#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 114 of 1
It sounds like a fancy statement but it just comes down to Hensel's lemma 🙂
I assumed so but this course doesn't use padics even xd
But ye it ok
But ye it ok
There’s a lot of discord in Discord servers rn
I have a question about how the bijection between unramified and finite separable extensions is constructed.
The proof demonstrates how to lift simple extensions (this then is used inductively to lift arbitrary finite extensions): take an element a' of C' and its minimal polynomial f', lift them to a monic f and root a, and then show that K'(a') is the residue field of K(a) and that |K(a):K|=|K'(a'):K'| (i.e. the lift is unramified if a' is separable).
Now at first I wondered about the ambiguity of this, because there might be multiple roots of f in C that are lifts of the same a' and hence possibly multiple field lifts, but if we restrict to the separable case this falls away, since f' has no multiple roots (and hence each lifts uniquely), and using this we see that lifting and taking residues give a bijective correspondence between finite separable extensions of K' and unramified extensions of K.
However then it crossed my mind that there **still **is some ambiguity in how we lift fields: at one point we lift f' to a monic f in the valuation ring of K, what happens if we vary the coefficients of f with elements from the valuation ideal? We get polynomials whose reduction is still f', but they might have roots different to that of f and hence produce different lifts, no?
Doesn't that mean that the lifting map {F/K' finite separable} -> {L/K finite unramified} is not well-defined?
Discord is acting out on me, so apologies if some messages are doubled...
Could someone help me unpack this insane definition of a group:
I've mentally broken it up into 4 stages:
Stage 1: First we describe some set Omega (the set of cosets of the diagonal group).
Stage 2-4: Then we proceed to identify 3 different faithful actions on Omega
It's not clear to me why this is so special or how they did it. Surely if you just keep arbitrarily combining more and more permutation groups, you'll end up at the symmetric group or something. So there's something unique about this construction
You have to show that the extension is uniquely determined by its residue field, if you change coefficients of the polynomial f by integers divisible by p then you don't change the extension generated by the roots.
You mean that an unramified extension is determined by its residue field? That's what step (e) of the proof does.
So then it seems that the ambiguity you mentioned is already dealt with
I guess you're right (if L and L' are unramified and generated by roots of polynomials that reduce to the same polynomial, then their residue fields coincide and therefore they're equal).
how do I show that det - 1 is irreducible
what is
- 1? ♾️ - 1 = ♾️
determinant of a matrix
What do you mean by irreducible? What does it mean to say that det - 1 is irreducible? As what kind of object?
f(n^2 variables that are the elements of a matrix) = det(those n^2 variables) - 1 where det(...) is viewed as a polynomial in n^2 variables
okay
also I'm confused if the determinant of a polynomial in M_n is in n or n^2 variables. I believe it should obviously be n^2 but I've looked online and some people say n
It is of degree n as you can see by row expansion
Okay well it obviously is a polynomial of n^2 variables since there are n^2 entries in the matrix
yeah
if you look it as a poly in n^2 variables, then there isn't much to say as it's linear in each variable, and linears have to irred
lmao using
for det
oh lmao I'm dumb
thanks
(i mean there is still a little check involved, but that's the basic idea >.< like 2x+2 is obv reducible but you know what i mean >.<)
can't we just view it wlog as a polynomial in one variable with coefficients in the ring over all of the over variables
yea but we'll have to show that the two coeffs don't share a commond divisor
wait now i think about it, it's not obvious anymore 
wdym
like 2x+4 is reducible in Z[x] but irred in Q[x]
I mean it's still fine
there are no constants which divide 
Because otherwise the determinant of every matrix over Z would be divisible by that constant
And anyway the constant term is 1 so we don't have to worry about that even over Z
i think we still need to say a little more... and i don't see any way that doesn't involve a little computation. the problem is we want to show that they dont' have a common divisor in Z[all but that one variable]
also the computational argument isn't very sensitive to the constant term
the idea is this, if
= a * b and say x and y are variables either in same row or same column, then both of them appear in the same factor. otherwise, if x was in a and y was in b, you'll have a term with xy in it, but
does have that as they were assumed to be in same row/column.
but now by transitivity, all variables will lie in a single factor. now your point finishes it.
Here is a non-computational argument: the vanishing set of det - 1 is the group Sl_n, and you can verify over R or C that it is smooth and connected
fwiw I'm trying to show that SL_n(C) is a variety lol
It is maybe best to just show that it is an algebraic group and that it is smooth at the identity
what do those words mean
okay nvm
Anyway the point is that Sl_n(C) being a connected manifold means that the variety Sl_n must be irreducible
Let G be a group, and let H and K be subgroups of G. Prove that HK is a subgroup of G if and only if HK = KH.
To prove this statement, I need to show both directions right?
If HK is a subgroup of G, then HK = KH and If HK = KH, then HK is a subgroup of G
haiii 
You saying yes to me or?
yes 
what is a level 3 question
Oh
umm
as the level increases the difficulty increases
its a thing in my country

level 6 is hardest according to my knowledge
fuck i cant speak
Let G be a finite group of order n, and let H and K be subgroups of G such that |H| = m and |K| = k, where m and k are relatively prime integers. Prove that the intersection of H and K is the trivial subgroup {e}, where e is the identity element of G.
What does it mean by "identity element"
do you know the definition of a group?
the element e such that e*g = g*e = g for any g in the group
I think..
so basically when the identity element is combined with any other element in the set its value doesnt change
think about how 0 is the additive identity in the real numbers
Ah
for any number x, 0 + x = x + 0 = x
first part is straightforward
for the second part, is the idea to construct H_n and B_n using the kernel/images of the boundary maps
I just need to show that the only element common to both H and K is the identity element e
Im sorry 😭
i think they are questioning why you're being asked to do a question like that before you know what the identity of a group is
I skipped a lot of classes
trying to recover on my own so i might have skpped some stuff..
Here is the most important thing to know about groups: If G is a group and H is a subgroup then the order of H divides the order of G.
Hint: contradiction
counterpoint:
why is the second part of the first paragraph necessary? didn't they show that using the assumption of =>, x - a is a common factor and it's obviously of positive degree?
Moreover, giveaway hint: ||assume the intersection is nontrivial, consider the cyclic subgroup of the nontrivial element and apply Lagrange's||
Lagrange's theorem right?
ye
let x be an element in the intersection of H and K
so x is in both H and K
since x is in H, ord(x) must divide |H| = m by Lagrange's theorem
so ord(x) must divide |K| = k
since m and k are prime, the only positive integer that divides both m and k is 1
therefore, ord(x) = 1, So x is e
the intersection contains only e, proving that it is the trivial subgroup
relatively prime but you have the right idea
ohk
is it ordinary for textbooks to introduce finite fields before splitting fields? im reading gallian rn and the techniques used in proving that there's only one finite field of a certain order up to isomorphism are so much cleaner using splitting fields than that of fraleigh
(who introduces splitting fields like 10 chapters later or smt)
and counting
It varies
this is one convention
depends on the author
different authors may have different pedagogical approaches
if you don't mind me asking, what coursework/study have you done that you are now catching up?
as in
my class used fraleigh and my professor loved finite fields so we spent a lot of time on them before going to splitting fields
what have you taken "above" introductory group theory?
as in?
wait i'm confused what did your advanced group theory classes and regular group theory classes call the identity for any group if you didn't know what it was
or did u just forget
lemme check
"1"
idk how to explain the system
how do you define a group lmao
structure consisting of a set of elements?
that's not a group
well fuck
also what does introductory group theory at your uni cover btw?
i would probably consider doing the course again yea if you forgot the def of a group
eh
definition and basic properties of groups, Group operations and properties, Subgroups, homomorphisms and isomorphism, Cosets and factor groups, Permutation groups, symmetric groups,
that's fairly normal for introductory group theory
my personal philosophy is that 1 semester should contain through group actions and at least 1st sylow
perm is the study of symmetries and rearrangements of objects
fuck nitro reactions they suck
we also went over this in my group theory class
i think they know
i thought it was standard
S = {1,..,n}. S_n is the set of bijections f:S --> S or smth
we did group actions, sylow, normal groups, solvable groups and a bit of comm alg + field theory + galois theory + applications in one semester
that was my second algebra course
wtf was this an introductory algebra course?
my first class was 1/2 rings and fields and 1/2 groups
OH YEAH SYLOW
it is but it's weird naming it as separate entries
im doing my course again fuck this
in that 1/2 of groups we managed sylows
when permutation groups are just subgroups of symmetric groups
first undergrad algebra course
im telling by memory
ah
maths is the only thing killing me inside out
are you in undergrad?
yes
what was the syllabus for your advanced course?
Mathematics is pain
bruh that's hilarious my introductory algebra class didn't even get to extension fields/algebraic extensions
so basically we didn't even cover any field theory
groups & rings & fields
uhh lemme remember
my first abstract course was baby group theory, no sylow or anything, and like 2 weeks of rings
that was it lol
algebra 2 is alg geo
our alg 2 is galois
then algebra 2 was all the way up to galois theory, but we didn't do much of it
i know some schools which lean into representation theory for alg 2 as well
it varies based on the abilities of faculty
advanced group theory, ring theory, field theory and what was that dudes name theory, module theory and homological algebra, category theory and a whole lot of other shit that i dont remember
what was that one theory ehhh
wheel theory
galois
lebesgue
newton?
dirichlet I think uhh
What did you guys do in algebra $\omega^\omega$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
something something riemann sum something
cry
Lol
funny as hell
i still dont understand the notion of a Galois group and its relationship to field extension
Uh it is defined in terms of field extensions
lmao
Well or do you mean like
if you don't know what a group is i sure wouldn't expect you to
You want to think more about the Galois correspondence
i need to study the automorphisms of a field extension that preserve the base field and their behavior on the elements of the extension.
idk if its the usual way to think about it but we just went on about permuting roots of polynomials
my brain is a complicated place
sometimes i understand and then sometimes i do fucking 1st grade mistakes
definitions are inextricable from mathematics as a discipline, if you want to advanced work in any area you should be solid on definitions
i know
too much shit to remember
why does Abstract algebra have to be part of the foundation of my course
what course
im currently doing bachelors in astrophysics
oh alright
conventional path for a lot of us in math
nuuu 
Bro
not allowed
i know nothing about astrophysics but this seems like an astrophysics question a very confident and incompetent AI would produce
sure its not enough with general relativity? like there is nuclear stuff going on
and black holes have charge
anyway no one cares, this is abstract algebra
get this PDE nonsense OUTTA my channel
i live in the terra nullius between analysis and pdes
i wont be surprised if i search this up and find something out of syllabus
true
why does category theory exist
okay imma do cat and idk where to start from
can someone help me with linear representations of compact groups?
in a naive sense category theory is a sort of unifying theory of mathematics***
I'm confused as to how exactly the paragraph before Corollary 1 serves as a pseudo-proof, isn't $\text{GF}(p^n) \simeq \mathbb{Z}_p \oplus \mathbb{Z}_p \oplus \dots \oplus \mathbb{Z}_p$ if we regard $\text{GF}(p^n)$ as an additive group and not a field? How does this result follow if we're only considering the additive group structure?
okeyokay
can i learn the entirety in 7 weeks?
no
no of course not
if GF(p^n) is isomorphic to n copies of Z_p then the result is pretty much immediate from the definition of a degree of a field extenstion
then still no probably not
assuming I'm reading this right
yeah it's doable, 7 weeks is like 2/3rds of a semester lol
Yes but here the n copies of Zp is not a field
under addition at least
Representation of physical systems, Mathematical foundations, Information flow and processes, Quantum mechanics and gravity, Cosmology, Data analysis and classification, Multimessenger astronomy, Quantum astrophysics, Topological analysis, Network analysis, Information theory and entropy
Are you sure
Lol how are you defining GF(p^n)
it's still just an order argumnet boss
as sets, one is n copies of the other
category theory is deeply involved with some broad notion of mathematical structures; certainly you should build some more intuition for "simple" structures like groups first
Oh nvm
Imma get off discord and start studying
Yeah lol, you can even just like
View GF(p^n) as a F_p vector space in the natural way
And then like
$\mathrm{GF}(p^n) \simeq \mathbb F_p^{[ \mathrm{GF}(p^n) : \mathbb F_p]}$ as vector spaces over $\mathbb F_p$ by definition of dimension and index
yea i guess it follows immediately for there being only one field of prime order up to iso
That is unnecessary
potato
still do not know what GF stands for, galois field?
The reason I say it like this is that it mirrors the proof that every finite field has order p^n for some n
Yes Wew
i was reading GF(p^n) as GL(n, F_p) and getting super confused 
is there any canonical way to think about GF(p^n) (in other words the elements of GF(p^n)? my first thought was to take any extension field of the form GF(p)/<p(x)> for any irreducible polynomial p(x) over Zp of order p^n, but that's a bit ambiguous
my mind only saw G, n, p and filled in teh rest of the details arbitrarily 
(because there may be multiple irreducible polynomials right)
What channel should i go to for Mathematical modeling and representation of a physical system?
ok
how do you think of complex numbers? R[x]/(x^2+1) or R[x]/(any irred quadratic)? does that make a difference? (you know everything would be iso in the end)
The terminology GF(p^n) intrigues me tbh
It infuriates me
Do people just hate subscripts or smth lol
Or is it to be weird to stop people thinking $\mathbb F_n = \mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$
lol
potato
ah yea i guess that's a good point
But also like
Well okay nvm I guess actually
People often say like splitting field of x^{p^n} - x i guess but then that is also non-canonical lol
But it chill
I do think it's a good point though like how do you actually write out the elements of it lol
ig if you really want something canonical, then fix an algebraic closure of F_p and always work inside it
I mean sure but then that's like making it canonical by making an arbitrary decision right xd
But yes
yea i mean only difference is that these are galois, so there is a unique copy inside the alg-closure as opposed to Q(cbrt2)
True
Hot
Yeah I'd not thought about that actually lol nice
What is actually the easiest way to show that a finite extension of finite fields is always Galois

I guess it'd just be like lol
The big one is splitting field of x^(p^n) - x for some n which is separable
But there are various ways I suppose
Well I guess you can show directly that |K:F| <= |Gal(K/F)| using Frobenius too and various other things
ok this is probably a stupid question but do sylow theorems have any correspondence at all with finite fields? i'm assuming no since sylow theorems are only concerned with group structures, but each field of order p^n having a subfield of order p^m for a divisor m of n is quite similar to the first sylow theorem (but that's for groups)
or am i trippin per usual
you can use the fact that finite fields are always perfect fields
well you can use the fact that the order of a subgroup has to divide the order of the group to conclude that if a subfield existed if would have to be order p^m - doesnt' show existence but that's what pops into my head
it has nothing to do with sylow subgroups though, the additive subgroup of a field is a p-group
how you define the regular linear representation of a compact group?
yea makes sense
also how is F* of order 3, isn't is of order 15
do they mean "the three nonzero elements of this subfield must be in the cyclic subgroup"
yeah that seems to be worded really poorly
what they're saying is it has to be a cyclic subgroup of F* that has order 3, and that F* = <x>
"regular linear representation of a compact group is a representation that acts on the vector space of complex-valued functions defined on the group"
Ye that's another
oh yea just got it thx
Tbh Sylow seems a bit irrelevant since for fields everything is commutative and stuffs
and for abelian groups sylow is chill
this reads like a chat gpt answer
yea
wikipedia
i shud mention actually
wikipedia enjoyers are at the pinnacle of wisdom
they all have cyclic multiplicative group
$F_q$ generally denotes the group of affine linear transformations on $\mathbb{F}_q$ for prime power q right?
kodiak
i have never seen it denote that
If someone writes F_q i'd assume it means finite field order q lol
i've seen it used in denotation of frobenius groups
hence my question
i mean you can use whatever notation you like, it just has to be explained
If someone wrote $F_q$ I think that I agree with potato that my first thought would not be $\mathbb{F}_q \rtimes \mathbb{F}_q^*$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
what is the square route to the obama pyramid times four to the pour of six divided by 7
please post this in #1061337023413244018 this is the wrong channel
it wasn't mine either, but groupprops was using it and my assumption was the only thing which made sense in context
yeah I think it's not super standard but may be standard on groupprops
👍
There is a correspondence between the linear representations of a group G, and the linear representations of the algebra generated by de group (all over a field F). Can we do the same for compact groups?
That's an interesting question.
It depends on which compact groups you're interested in, I'm not sure there's something which works uniformly for all of them. The natural candidate is the action of L^2(G) on a representation (V, \rho) of G when this makes sense
Mmm, it would be the same to ask if i have a representation \rho of a compact group and find if i can extend it to a non continuous representantion of F[G]?
Maybe I'm being overly pedantic, but I'm still stuck on the minutiae of this.
The way I understand it is that the proof constructs for every \alpha' in C' a finite extension L(\alpha',\beta,f) (where f is a lift of f' and \beta is a root of f that is a lift of \alpha') s.t. the residue field is K'(\alpha') and the degrees coincide.
In the separable case the choice of \beta falls away since every root lifts uniquely, so it becomes L(\alpha',f), but if we want this to be an assignment {F/K' finite separable} -> {L/K finite unramified}, we still have to show these lifts are independent of choice of f and \alpha' (where \alpha' is a generator of F/K'), right?
And here we use the statement from part (e) (E/K finite extension, E'_s\supset F\supset K' finite separable subextension, L lift thereof => L\subset E) to show that L(\alpha',f) is the same for any generator of F/K' and choice of f, thus producing a true assignment.
Am I being overly pedantic or do these questions actuall have to be considered?
let ß be a root of X^4 + 1, then calculate the degree [F(ß): Q] in two ways @willow geyser
That's how I'd do it at least
i.e. show that [F(β): Q] = 12. If you want another hint ||it suffices to show divisibility by 3 and 4; the fact the order is <= 12 is obvious||
Yes it is
Do you know another expression for [Q(β): Q]
Yes
Fun fact: X^4 + 1 is reducible mod p for all p lol
idk if you've seen that
Nah dw ^
Also just realised I accidentally used ß instead of β lol
Rip
So true except i'm a σ
🥔 

im confused, aren't all sylow p-subgroups conjugate by the second sylow theorem so there's not that much to prove here?
oh yea misread
thanks for catching that
oh wait this just follows from the first sylow theorem i believe
unless your sylow-1 statement is super strong, it probably requires a lil more work.
(for example, the question above can be thought of as a generalization of sylow-2)
this is what my book reads, my idea was that the order of P is p^n for some integer n and where |G| = p^nm, and since H is a p-subgroup it is of order p^i where i < n, then I can just form a chain of subgroups H < H1 < H2 < ... Hn = P because H is a subgroup of H1 of order p^{i + 1}, H1 is a subgroup of order p^{i + 2}, so on and so forth until Hn-1 is a subgroup of order p^{n - 1} of P, don't know if this works or not
yea that was my first thought
i think you wanted to start the index at H = H_i
but notice that H_n need not be P, though it is a sylow p-subgroup again 
it's not a big thingy... just that in your notation H_n would have order p^{i+n}
you're right about the indexing though it's so shit
yea lmao i was just writing it down and it's not readable at all or economical
TIL there's a proof of this using group actions huh
but thx for the help!
all proofs of Sylow use group actions afaik
(i wouldn't call that a construction
)
@glossy crag it depends on how detail oriented you want to be. I would adapt the proof of part e) to show that any two unramified extensions with the same residue field are equal
i haven't read it through entirely yet, but the setup looks like a group action by right multiplication on the set of subsets of a fixed size
Then you know that the extension you construct depends only on the residue field
And doesn’t depend on any other choices
is that doable though? i haven't considered it yet, but the proof uses the lifts i talked about, and that's very much choice-dependent
cant you use the fact that sylow p-subgroups are conjugate to each other and also that every p subgroup is contained in a sylow p subgroup?
@glossy crag use Hensel’s lemma
(my response was to okeyokay sorry if i interrupted something)
ah yes that was the answer they provided LOL
first thought was second sylow theorem but idk first worked for me so oh well
you used both first and second right
how is this an adequate proof of every basis of G having the same number of elements? couldn't we have taken G/3G, G/4G, etc..
so like H_n need not be P. by second sylow it's a conjugate of P
ohhhh right oops
ok well tha tmakes sense
because any two sylow p-subgroups are conjugate
we could have
2 is the simplest option
ah yea that's true
so just checking that my reasoning here is correct, H = H1 \leq Hn, and Hn = xPx^-1 for some x in G, and so we get H \leq xPx^-1 and the rest is immediate
lol why do we refer to the length of a basis of a free abelian group G as the rank and not dimension
How about this:
Let L,L' be finite unramified extensions with the same residue field. Since the residue field is separable, it's Kbar(x). Taking any monic lift f of the minimal polynomial of x, by Hensel there is a unique y in L lifting x. Since the valuation ring of K and y are contained in the valuation ring of L we get |L:K| = |Kbar(x):Kbar| \leq |K(y)bar:Kbar| \leq deg f = |K(y):K| \leq |L:K|, so L=K(y) and f is the minimal polynomial of y (in particular this implies L/K is separable), same with L'=K(y'). Now if E is the composite of L and L', then it's complete and again by Hensel there is a unique z\in E lifting x, therefore by uniqueness z=y=y', and L=L'. This implies that the procedure of starting with a separable extension F/Kbar, taking a generator x (by primitive element theorem), lifting that to a monic f and root y, and getting an unramified K(y)/K is actually independent of the choices made along the way (since all the lifted extensions have the same residue field F).
Yep that seems good, but you have to show that compositum of unramified is unramified
I was thinking you can just show that a lift of y is in L’ and a lift of y’ is in L so they contain each other
Why do I need that, I did not use E being unramified in any way.
E is finite, therefore complete, so by Hensel it has a unique lift z of x in it. But being the composite it already has 2 lifts, y and y', so all 3 are equal, implying L=L' (since we've already shown L=K(y) and L'-K(y')).
Yeah I guess that’s fine as is then
Is this last part correct?
This implies that the procedure of starting with a separable extension F/Kbar, taking a generator x (by primitive element theorem), lifting that to a monic f and root y, and getting an unramified K(y)/K is actually independent of the choices made along the way (since all the lifted unramified extensions have the same residue field F).
Yep
Changing f doesn’t change the residue field, and since f is separable mod p there is no choice of root involved
There is a unique root congruent to x mod p
I thought I don't need to take this into consideration and could just use "unramified, same residue field => equality" directly.
Sure if you like, just trying to unravel some of your confusion
understood
Let S and T be two submodules of an A-module M.
Prove that the quotient modules (S + T)/S and T/(S intersection T) are similar upto isomorphism.
What I did was
showed that both (S + T) and (S intersection T) are submodules of M
Now I am having trouble in constructing the isomorphism between these two
<@&286206848099549185>
You have a natural map S+T -> S+T/S and since T is contained in S+T, you get a natural map T -> S+T/S (t goes to t+S). Show that this map is surjective and find its kernel, then use the 1st isomorphism theorem.
Again, I think I'm being overly pedantic, but would you mind taking a look at my slightly modified write-up? I want every detail to be perfect and I'm also wondering if a lot of what I'm doing is redundant somehow (and there isn't an easier way of doing things).
The previous natural map is surjective yes, but I don't get how the T -> (S+T)/S map comes from
what I was thinking is like ->
If we can define a surjective map from T to S + T
then we can use the first isomorphism theorem, as the composition of two surjective maps is surjective
but I have zero idea on how to do that
I only know that S + T is the smallest submodule containing both S and T
The map T->(S+T)/S comes from restricting the map S+T->(S+T)/S to T, which is contained in S+T.
bruh...
yeah got it
kernel is S intersection T because first of all domain is T so the point needs to be in T, and also it needs to be in S because for any element s in S, s + S = S
i'd phrase it as "the map is t->t+S, so if t+S=0, then t\in S\cap T, the reverse inclusion is clear"
true
far better
now to show it's actually surjective
hmm
if we take a coset of form x + S
x can be in anywhere in S + T
if x is in T, the coset has a clear preimage
but if
x is in S, then the coset is just the identity element in the quotient module
so, x must be in Kernel, which is S cap T
so x is in T anyway
.....is this sufficient?
no, because as you yourself said "x is anywhere in S+T", so "x is in S"/"x is in T" doesn't cover all the possibilities (S+T isnt the union of S and T, it is the set of all sums x+y with x in S and y in T)
an arbitrary element of S+T/S is of the form z+S, where z=x+y with x in S and y in T
therefore z+S=y+S and y is mapped to z+S
how is again addition of cosets defined
(x + S) + (y + S) = (x + y) + S
this right?
oh okay so
z + S = (x + y ) + S = (x + S) + (y + S) = S + (y + S) as x is in S
S is identity of addition
so z + S = y + S
y is in T, so we have a clear preimage
thank you
this makes a lot of sense
or z-y=x\in S, so z+S=y+S by definition of cosets, same thing
How can I show that $trace > 2$ elements in $PSL(2,\mathbb{R})$ are conjugate to a scalar matrix representative with $\sqrt{\lambda},\frac{1}{\sqrt{\lambda}}$
Oh wait should I post this in LA
A free isometry
It's prob fine here
I'm thinking uhh trace > 2 implies real eigenvalues right?
det = 1 implies reciprocal eigenvalues
Maybe there's something to be said about existence of eigenvectors, but yeah I think that should give it to you after change of basis
Yes it should be fine
Why is the square root there
Oh, right you can choose your representative to have the positive eigenvalues
Yeah I was learning some stuff in hyperbolic geometry
Fun fun fun stuff
I too will be thinking about hyperbolic geometry over the next few months
Oh cool what exactly will you be learning?
LOL
Im trying to learn Fuchsian groups because my prof said horocycle and geodesic stuff has a lot of cool dynamics in them
Ooh yeah discrete subgroups of PSL(2, R) seems really neat
I'd be interested to hear about the dynamical side of it sometime
Same lol, havent gotten to it
The reference I was suggested is a book titled "Geodesic and Horocycle trajectories", Dal'bo if you are interested
Proof that local fields are locally compact. Why can we pick a_2 so that a_2\equiv a_1\mod\pi?
NVM: if a_i is a repr. system of R/pi R and b_j a repr. system of pi R/pi^2 R, then a_i+b_j is a repr. system of R/pi^2R and a_i+pi R is the disjoint union of the cosets a_i+b_jpi^2R, so if all a_1+b_jpi^2 R were finitely coverable, so would a_1+pi R be => there is a b_j with a_1+b_jpi^2R not finitely coverable and obv. a_1+b_jpi\equiv a_1\mod\pi.
What book is this
Herstein's Topics in Algebra.
If you have a set of n integers, is there some sort of algorithm which could give you a unique number given some set of integers?
For example if you had {2,1} is there some sort of way to uniquely represent this set when compared to other sets with just two integers?
what?
If you were given two numbers, is there a way you could tell the other people exactly what numbers you have using only a single number.
Without showing them
Like for example maybe you could add the two numbers together and then multiply that by 4 and somehow that would be unique
(It wouldn’t be)
But I’m just wondering if there is a way to do it
n_1 + reverse(n_2)/10^(length of n_2 + 1)
Thanks did you just come up with that?
yes
uh okay the reverse part might be ambiguous
what I'm saying is that you should reverse the second number (including 0s)
and then put it as the decimal part
because otherwise you might get stuff like it cutting away the zeros at the end
A L G E B R A M O M E N T
this is advanced algebra
Oh ok
this falls under #prealg-and-algebra
Sorry
the entry barrier to this channel is knowing what a group is
He’s got a looong way to go lol
explain group like I’m 4
symmetry go brrrr
Thank you, I am now prepared for homological algebra
you're welcome. just never forget that the reduction of a projective scheme over an algebraically closed complete field is noetherian in the étale cohomological topology
it trivially follows
2^n1 * 3^n2 * 5^n3 * ...
If the numbers are all positive
This type of procedure where you assign a natural number to everything is called "Gödel numbering"
It enjoys wide use in computer science now because to computers, everything actually just is a long number, but it was of great use to logicians studying proofs far before computers were even invented and in mainstream use!
Thanks for telling me that because this was actually for a computer science problem
I was basically seeing if there was an easier way to see if two arrays had the same numbers without looking at each slot and comparing or something
hahahaha
Well if you have them as arrays, the best way is just to check each slot
Converting them both to numbers and compating the two numbers would take longer
@primal tusk
Yea that’s what I was just thinking lol
can somebody help me here? how did they get from the first equality to the second equality?
oh
they just rearrange dit
Is it possible for F[x] to be a field for any F? My assumption is no, and you would run into issues with whatever you define 1/x to be, but idk how to formalize this
use that degree is a thing
and if one of the factors is monic, then deg(fg) = deg f + deg g
moldi 
what exactly do they mean by minimal such nonzero value |k_i|? does it mean select the basis that has the lowest value of |k_i| for some coefficient of some k in K?
Take all the possible bases and all the possible integer combinations whose values lie in K, and the absolute value of all the coefficients of all those combinations. You get some subset of N+. It is not empty, so it has a minimal value. For that minimum value, pick one basis and one linear combination where this minimum occurs as a coefficient.
ah that makes a lot of sense, thanks!
how would you use the minimality of d tgo see that h1 is a multiple of d1? what does subtracting by a suitable multiple of d1x1 even do?
What subtracting a multiple of d1x1 doesn't do is take you outside K.
ye i know that
So if h1 were not a multiple of d1, you'd be able to find an element of K whose x1-coefficient were strictly between 0 and d1.
But that contradicts the choice of d1 as the absolutely smallest coefficient of anything in K under any basis.
So h1x1 is actually the multiple of x1d1 you want to subtract in order to get rid of the x1 term.
got it thank you
just a quick sanity check, [GF(729): GF(9)] = 4 right
3^6, 3^2 so 6/2?
detuwu 
is there any reason why they're writing $\mathbb{Z}_2[a]$? that doesn't necessarily refer to the splitting field for f(x) right
okeyokay
Not sure what you mean
They mean the ring/field Z_2[a]
Or are you just unsure what that notation means?
@white oxide
well ig im a bit confused because prior they would write Z_2(a) to emphasize that it's a field but now they're putting brackets, but i know that Z_2[a] is not not a field
idk if that makes any sense
spooky!
Z_2 >.<
If $K/F$ an extension and $a \in K$ algebraic over $F$ then $F[a] = F(a)$
potato
Clearly we are talking about the 2-adics :P
no yea i know it's a field
but why tf would he randomly put brackets
that's what fucked me up
Idk lol
shit got me fucked up 😭
wait are we not talking about the 2-adics
the second centre
And Z_2 in the context of fields bruh momentum
how do this? me forgot linear alg 
A is arbitrary commutative ring
idk how to deal with these things when not in some integral domain
Yeah I dind't know anything about this and ignored it lol
Cause idk about minors really lol
i have seen an alternate proof of IBN, but i want to know is it that easy that matsumura doesn't even give a hint about it >.<

det no know det 
simply consider the determinant
I'm assuming "are zero" means "has zero determinant" rather than "are literally zero in M_n(A)"
minors are already det-ed
that's not standard
I'd call the determinant of a minor the cofactor (up to a sign 🙄 )
valid >.<
okie wikipedia says minor is det-ed
and cofactor is (-1)^... det after deleting
fairs
I've never seen it used like that though but then again I've only seen minor matrices pop up in computational algebra stuff rather than pure algebra
different convention perhaps
anyway this question sounds fun
ok I've done it 
how do >.<
use the fact that EVERY r x r minor is 0 to ||show that the r+1 x r+1 minors must have linear dependency somewhere||
and then induct on dimension
no
but you guys usually just type something here and it generates the math letters
we have a bot that compiles it
ah ok so it depends on the server?
no dude
it's a markup language
it is not part of discord it has been around for 30+ years
Yeah that's what i meant
thx
me no understand >.<
you probably meant the other way (r+1)x(r+1) are 0 so that induces a dependence on rxr minors? but that's like inside A and any two things here are dependent, so don't see how that would help at all
(lol i was considering r = 1
)
it's a cubic extenstion over a field of size 2
well in that case everything has to be LITERALLY zero 
You just need to show it splits after u add a single root
true though my answer did not include that case
wdym
Which I assume you have done above already
No the condition is that the r+1xr+1 minors vanish but at least one rxr minor doesn't
we have a n x 2 matrix where every 2x2 minor is 0
need to show the columns are dependent
n x 2? why not 3 x 3?
yea that's the simplest non-trivial case right
if it works for r = 1 and n x 2, then it works for all (r = 1) and n x m
i tried experimenting a little with cauchy-binet
but if it's any more complicated then idk why matsumura says it's easy 
you only need to consider square ones I think
Here's a slightly higher level approach: by padding we can assume that $m = r+1$ and that $n \geq m$. Then the matrix M induces a map $\Lambda^mM: \Lambda^mA^m \to \Lambda^m A^n$ (this is just the matrix given by the minors of $M$ in whatever bases we've chosen)
my overlapping idea should still work for non-square ones though but I'm just confused why you're considering them
topos please fix the latex or I'm going to shake my head back and forth really fast for 15 seconds and get dizzy
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Yes lol
yee makes sense
Now you can show that if $T: M \to M'$ is a map of free modules with $\text{rk}(M) \geq \text{rk}(M') = m$ then $T$ being injective implies that $\Lambda^r T$ is injective for $r \leq m$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
This is because the exterior power of a free module injects into the tensor power, and by flatness we win.
does it inject even if non-zero char?
This reads like stacks project
Yes! but you are remembering correctly that there is no retraction!
.
By Topology 146.124175097.1025871598615.120597195871 we win.
Lol I like Johan's "we win" thing
Me too
Johan is best girl

Anyway yeah the map that takes a wedge to the alternating average of the corresponding tensor is always injective for free modules
the other way right? there is a surjection from tensor to wedge, but not necessarily a section?
There are both natural maps from wedge to tensor and tensor to wedge
ah oops
But the composition is multiplication by some factorial
ye but i'm still a little bit stuck on why it's a splitting field, i know it def has one zero but i'm trying to see why the other zeros are contained in it
Hm what is the wedge -> tensor one in general characteristic
so just like sending a wedge b to a⊗b-b⊗a without the division?
Isn't that the content of question 6
This is why it's better to always have divided powers 🙂
i skipped it lol
llmao
*lmao
Anyway yes so like the remaining step follows from q6
So you should maybe do that 😎
a nation divided against something something cannot something
I wonder if there is any particulrly nice way to see it splits after appending a single root - I'll think
I mean I have an idea lol
Oh wait no yeah it works fine
||Frobenius|| lol
I think it was tteg who helped me understand finite fields a lot better lmao
this is so clever 
Like I asked you about smth once and it changed how i think about their Galois groups etc
ok lol
i feel like this is fucking trivial but im just slow
u could always just add the roots in and then count the elements
frustration has ensued
I'm honestly not sure how else to do it besides the thing I gave so maybe you can look at it as a hint if you'd like
This was this thing we talked about about how the Galois group being procyclic is related to there being a unique field of each degree is related to every extension being Galois 🙂
^hint for okey
god I wish I cared about galois theory even slightly
What does procyclic mean lol
what language is that
profinite but just cyclic groups right
An inverse limit of cyclic groups or any finite quotient is cyclic
yussss
Oh okay sure
Are you talking about the absolute Galois group then sure
which is like
Wait lol
Was I correct lol in saying profinite completion of Z
Well you get dat limit of cyclics
Yeah it's just what people call $\widehat{\mathbb{Z}}$ which is the profinite completion of $\mathbb{Z}$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Yeah I just thought I was misremembering smth lol
Hm so potentially silly question
Why do we have like $\mathrm{Gal}( \mathrm{colim}{n} F{p^n}/F_p) \simeq \mathrm{coliim}n \mathrm{Gal}(F{p^n}/F_p)$ here then
potato
Actually I guess this is kinda just clear
Like
$F_p$-linear map $\mathrm{colim}n F{p^n} \to \mathrm{colim}n F{p^n}$ is equivalently a compatible collection of $F_p$-linear maps $F_{p^n} \to \mathrm{colim}n F{p^n}$ and the image of each of those is just $F_{p^n}$ anyway
potato
arigatou tteg 
Yeah I think in general you could make this some kind of category theory theorem: like if you have $X_n$ such that for all transition maps $X_n \to X_m$ restriction gives a map $Aut(Y) \to Aut(X_n)$, then $Aut(\text{Colim}_n X_n) = \text{lim}_n Aut(X_n)$, maybe this needs more rigidity but something like this.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
I guess the real thing is that you want a.) X_n is preserved under automorphisms of objects containing it in the inverse system b.) the X_n are compact objects in the category
idk if this is the right channel but i am so lost with this. I found this paper only available in italian and im trying to translate it (with google) but I am getting very confused by this guy's notation. I've attached my translated version and the original. S_(4, 3) is just F_3^4. Do any of you guys have any clue what this means?
like why are there 4 points on a line? shouldnt it be only 3?
did someone say absolute galois group
What is $\Z[[x]]/(3x-2)$ ?
Croqueta
like 3x-2 is prime and so admits a fraction field. The fraction field is just $\Z_2$ right, becuase we can invert 3 first and it will commute with the quotient
my intuition would tell me R but that's probably wrong lol
Croqueta
Z[[x]] is power series ring
ok maybe you dont know it
Z[[x]]/(x-p)=Z_p
yeah that makes sense
but if you plug in 2/3 then all of them should converge, no?
the power serieses
there is no topology
you cannot talk about convergence here
like you are plugging 2/3 yes, but these things dont converge in R or anything even if you imposed some topology

this is like the 2/3-adics wtf
(p, q)-adics 
ok I clowned here because when you invert 3 you get the ideal x-2/3
Is this a thing
unaware
I dont understand this meme but OK
det no understand most memes >.<
right 3 is a unit in Z_2
yeah, like 3(1-x)=1, so 3 is also a unit in the quotient above
ring theory is so cool


can you obtain R (real numbers) from Z[[x]] somehow
False
Depends how generous your definition of “somehow” is ig
I was trying to see if the real numbers arise as a special case of the p-adics when using the definition Z_p=Z[[x]]/(x-p) with p prime
yeah right obviously not a quotient
but was asking if there was something else
like all quotients in Z[[x]] are iso to products of Z_p lol
or iso to Z
Z corresponds to the trivial valuation I think
and R should be like quotiening by P(x)=1/x, because P(0)=infinity. But this doesnt make sense right now 
If G is the free product of groups A and B, do 3 pairwise distinct conjugates of A or B in G generate a free group of rank 3?
Let G be a finitely generated group and H a subgroup of finite index. Suppose H has a subgroup H' of finite index such that its commutator subgroup [H',H'] has infinite index in H' (and is also finitely generated). If [H',H'] is virtually nilpotent does it follow that G is virtually solvable?
For context see this post: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4713266/understanding-proof-of-lemma-in-gromovs-paper-on-polynomial-growth
Idk if I can ask it here
But when calculating D=b^2-4ac
Can the x^2 be negative for example -3x^2+3x-4 OR do I need to do this -(3x^2-3x+4)
u should ask in #prealg-and-algebra
Thank u
You just set the a, b and c to the values they should be. So a=-3 and so on
Oh so I dont do -()
It doesnt matter if the x^2 is negative or positive as a= when calculating D?
But since you are on #groups-rings-fields you have to prove that the Galois group of the splitting field of that particular polynomial is solveable as a rite of passage
that's not math
Lol I remember comments talking about stackexchange overcomplicating stuff like that
Does that even happen often that they overcomplicate stuff a lot
Before or after claiming your question was already stated 12 years ago? (it wasn't)
Lmfao
as a stack exchange contributor math SE is notoriously pedantic
lots of very qualified, very helpful people look at simpler questions and will point out things which while true and not particularly helpful
I dont find SE pedantic either
maybe pedantic is not the optimal word choice but I find lots of people prefer to be correct over being genuinely helpful
this isn't everyone of course
Probably really depends at what level your question is, if your question demands the constant level of pedantry present you won't notice it
that is probably true but the wide range of mathematical ability on the forum is conducive to some of this behavior certainly
here, would it be sufficient to just observe that both are fields of order 9 and thus isomorphic?
i mean they're both fields, the rings is kind of throwing me off
yes
wait no
show that when u quotient by a different irreducible polynomial u still get the same finite field
maybe try to adjoin the roots
and then think of a map
@white oxide
Yes
wdym
wouldnt he have to prove that
if they're of the same degree then they're isomorphic regardless right
(the irreducible polynomial)
since they're both finite fields of the same order
yea
but i thought u have to prove thata
It's probably best to construct an explicit isomorphism yes
i thought thats the actual point
of the exercise
like its not a true or false question
hahaha
if u have some finite field F_p and two irreudcible polynomails
F_p mod first irr poly is the same as F_p mod the second
if they are
of the same
deg
well i mean i could just send alpha in the first field to beta in the second field where alpha is a zero of the first polynomial and beta is the zero of the second polynomial
just writing out the field elements of both fields i think that's right
try to do it in general
i dont think this is a situation where an explicit example would help
Wdym
like just try this setup
aren't the field elements of this form
ah yea i got you
okay i'll try that thx
like try to see it in general
Hilbert theorem 90
its similar to that if u like
quotient over an irred prolynomial
u say that this is adjoined one of the roots right?
and then if u adjoin any different root
they are still the same field
or same ring 😄
same idea i thik
😠
What lol
😠
Wdym
Well if you write down a map you need to show that it is well-defined and a homomorphism
Your map can't be because alpha^2+alpha+2=0, while beta^2+2beta+2=0
As a homomorphism commutes with polynomials, the image of alpha will satisfy the same relations as alpha
So if beta was the image then simplifying yields beta =0
Np, if you want to do it explicitly then you need to map alpha to another element that is a root of x^2+x+2
It's still tedious to do it explicitly, show well-definedness etc
Unless you use that mapping a root of an irreducible polynomial to another root gives a homomorphism but at that point you might as well just use that fields of the same finite size are iso
what does $\left( \bF_p^\times \right)^2$ mean?
I was thinking just like the regular cartesian product
but then the context doesn't make sense
namely that it's contained in Fp^times
is it the ideal of Fp^times squared?
if that makes sense?
The cross just means it's the group of units, i.e. all nonzero elements
yes, I know
What's the context?
definition of a quadratic residue
Ah
Yeah then it's probably just all squares of elements in F_p^*
It's not an ideal though
yeah but what does the notation imply like
it's not $\bF_p^\times \times \bF_p^\times$
It’s literally
Apply ^2
To every element of F_p^x
It’s like when you write down HK < G for subgroups
It’s like F_p^x•F_p^x
yeah so like with the ideal thing, maybe I worded that badly lol
thanks
btw does toric geometry go in #algebraic-geometry?
compare it to the notation 2Z inside Z
it not ideal tho, since stuff is abelian group
I was trying to make an analogy or something like that
that included all pairs >.< (not just the diagonal ones)
Fuck
I knew something was off…

Why would $x$ not be a generator of $(\mathbb{Z}_3[x]/<x^3 + 2x + 2>)^$? $|\mathbb{Z}_3[x]/<x^3 + 2x + 2>|$ = 8, so $|(\mathbb{Z}_3[x]/<x^3 + 2x + 2>)| = 7$, and therefore every nonzero element in $\mathbb{Z}_3[x]/<x^3 + 2x + 2>$ is a generator, and clearly $x$ is nonzero
okeyokay
you mean Z_2 or 27?
wait wut
your quotient ring has size 3^3=27, not 8
"a lattice N is a Z-mod isomorphic to Z^n for some n. define N_Q through Q tensor N iso Q^n"
what exactly are we defining N_Q as?
Q tensor N?
N ⊗_Z Q


how did you do that symbol det
what's 2296 then
⊖

wait what key combination do you have to press, I'm trying alt + 2296 (numpad) and it just gives me ¨
prepositions are hard for 🇩🇪 's 😢
pretty sure you can as easily do it elsewhere >.<
there is also a cute graphical application
𝔭 
binbows gang
these are in hex ig
⊗

how did you do it
Fr
○_○
just (x) (+) ;lollollo
is it sufficient to say that the dihedral group of order 24 and the S_4 are not isomorphic because the highest order of an element of the dihedral group is 12, which is far higher than any member of S_4? knowing that isomorphisms imply that |x|=|f(x)| for all x.
yee 
Another quick way to see it is to count the number of order 2 elements.
In S_4 they are 8 while in D_12 they are 13
Ok I hope I'm not gonna be told to go to #elementary-number-theory lmao but proving that if $\tau := \sum_{n \in \mathbb F_p} \zeta_p^{n^2}$ then $\tau^2 = (-1/p)p$ is hard right lol
potato
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
LOL
Idk cause like I was doing an exercise and it just told us to do this calculation without hints lol
I saw proof a while back but have forgotten
But like lol checking I'm not being dumb for being stuck
/ any hints
Indeed it is not that easy. If you write $\tau^2$ brutally, what do you have ? And wich terms can you erase ?
ChristopherNcL
Well I just get like $\sum_{i,j} \zeta_{p}^{i^2 + j^2}$ - we could alternatively write this as $\sum_{r=0}^{p-1} n_{r} \zeta_p^r$ where $n_r = # { (i,j) : i^2 + j^2 = r}$ and if $(-1/p)=1$ it's not too hard to see $n_r = \begin{cases} 2p-1 & r = 0 \ p-1 & \text{otherwise} \end{cases}$ which gives the result, but it's the $(-1/p)=-1$ case that intrigues me
potato
Hm well I suppose n_r is constant for all r not 0 though still (hm not sure)
you are absolutly right at the beginning. But indeed you should express n_r in another way
Hm okay sure thanks
I don't get why L=K(zeta). Since {0} \cup {zeta^j : 0\leq j<q^n-1} is a representative system for o_L/m_L (valuation ring/ideal), i see how every element of L is a rational expression in zeta with coefficients in o_L, but that's not the same as being a K-rational expression. Is there some trivial way of seeing zeta has degree n over K?
What exactly is a sparse vector space (as opposed to just a vector space)? Learning to use SAGE, and it's telling me that something is a 'Sparse vector space of degree 3 and dimension 1 over Rational Field'.
I've never heard of sparse vector spaces in the context of algebra. This sounds like a computational tool. People might know in #computing-software
ah alright I'll repost there

