other (and once u are, this is instructive of how to construct a counter)
I cannot understand this and I don't want you guys to waste any more time trying to help me 😭
lol it's not a waste of time
It is with me
Maybe with someone who has a proper background in ring theory it wouldn't be
I'm trying to just visualize what a^e looks like right now
the important thing to understand is that by definition Bf(a) is the smallest ideal containing each f(x) for x in a. It's a purely abstract definition
now consider {all sums of r_i f(x_i) for x_i in a and r_i in R }
Yes
The thing I don't get is what if B is bigger than a? By the time you reach the last index for all of the x_i, you won't get every element in B in your linear combination (for one element)
proving that this is Bf(a) is actually super easy:
- the set of all sums is an ideal (prove this)
- the set of all sums contains each f(x) for x in a (prove this)
- if I is another ideal containing each f(x) for x in a, it must contain all sums of r_i f(x_i) (prove this)
that's really all there is to it
So do you just reindex B and then redo the sum and call that another element
its all possible linear combinations, you can choose whatever you want to put in it
if S is the set youre generating ideals from, youre allowed to pick any finite subset of S
then attach them with any coefficients from your ring
And then add.
I think I understand
Any linear combination can, at most, have |a| terms in it though right
yes, but theres also nothing wrong with having more
because
3a + 2a = 5a
if there are any repeated things from your set
you can combine (coefficients live in R)
Yes
Okay then let me rephrase, once you combine all the like terms then your linear combination will, at most, have |a| terms
yes
Okay
ive lost slight thread of what a is
I'm gonna say something maybe silly
isnt that an ideal from your domain?
your homomorphism need not be injective, so even less.
Yes
Yeah it could be less
This process sounds a lot like linear algebra
it is a bit like that, except no guarantee of "independence"
Do you know what a module is
what we are looking for is the span
span of S
or span of f(a)
Not formally, I know it's like a vector space over a ring instead of a field though
yes. thats all it is.
thats why it looks like linear algebra to u
the ideal generated by f(a) is the span of f(a)
i believe youre actually looking at the module
of a ring over itself
and the span in that context
yeah, and in that sense ideals are like vector subspaces, closed under addition and scalar multiplication (by elements of R)
oh right of course
Good motivation for why modules even exist
ideals are additive subgroups
Yes
ideal over a ring is therefore a module
You can turn B into an A module I think too
module is abelian group over a ring
Is there an analogue to Hamel bases?
It's a type of basis for an inf dim VS
no, there are modules with no R-basis
In linear alg, all linear combs have to be finite
cus there is no analysis
dunno what an infinite sum is
that's one of the first differences you see between linear algebra and module theory, the existence of bases
Also, consider, {2, 3} span Z as a Z module
thats how direct sums differ from cartesian products. Direct sum - can only be non-zero on finite number of coords
There’s a basis for Z here even
You just can’t reduce that spanning set to it
You can have modules where na = 0 for a not equal to 0 too ofc
Even when your ring doesn’t have zero divisors
lol you can think of module theory as "lets see what happens when you have a vector space over a general ring instead of a field" and you discover all the easy stuff from linear algebra isn't as easy anymore
its interesting there isn't a "trivial" example to demonstrate your point of confusion here. I don't think 
your rings have to be a bit 'bad' in some sense
If your ideal is principal, pretty sure it doesn't come up
so not PID
Agonizing
I have reached the end of the chapter 
It’s a functional analysis thing where you require a topology
Hamel bases
It lets you avoid the annoyance that there’s no countable basis for an infinite product of the field
chapter? what topic? what book?
Chapter 1 AM
a Hamel basis of a vector space V over a field F is a linearly independent subset of V that spans it.
algebraic basis
i see, its just the generalisation in the sense basis is at first defined only for finite ig?
now it's time for the exercises 
it is the one defined for where linear combinations have all scalars 0 except finitely many i think
oh to differentiate between topological and la basis
the other is schauder when you have norm or sumthin
so aoc refers to hamel right
then there's Hilbert/orthonormal basis
exercises? what book?
Yes
uh well AoC is also used in the proof of Hilbert basis existence
it's pretty similar
Are they not equivalent?
i mean is hamel the strongest
in the sense if hamel exists, the rest do?
or do we have other defns kindof independent
hmmmm
hamel always exists
With axiom of choice
well existence of Hamel for every vector space is equivalent to choice in ZF right
yh
which is a truth
🙄
Based, but we’re talking about aoc rn
oh ok, i take it the rest need not always exist
I'm not sure if existence of Hilbert in every Hilbert space implies choice in ZF if that's what you mean
Afaict
I'm seeing so many terms I recognize
this is exciting and scary

wait why are we in #groups-rings-fields
modules
idk something about bases
#groups-rings-modules-fields 
Boolean rings, algebraic closure, spectrum of a ring, …
convo took a curve
oh shit
apparently this is open 
no idea what a hilbert basis is
Imagine talking about the axiom of choice and Schauder based in #linear-algebra lol
Ummmmm he didn’t say linearly independent huehuehuehue
who
I said orthonormal 
exdee

what am i missing here what the joke
The joke is orthonormal implies linearly independent
i totally didnt get module shit 3 yrs ago. Can confirm doing nothing teaches u math
yo 9 is trivial right?
cuz its a pid so i get maximal ideals
if R is not a field
the -> direction
and for <- u cant have them intersect
cuz they would be associates ig
I didn't understand modules 2 years ago either, can confirm reading about modules makes you learn modules

Dumb/trivial question: "By an $A$-algebra we mean a module together with a bilinear map $g: E \times E \to E$. Does this imply that $E$ is an $A$-module?
okeyokay
or rather E is an A-algebra if and only if E is an A-module equipped with a bilinear map
Isn't that what they are saying
Tbh there are various different definitions of an A-algebra
This is like what lol nonunital nonassociative
What else would it be a module of tbh
Z
anyone?
Is the group ring Z[C_3] isomorphic to the Eisenstein integers?
yeah E is an A-module (when they say "a module together with" it should really say "an A-module E together with...")
No, but Z[C_6] is. Remember that the Eisenstein integers adjoin a primitive sixth root of unity to Z, rather than merely a primitive 3rd one.
Then what is Z[C_3]?
math is math
But can’t you represent a sixth root as a third root times -1?
Oh hm yes I see what you're saying
BUT
We don't have the same relations in any case
But now that I mention it, we don't have the same relations for ZC_6, so I spoke too early
Adding together the elements of the base group doesn’t result in 0 in Z[C_3].
Yes exactly
ZC_3 is iso to Z[x]/(x^3-1) whereas the Eisenstein integers Z[omega] is iso to Z[x]/(x^2 + x + 1) or equally x^2 - x + 1.
I think it should be clear the two are not isomorphic just from the fact that one is a domain and the other is not, in that case
I thought that ZC_6 would be isomorphic because of something I know about the relationship between the group ring and the group of units, but I made a mistake in the logic there that was clumsy.
can somebody help me understand this part of the easy proof? it's kinda on the tip of my brain but i'm too smooth brained to spit it out
If your group has torsion, do you have zero divisors?
Wtf are the eisenstein integers
Z[w] ig
This?
ZC_3 is a rank 3 Z-module, whilst Z[omega] is a rank 2 one
actually are there more meme arguments
Is this rank similar to tensor rank?
anyone up
o well let me know about these as a problem set
they’re the problems that interested me
Too many interesting problems wtaf
I need to pick out of these 😭
If I had to pick even fewer out of those then I’d say
1 - 4
7
13
15
19
26
What do we think of those
That’s still 10 problems yikes
If I had to pick even fewer from these I would take out 7…? But that’s it…the rest of them are just too damn interesting lol
i'd just say just do enough to feel reasonably comfortable with the material, then continue on
because otherwise you could spend a good bit of time here
lol
i don't think it really matters that much which channel you put this in
i think it's more so a the intro material belongs here and not there
That’s why I’m asking y’all, idk how much is that much
and also bc idk which of the exercises I like are actually good
for developing your skills and testing your knowledge
i think the statements in 2 are nice to know, but proving some of them are pretty tedious lol
I’m studying commalg to hopefully move to ag so I feel like 2 is important
now 3 sounds hella tedious
but unfortunately also really important too
i think there are definitely statements where you can just use them without having proven them prior, (e.g. 3 if you have already done 2)
i think it'd be a better use of time if you just did say like 5-6 problems here you aren't sure how to do immediately and then continue onwards
10 problems is a bit much
1, 2, 4, 13, 15, 19
Ahhh but there’s nothing on maximal ideals
I should cover that
Wait yes there is
4
2 is so exhausting though and I want another problem with maximal ideals
I think I’ll skip it and replace it with 7 unless it’s one of those problems that’s strongly recommended to do
1, 4, 7, 13, 15, 19
this is a typo and should be G_p, right...?
ye
thx
So yesterday John recommended I go through this German professor man dude person guy bro’s excellent algebraic geometry notes to get some motivation for learning this stuff
He said it really comes to light when you see the geometry behind the concepts
I skimmed the notes and I don’t really see what he means
but I’m sure that’s because my algebra is weak and perhaps I still don’t properly understand what geometry is lol
this German professor man dude person guy bro’s
In my mind geometry is the study of shapes, distances, angles, curvature, and how these properties transform via diffeo/homeomorphism or affine transformations
Both globally and locally
I did not see any of that…? Though I didn’t get far
yeah his name was some long name that starts with a G
What notes are those 
Like Gimo and Gilluminator
Yes Gathmann
🤔 if you want that shouldn't you be doing diff geo
Oh no I’m not saying that’s what I want, just that that’s what my interpretation of what geometry is was
So is that wrong? What else is geometry?
I mean I do want that but I’m also open to more, I’ll come back to diffgeo one day
all i know is hilbert geometry
no one appreciated my joke :sadge:
homeo is topology
it's not geometry when a triangle is a circle

Now write out an explicit homeo
Is the reason Gathmann uses the normal subgroup symbol for ideals because ideals play a similar role in ring theory as normal subgroups to group theory?
Most people do
Yes
You quotient by the ideals and their multiplicative property looks similar to how a normal subgroup is defined
I see
you would
What else is geometry then?
Or rather
What is geometry*
idk, sheaves
it's geometry if there's sheaves and it's sheaves if there's geometry 
The study of properties preserved by transformation groups
Borger king
I'm at burger king with my burger queen can I get a large fries
it's just a vibe
What’s a transformation group? Like S_n or Aut(G)?
a group that transforms
Like the group of Euclidean transformations
rather, it's a group that's acting on something
(This is the 'Kleinian' geometry)
an example that comes to mind is like - all of alg geo 
What group actions do we consider in algebraic geometry?
depending on what vibe you get from it it can be geo or not
like localisation can either just be "add in fractions so you only have one prime ideal" or "zoom in onto a specific neighbour hood of a point on a varieity"
mfw all math is just vibes
one of those interpretations is clearly geometrical
I feel like AG is born out of doing geometry (in the sense you suggested) to algebraic curves/surfaces etc.
A question like "is y^2 = x^3 smooth, or does it have a singularity?" Seems like a geometric question.
I agree
Is it true that at some point the geometry starts disappearing and the algebra takes over 
it's all algebra
The whole point is that the geometric questions become reflected in algebraic ones
So yes the geometry disappears in that sense, but in fact it is just a change of perspective that occurs
Rip intuition
No you just gain new intuition
My ring is reduced, so my space is connected. Stuff like that.
"my category has a terminal object so it's compact"
but how does the latter interpretation relate to what potato said
what properties are we worried about being preserved and under what transformation group?
my question is why do you need a definition of geometry
Curiosity and so I can better understand what math is
Why does anyone else study this stuff?
Wew prolly knows something I don't but personally I do not see algebraic geometry as fitting in with Klein's programme
I know next to zero alg geo dw
Defining fields of mathematics is a relatively hopeless task.
I see
I would say that algebraic geometry doesn't yet seem like geometry to you because you have not gotten used to it yet
I can define analysis
Blah blah, Von Neumann quote, etc.
I have two different definitions of analysis
One is directly about calculus and the other is just “approximating things”
Wat
kekw
analysis is "what happens if thing goes towards other thing"
algerba is "what happens if thing times by thing"
A lot of variety stuff is just rando black magic imo
But sheaves are geometric
Since, ya know
I don't know actually
I know nothing about sheaves lmao
I did 
gg that’s a model for sheaves
brb I'll look up the definition of a sheaf
I have no idea what this means
the morphisms between X and R in C
continuous functions from X to R lol
what only algebra does to a mf
Ig if Klein says that geometry is what is preserved by isometries, then sheaves say that geometry is what is described by the maps out of it 
oh so it's like the 1-simplex ok
just write Hom_Top you weirdos
how is it like a 1 simplex
To me it makes sense that k[x, y] is the ring of polynomials on a plane, k[x] is the ring of polynomials on a line, and k is polynomials on a single point.
Then ring maps between them corresponds to maps of geometric objects, makes perfect sense.
Then you have things like k[x]/x^2, where a map k[x, y] -> k[x]/x^2 corresponds to taking a Taylor expansion at some point in some direction. So this is also like a ring of functions on a point, except with a little bit of derivative information. It's like the ring of functions on a tangent vector!
So this relationship with rings helped find natural spaces we didn't have before
And then just extrapolate to all rings and that's affine schemes I guess
homology
Isn't that I → X
it is
brohomology
Can you explain informally how k[x, y] -> k[x]/x^2 is like taking a Taylor expansion? What do you mean “in some direction”; how do we get a sense of direction in a ring? Why does the y variable disappear in this map?
Linear approximation?
Why wouldn’t you need partial differentiation to do that in multiple variables?
Or some notion of differential
in some direction
Hm ye what do objects in alg geom look like actually
"Solutions to polys" feels like local deformations are not a thing
a scheme is like if a manifold and a variety had a baby
and fed it some metamphetamine and ketamine
on a daily basis
for 5 years straight
Manifolds feel almost the opposite
idk I don't know enough alg geo to have a big say in these things
but the defns are very similar
manifolds are varieties frfr
french moment
beat my wife to it
how do I represent the affine space n dimensional euclidean space in gruop notation (some sets, some actions)?
for an affine space $A = (P, V, +)$, we know that its composed of a set of points P, a vector space V over some field F, and a scalar action +
but if i try this for eulidean space, P is the set of n tuples that is not a vector space $P = {(x_1 ,x_2, \dots, x_n) \mid x_i \in \mathbb R} \equiv \mathbb R ^n$
and V is just the vector space $\mathbb R ^n$
How do i notate euclidean space $\mathbb E ^n = (\mathbb R ^n, \mathbb R ^n, +)$, but like how do i differentiate between the two $\mathbb R ^n$?
TheHappyDragon
You don't differentiate
Abusing notation is fine
R^n is a vector space, but i want to express n tuples that somehow arent a vector space
ah i see lmao
i got used to abbreviating R^n as a vector space that i forgot about it was shorthand notation lol
^
thanks
an example where you need to differentiate would be something like a a plane H that doesn't pass through the origin. This isn't a vector space, but if you fix a point on the plane as the "origin", say p, then you can think of it's associated vector space as { h - p | h in H}. Effectively these are vectors you can translate elements of the plane by
well yea thats just the classic example of an affine space
yeah, so in the example of P = R^n the associated vector space is just R^n again, so just abuse notation and don't differentiate lol
idk just write funny arrows above the elements of one and don't the other. Go wild
or for E^n just say P = R^n, V = R^n, and differentiate that way by writing like p + v for p in P and v in V
OR you can use the notation (R^n)_p like the tangent space at p
so say (R^n)_0 for P and R^n for V
that's probably the most consistent
hi, could someone tell me what d = (m,n) is supposed to mean in this context
Gcd
fun exercise
baby's first lagrange
yeah this is probably to introduce lagrange
like "look how cool this is! and look how we can generalize it!"
as if the proof I just did wasn't overkill ||use bezout's lemma LMFAOOO||
||tbf I would've also used bezout||
||fairs, there's probably a nice easy way we're missing||
in the book they did it like this
what is bezouts lemma
Integers are a bezout domain
what’s a bezout domain
basically that gdc(a,b) can be written as a linear combination of a and b (with integer coefficients)
a domain in which bezout's lemma holds
I’m confused about that definition actually
Isn’t the definition of gcd the r such that (a, b) = (r)
no it's lcm(a, b) = r then r is the gdc of a and r
E.g. Consider (2) and (x) in Z[x]
Bezout ufd is pid
Bezout noetherian domain is pid
Yes that is obvious
I was confused how you make a definition which is not tautological
You mean (a,b) as in the ideal of Z generated by a and b? Then yeah, (a,b) = (gcd(a,b)), that's one of the motivations for abusing notation and using (a,b) instead of gcd(a,b)
I was wondering how you define gcd, I was under the impression for some reason that it only makes sense in a PID, but I see what you’re meant to do in general
it's the largest d such that d | a and d | b
but in terms of ideals if d = gcd(a,b) then (a,b) = (d)
lol it's definitely an abuse of notation, it just works well so we do it
Considering there is no notion of 'large' in a general ring, it's clear this definition isn't it
Furthermore, in the ring Q[x,y] it's fair to say that x and y are coprime, yet (x, y) is not (1)
I guess the correct definition is (a, b) = (c)
For bezout domain
Then you don’t need to introduce the gcd in an ad hoc way or assume ufd at all
We can define the GCD up to associates as the largest in the divisibility preorder, but typically this won't exist
oh well yeah, in a general ring you'd say d = gcd(a,b) if
- d | a and d | b
- if d' | a and d' | b then d' | d
And you get interesting examples like holomorphic functions on C and the Robba ring
This doesn’t have to exist
this is a nitpick but isn’t it antisymmetric hence a partial order too
Just units in general
right, you guys are in a field?
No
No then there’s no point in any of this
why not
Because everything divides everything
oh
Except 0
true, not all rings are GCD domains (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/GCD_domain)
In mathematics, a GCD domain is an integral domain R with the property that any two elements have a greatest common divisor (GCD); i.e., there is a unique minimal principal ideal containing the ideal generated by two given elements. Equivalently, any two elements of R have a least common multiple (LCM).A GCD domain generalizes a unique factoriza...
I can't tell if tteg is still trolling anymore 
I actually didn’t know any of this lol
I’ve never thought about “gcd domains” in my life
I feel like I'm being gas lit again
What's so special about PIDs? Any element in your PID can be written as a product of principal ideals?
uh wdym
Or rather a unique product
Well you know what I mean lols
Well I suppose yes being a UFD is one of the important bits but also we wish to study ideals generally and this is one of the easiest cases
But then some of studying ideals just comes from wanting weaker notions of factorisation too so hm
all ideals are generated by a single element
Yes
Just to be clear you mean each ideal right?
is generated by a unique single element
😎
for all (ideals) there exists (an element) that blah blah blah
Yes
so divisibility works exactly how it does in Z
not unique
unique up to unit
That's what I meant, any ideal (element) can be written as a product of principal ideals (elements in those ideals)
intersection rather than product no?
same thing
same thing if ur a nerd perhaps
i would normally write a product
Isn't it only the same thing if the generators are coprime
because it's nicer and more tangible in this case
well okay they aren't the same thing in general
but the statement is invariant under changing intersection to product
also
isn't it unique in the sense of how equivalence classes are unique (up to representative)
that's what you guys mean by up to unit?
yeah I realise that now - my apologies
that'd be kinda tautological ig
no dww
yo can someone just check my reasoning here
we're saying that if (a) = (b) then a = ub for some unit u
In fact this is one of the nice things about factorisation of ideals lol
units are immediately taken care of
So yeah an ideal has a unique factorisation as a product of prime ideals in a PID
And that's actually unique (up to permutation of the ideals lol)
Ah yes I should've said prime
Have you done any / are you doing any algebraic number theory
No to both
what's the definition of two elements being associates?
I've not touched number theory at all
oh that's surprisingly relevant to the convo happening atm
Basically feather like
yea once i see X is a field ik everything is juist obvious
so i just skipped it
like i just assumed its not a field instantly
lol
but for the <-?
an infinte number? that surprises me
Why I mention number theory feather is that lots of (at least basic) stuff in alg nt is about factorisation of ideals lol
like you can do some stuff with more general rings than PIDs
which is nice
I'm probably thinking about this wrong anyway - in my head I'm attempting a block-decomposition esque thing lol
(the relevant notion i mean is that of dedekind domains)
Isnt this like the original motivation for ideals? I.e. ideals are "ideal numbers" in the sense that they satisfy unique factorization in rings of integers even when "numbers" dont
yeah lol
who are you talking to right now
who is it you think you see?
could you explain how not being associates implies they must have trivial intersection?
I see the LORD
His light RAINNSSSS down on me
i am not in danger skyler i am the danger
if there exists some x in both (a) and (b) that implies that x = ra = r'b but I don't see how to conclude that a = bu
its because then
over a pid
u factorize each of these elements in R
and then u divide by that unit element u get from the factorization
and by uniqueness of factorization u get that the irreudcibles are associate
does this work
thats what i had in mind
idk if it works tho im asking u ur the master here
ah I see so, ra = u(x_1...x_n) = r'b with u a unit - with one of the x_is being a and another being b as irreducible => prime
so this means that r = ur'
very cleaver...
yeah I think that works
omg
i cna do it
never bow down never what
time to apply to my local grad school
that has 2 high school teachers
time for glory and money
||i am delusional||
welcome to the cluub
NEVER BACK DOWN NEVER WHAT?
btw its not n
i think
they are infinite
are you allowed to do that? is that legal?
wdym
I've only seen it as a finite product
yea ur right
but then this doesnt work tho right?
cuz why must one of the x_is be a or b
a and b are prime factors of ra and r'b
as they're irreducibles and therefore prime (they generate maximal ideals)
so they have to appear in the factorisation up to a unit - which we bring to the front to make one PHATT unit u
wait are these rings commutative
no
you still just have the unit at the front by definition of ufd though right?
yeah true
ok
so yeah nvm
oh yeah I'm conflating ufd and ufr in my head
rip
and my brains not working
if (a) intersect (b) is non-trivial then we can pick some non-zero x in the intersection
so x = ra = r'b for some r, r'
as this ring is a UFD we can therefore write ra = u(x_1...,x_n) = r'b
since a, b are irreducible they're prime - and so must appear (up to a unit) in the factorisation of ra, r'b i.e. a = x_i and b = x_j for some i, j (this can also be seen by the fact that x is in the intersection of (a) (b) and so must be a multiple of a, b)
ok but now I'm not seeing how I concluded r = ur' - from this we'd have ra = ur'b but then that doesn't imply that a = ub at all
we can definitely conclude that ra = ur' and r'b = ur
okay
wait something has gone wrong here - ra = r'b but ra = ur'b
wait
no nvm that's fine
So are you trying to prove that if a PID has infinitely many primes, then J(R) = 0?
yeah
yeah
I think
I was just trying to prove that uhhh if two maximal ideals are disjoint then they can't be associate
Then you just take the intersection though right
yeah
yea exactly
But if they're associate, then clearly they generate the same ideal
its because if u put divide u
if u divide u
then u get two prime factors for the same element
I see you want to prove that (a) = (b) implies they're associate?
yeah actually I think that's what I was doing
If b = ar and and a = bs, then a = ars -> rs = 1
u have u(a1a2a3...)a_i=u'(a4a5....)a_j right
so i thought i would divide by u
then get that each a_1 must be associate to each a_4 for example?
i dont think this works
tbh
cuz they are the same element :d
ok so the dudes are disjoint or equal lemme think about how this implies semisimplicity
yeah ok got it
I think
R decomposes into a direct sum of aR
right? for a irreducible?
but those aren't simple, about as far as you can get from being simple actually
Remember that Moamens definition of semisimple is stupid
For example Z is semisimple
J(R) = (x) because PID
let alone the intersection of all of them
x is a product of primes p1 ... pn. We have infinitely many primes, so take p not in this decomposition. Then x is not a multiple of p, thus (p) does not contain J(R), contradiction.
Hence x is 0
oh that's way quicker
Now I'm wondering, so a field has 0 primes, Z has infinitely many, k[[x]] has 1. Are there PIDs with 2 primes, or n?
Hmmm, what about something like the subring of Q where the denominators are not divisible by either 2 nor 3?
Okay, yeah I think that should work
yo yo
just quick check
for like "rigor" and stuff
so J(R) contains no nonzero idempotents
this is true over any ring correct?
even if R is not an integral domain
cuz u go 1-e is invertible
so e^2-e = e(1-e) = 0 --> e = 0
?
Should be true even for nonunital I think
yea but i mean
this proof that i just wrote
why did i not say either e = 0 or 1 -e = 0?
cuz 1-e is invertible
correct?
Yes
gotchu
Wouldn't localising away from finitely many primes work? A localisation of a PID is always a PID.
tysm
i love this fact it saved me in a hard ass problem in the undergrad test
Yeah, that's the conclusion I came to aswell
u guys say these things that really make me do double takes
I get that unit plus nilpotent is a unit but (-e)^n = e for all n > 1
block decomp R = eR+(1-e)R = eR+R = R? I mean maybe?
But e=0
I'll just accept I won't get this one
For the nonunital case, choose x such that
-e -x + xe = 0
Then multiplying by e
-e -xe + xe = 0 -> e=0
I can name tens of thousands of idempotents in commutative rings that do not have the property that 1-e is a unit
yea cuz they aint the jacobson radical tho
@rocky cloak hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
this
characterization
of J(R)
is not
true
over nonunital rings
tho
thanks ||daddy||
Bruh
Wut, I thought that was your definition of J(R)???
one direction uses that 1-xy is invertib le for x =1
no king
my definitoin is the intersection of all left regular maximal ideals which is the intersectino of all annihlators of simple left R-modules which is the intersectino of all left primitive ideals
wake up its the first of the month
if R is unital
I lied - I get it if the nilradical is the jacobson radical it's obvious then
then this is the same as {x |1-yx is invertible for all y}
the way to do it is
to show that a is in J(R) iff Ra is a left quasi-regular ideal
i thinnk
Okay, so not the sum of quasiregular ideals?
Right, so then this works
... and all it's elements are quasiregular right
yea
yeas
its a quasi-regular ideal itself

There’s some clown definitions of things
yo math is literally cool af
^
i dont wanna learn new stuff
i wanna solve more problems
why does it have to take 3 years
But new stuff also cool
Because mfs like Scholze and Gelfand and co. keep pushing things further and further back
wait u chose r such that r+e+re = 0?
why do u have negatives 😄
2 things are negative, one thing isn’t
Well -e is also in the radical, so that should be okay. Just need the signs for things to cancel
r+e = re
Wait I’m a little silly
me too
0 is prime iff it's an integral domain
Sometimes obvious statements only appear really obvious after you explicitly state them 
Even though that one is just run the definitions twice in each direction
Yeah
Yeah LOL
anyone has notes
or a pdf
for semisimple rings
i dont like covering them from hungerford
too much talk
Certainly prime, but if is it a number
❓
who wants
to build the whole basic theory
of semisimple rings and modules
in the discord chat with me
i only have two things that i can do alone now
i have the definition of a semisimple R-module ( which is the direct sum of simple R-modules )
and i can prove only one fact
that sums and direct sums are the same here
that is if we have a module that is only a sum then its also a semisimple module
who can prove that this definition is equivalent to the fact that it is left artinian with zero jacobian radical
fuck
jacobson
Proving that it's left Artinian should be easy, since an ideal is just a submodule. Then the proof that the radical is 0 I think you've gone through here before
yes eren jeager
thats what i like
to tell me if a proof is do-able by my own or not
like it would bea complete waste of time to try to prove on my own that Tor(M) = R/(a1) + R/(a2)... over a pid
so idk
i will try to do it now ty
but wait do i say that a ring R is semisimple if its semisimple as an R-module over itself?
wait
okay u went over something here for me i think
since its a direct sum of simple R-modules
a submodule would be isomoprhic to a simple R-module?
or what
wdym
A submodule would also be isomorphic to a sum of simples, but fewer of them.
Yeah
yoo wait
i have a bad question
arent direct ssums nonzero only for finitely many indices
why cant we
like why
yea so
these things are ideals right
so they are closed by left multiplication
wait
nvm im lost
What is the question?
yea just nvm forget it
let A be a semisimple ring
so an ideal of A would be a submodule which is again semisimple
okay wait
i prob know the answer to this
cuz i know math fucking sucks
but here is a question
is ANY sum of artinian rings artinian
or must it be finite
this guy Schur is literally the luckiest math guy in the history of the world
he just proved the most basic shit ever
and he has his name
The sum must be finite. But if we're talking about unital rings, then an infinite sum of rings is not unital anyway
so ig
if we could somehow
turn this infinite sum into a finite one
we are dnozo
donzo
What is an infinite sum
which is impossible cuz it would have stated it in the definitoin
like why would they go in the definition " a sum of simple .. " and thne go " theorem 3.123 its actually finite lmfao "
okay let me try it
If not, it's just not true that it needs to be Artinian





