#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 106 of 1
I think there is a conceptual way coming from the Bruhat decomposition, that's what I would do
But that is beyond a first course in group theory.
Let B = upper triangular matrices
then $Gl_2(F_p)/B(F_p) = P^1(F_p)$ is the space of lines through the origin in $F_p^2$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
because your sylow subgroup U has normalizer B, this also classifies conjugates of U.
So for each line in $F_p^2$ there is a conjugate of U
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
You can then see which elements of Gl_2(F_p) take the line x = 0 to all of the other lines.
Why is B(F_p) normal to GL_2(F_p)?
So then how did you get that quotient group?
It's not a group, it's just a quotient space
Ah okay
So it's just a set of cosets then?
Yes
neat
but it has a nice geometric interpretation
yes, of course. you can also use geometry to see that there are p+1 lines
This is pretty cool, thanks!
no worries!
probably they meant R or treating X as the spec R
synonym for fraction field
I remember being confused by that at first like lol what maximal ideal are we quotienting by
especially confusing because here it's a quotient field of a quotient
Lol
qquotient
thanks
why do we need the last part though?
isn't the last map just an embedding
yes it is
it's just explaining that every point in Spec(R) comes from a k-point for k large enough
yes but in that case the prime ideals are maximal
yeah
a) are all of them just closed cuz C is a field so quotiening will always give us a splitting field i.e. all of the ideals are maximal (except of course 0, and just x but that's also just C)?
b) does K[x]_(x) here mean anything special? or is it just localization at (x)?
yea all points except 0 are closed. and yea that means the localization at the prime (x)
thanks
so for b
by comm alg the prime ideals of it are all prime ideals of K[x] that are contained in (x)
because K[x] is a pid, as K is a field
right
(x) supseteq (r) so x | r
so it's all irreducible polynomials except the constant ones but without 0
as in like
Spec R = 0 + irreducible polynomials - constant polynomials
is that correct
wait we don't even need to remove the constant polynomials cuz they're just units
right
so it's just Spec R = irreducible polynomials + 0?
yea and what can you say about irred poly divisible by x
oop
so yea Spec R = (0) and (x)
I'm dumb
nu >.<
thanks tho

also notice in general, as point correspond to prime ideals, the closed points would correspond to maximal ideals
in the second case, R was local, so can have only one closed point 
ye
ohhhhhh
btw hi det
hewwo illu 
how's life
tired
yea, it was on last wednesday and i prepared it only on the last two days 
so tired since then
what was it on?
wanna stay home and do nothing >.<
riemann roch for surfaces and two applications of it
oo nice
it was fun 
I was forced to do that for the last 4-5 days
now I'm getting back on the math grind
i want a week's worth of weekend
get fever, ez solution
nu, but then exercise sheets pile up
I also get wednesday and friday off
wednesday cuz oral final exams for the people at my school
and friday because my school just said "hey have a day off"
5 day weekend 💪
just what i want
i did have a tiny fever today, and it just made the sunday worse >.<

I have an english exam tomorrow though
first two lessons
I have yet to start learning for it
thanks
I'm trying to prove that if $G$ is a finite $p$-subgroup and if $|G|>p$ for some prime $p$, then $|G/G'|>p$ where $G'$ is the commutator subgroup of $G$.
why does the zero ring have no prime ideals?
I've shown that $[G,G']=G'$ and I believe this is supposed to help
A prime ideal has to be a proper subset of the ring if I recall correctly
And there would be no proper subsets of the zero ring
shouldn't the zero ideal be a prime ideal cuz quotening you get F_1
I think there are certain useful properties that prime ideals have which are useful
But I forgot them
I'm trying to use a characterisation of central series to solve this
But have not had much success so far
The easiest way that I can think of doing this is using the fact that finite p-groups are nilpotent, after which this is a simple corollary.
This is typically not true, if I'm not terribly mistaken.
If [G, G'] = G' then all nilpotent groups are Abelian, which is false.
Oh, I proved it under the additional hypothesis that G/G' is cyclic
Ok, I understand that they are nilpotent but can't see how it can be a simple corollary
I'm doubtful of this but I can't think of a counterexample off the top of my head.
It is a corollary of the equivalence of the two characterisations of nilpotent groups: one in terms of successive centres, and the other in terms of the lower central series
Ok thanks, I'll try to look at that
it's true for nilpotent groups - I'm presuming G' is [G,G]?
I ain't scrolling up to check!
yes
sorry, it isn't true I was a lying FRAUD
I think it also needs the assumption that G/G' is cyclic
I proved it under that assumption
Unless I made a mistake
Could you share the proof?
I just realised you can prove that G' =/= G for p-groups using character theory, so that's cool :)
yurrrrr
can you share
Yes!
you can basically show that each p-group must have a non-trivial, non-faithful linear character I believe - unless the p-group is C_p and then you cry
^
Well we don't need the faithfulness
you just show there is at least one nontrivial linear character, after which you're done :)
It's not too hard to see (and well-known) that the linear characters of a finite group are in bijection with the irreducible characters of its Abelianisation (that is, G/G')
Now if we know that the degree of any irreducible character divides |G|, and the sum of the squares of the degrees is |G|, then we know that there must be at least p distinct linear characters of G
this isn't true, consider C_{p^k} - you need the non-faithfulness
but yes for non-abelian
So we're done! We know G/G' is nontrivial, so G' is not G
I think you're mistaken Wew
yeah, I am
or am I
like, obviously there are normal subgroups of C_{p^k} which is a far easier argument for it not being perfect
It's also... Abelian!
abelian alschmelian
oh right I misread what you were saying
I am indeed Miss. Taken
Oh no she's taken :,(
Mr. Taken will not be pleased
by linear character, do you mean 1 dimensional character?
ah cool proof
can you not generalise it to nilpotent groups (finite) as they are product of p groups
OR AM I????!!!
I just had a different proof in my head
in fact I had a different statement in my head
1-dimensional character
what's the issue here n"g"roupoid are you going to cry because we didn't say degree
yes 
🍑
If you don't say degree, u don't get ur degree
not a rep theorists so idc
I've got my degree and I say dimension because characters and C[G]-modules are literally the same thing to me
the distinction interrupts my workflow
a most heinous act
Ah well you see, I'm a pedant

um actually, cartoon frogs cannot shoot me
ϵ<0, cry
ew gross, use \varepsilon
0 ε 1
now that is truly unforgivable
So I've been thinking about this, and frankly I don't know. I'll look into it!
You can also use elementary group theory: by the Sylow theorems |G| = p^n thus G admits a subgroup of order p^{n-1}, but subgroups of index p where p is the smallest prime dividing |G| are normal.
You could also prove the subgroup of order p^{n-1} thing by induction without the sylow theorems
It's true by definition for nilpotent groups, this is a proof that p-groups are nilpotent essentially!
i know math upto calc, and am familiar with proofs at a basic level, can i work on dummit and foote?
I would say to just start reading. If you're not up to it you'll know soon enough.
ty
say we have a cyclic group of order M. then, if k divides M, will there always exist an element of order k? i suppose taking the generator g^(M/k) would work? how could i cite this fact (need this in the context of number theory)?
why do you need to specifically cite it
it sounds like something easy enough to prove, or almost direct enough to warrant no proof
Yes, this is a standard fact and you could just say that lol
In fact, slightly more interestingly, there is exactly one subgroup of order k for each k dividing M (and any subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic so this entails your thing too)
If I have $p(x)$ such that $G(p, F)$ is solvable, is there a (easy(ish?)) sufficient condition or like a way I can reasonable check that the radical tower $F \subset F_1 \subset F_2 \dots \subset F_m$ has $F_m$ \textit{exactly} the splitting field of $p$ over $F$ and not just $F_m$ contains the splitting field?
56
I made a mistake unfortunately ...
So it didn't work
I might be wrong, but I think assuming F_m/F is Galois is enough
F / Q?
Which abstract algebra books are you guys reading?
Wait, I misread, F_m/F
Actually, I think F_m should have the n'th primitive root of unity where n is coprime to p (the char of F) and np^s = [F_m : F]
What I'm saying isn't iff, I'm just working with theorem 2 from section 7 from chapter 6 of Lang
And for this you only need F_m/F to be separable, as it is already Normal
Something I never really explicitly noted when I was doing this stuff but that I’ve noticed in looking at the universal coefficients theorem: is it true that for finitely generated abelian groups $A$,$B$ we have $$\operatorname{Ext}^1_\mathbb{Z}(A,B)\cong \operatorname{Tor}1^\mathbb{Z}(A,B)\cong T(A)\otimes\mathbb{Z} T(B)$$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Where T denotes the torsion part of that group
doesn't look true to me. like for B = Z/nZ, then Ext1 is A/nA and Tor1 is A[n], and last thing is T(A)/nT(A)
for A = Z, first is different from other two
for A = Q/Z, second is different from the other two
yeah it didnt sound true to me either but i cant figure out what's going wrong with my argument
im probably doing something clearly wrong from me misremembering properties
but like, if I write A and B as a direct sum of a free part and a bunch of cyclic groups
since everything is finite i can distribute my direct sums, any Ext/Tor group with a free factor disappears and im left with a sum of Ext(Z/nZ,Z/mZ) and Tor(Z/nZ,Z/mZ) for various m,n, but we know those are equal to Z/(n,m)Z at order 1 no?
you can probably show Ext0 and Tor1 are same, but Ext1(free, something) doesn't die in general.
🐟
aabb
okay so at least the iso on the right is correct yeah?
it feels weird there wouldnt be some nice dual iso for Ext
I know Ext^1(A,Z)=T(A) for A finite gen so torsion should be involved surely
it's involved but i think you can only say Ext0 is Tor1 and Tor0 is Ext1
i cant believe ive already frogot so much of this stuff it's barely been a semester
ring is noetherian iff it's noetherian as a module over itself
This is prolly wrong >.<
Ill check the details after I return home.
Anyone?🥲
I've seen a hom_tensor like adjunnction for tor and ext
prolly Ext¹(Tor_1(A, B), C)= Ext¹(B, Ext¹(A,C)) for modules over PID but I'll have to check
No I'm asking how does it follow that A/a is Noetherian A module then it's Noethreian as A/a module.
probably I'm missing something trivial
I read Lang, I've know some people in here read/recommend Dummit and Foote, Aluffi, Fraleigh, and maybe some others
i forget stuff after 1 month of not being in touch with it >.<
Its so short, is it enough as a starter?
as an intro it's more than fine at least imo
I have dummit and foote but it has way more content than herstein
That’s not what they’re saying. They’re saying A is a noetherian A module, so A/a is a noetherian A module, and thus A/a is a noetherian module over itself
Yeah but how does that follow?
Last or first implication?
Last
Last implication is cause it’s naturally an A/a module since a annihilates it
Like if (a_1,…,a_n) generates an A submodule, then it also does so as an A/a submodule since a is in the annihilator
Ok it’s trivial lol
Im doing postgrad
ah lmao
don't multipost
Sorry I told them to come here for future questions, probably should've clarified not for the same question haha, my fault
why are groups considered as the repeated use of bijective functions? i get that you take 2 elements and assign them a new one
but do you do that on repeat for it to become a group?
multiplication by a group element is bijective function from that group to itself
although ngl your question doesn't really make sense, I presume that is what you were asking
Yeah, you can treat any group as a set of bijections (in the finite group case, this is Cayley's theorem)
they do not know about S_\infty
(real numbers, +, *) is a field
wouldn't that mean to be a Ring it would need to meet the condition of distribution law?
But a+(b*c) is not a+b x a+c
a*(b+c) is ab + ac though
nope i was just wondering if the reversal would be a Ring
that explains why they wrote 1 as the identity element
in the field
of (R, + , *)
0 is the additive identity and 1 is the multiplicative identity
ye but R,+ is a group anyway
Yeah, (R,+) is a group and (R\{0},*) is a monoid
In fact (R\{0}, *) is also a group
Because R is a field
Because you can't divide by zero
So you consider only the nonzero elements
For a field
huh
Sorry, (R,*) is a monoid and (R\{0}, *) is a group
the field only has + and *?
Sorry what's your question?
yeah here i mean why without the 0
ohhh
But for R to be a field, we require that every nonzero element of R has a multiplicative inverse
Which turns (R\{0}, *) into a group
thx now i know all the definitions really well ^^
Die Menge der Äquivalenzklassen bildet mit der Addition die Restklassengruppe modulo n. (Z/nZ, +)
correct?
Ah ok ^^ sometimes i don't know the english vocab for it
(Z/primeZ, + , *) is even a field apparently
i guess that's why primes are so important in general
in fact if Z/nZ is a field iff n is prime
btw i hear the word permutation a lot lately
what topic exactly covers permutations? or are they omnipresent?
groups
wait fr?
i am sure i heard it elsewhere as well
does it also occur at graphs for example?
I'm not sure what you mean by graphs (graph of a function? graph theory?) but permutations are usually studied under group theory (permutation groups)
You can also study them in combinatorics (how many permutations?)
yeah i mean graph theory
Oh I mean permutations are a very natural/broadly applicable concept but I can't think of any specific connections between permutations and graph theory right now
Sure
translate it
i guess i should just post a picture of the german text somewhere else
it's hard to read this way
A graph isomorphism is a structure preserving permutation on the vertices
So when we got this graph for example can we calculate the number of triangles, (each edge is a triangles edge) with permutation ?
I dunno
with the help of the adjacency matrix i meant
that was basically the (German) task i mentioned earlier
except i dunno whether you can do it with permutation
what can we use the ring of fractions for?
like has this thing any use?? why am i learning this
the algebraic construction of the rationals from the integers seems important enough to generalize, no?
embedding integral domains into fields is nice
more generally localization is extremely important
to say the least
yeah definitely but that is an example of a ring of fractions
i was thinking like how can we use the ring of fractions within the field of algebra, like connect it to flatness or noetherian rings
i know that if A is noetherian then its ring of fractions also is, and from that and from the ring i've managed to construct a new neotherian ring using an homomorphism, so i was happy to see that you can construct new noetherian rings from the ring of fractions
but then i realised that i could just build a neotherian ring from a noetherian ring, without needing the ring of fractions
i also know that the ring of fractions is flat but i don't know what i can deduce from that
my teacher said they played an important role in flatness but i've been trying to find a link for a week and i can't so i'm starting to wonder if this was a missunderstanding
All fields are noetherian, noetherian-ness of a ring has nothing to do with its field of fractions being noetherian.
"ring" of fractions
i don't wanna abandon my research on the basis that i found nothing
so i'm still searching for some use in flatness like my teacher said
What do you mean by ring of fractions? Are you just talking about localization of a ring?
yes basically
when you use Ore's conditions instead of a commutative ring, sources call it the ring of fractions
If you are familiar with localization of a commutative ring that should motivate why we care about localization of noncommutative rings don’t you think?
the motivation you are talking about are local rings?
like how the localization of a commutative ring over a set whose complement is a prime ideal is a local ring?
the reason i worked on noncommutative localization actually was that the construction of "the category of fractions" is very very very similar to the ring of fractions in the non commutative case, even though they are very different in nature, so i went from the construction of the ring of fractions in the integral case (talked about the construction of the rationals with this part) then the commutative case (talked about local rings here) then the non commutative case, which i used to making the category of fractions easier to understand
but still, i have constructed all these things, but it feels pointless somehow, the connections i saw with algebra in general were in chapter 1 and 2, and i felt like i needed some more motivation for the next chapters (Ore and categories)
that motivation i still haven't found
Hello, I need some help
since tao is applied first, sigma*tao = sigma right?
If so, isn't it already written as a "product of disjoint cycles"
what more do they want me to do
no?
oh right tao actually moves them around by 1
This exercise seems super easy, but I'm absolutely blocked when trying to prove it. It seems similar to the prime avoidance theorem, but similar techniques don't seem to work here to prove it
That's a bit confusing. Can't you repeatedly use this result in order to show that any ideal is irreducible?
Well the exercise is false as stated! Take I_0 to be any prime ideal, and set a = I_0.
Clearly there's some info missing.
The exercise is used by Jason McCullough in his Introduction to Commutative Algebra notes to prove this next lemma
How is Ass (hehe) defined? It seems like this is meant to be the prime avoidance lemma
Associated primes
For the purposes of this proof you can use prime avoidance, the stronger version where 1 (you can actually even get away with 2) are not prime
I see, thanks for the help
Yeah idk how to see the result
You can try to avoid the dumb obvious fail by saying there’s more than two ideals there, and then I feel like you can do a prime avoidance type argument, but you did say that it wasn’t seeming to work
Okay I think you can mimic prime avoidance
Suppose that there’s more than 1 ideal here
The case of n = 1 is standard, you don’t even need proneness of either ideal
The way it is stated it is false so no wonder the prime avoidance type arguments fails. For the time being it seems reasonable to just assume that this is meant to be the prime avoidance lemma. I am unsure what weaker hypothesis you would want to add instead
Hmm
Okay my hypotheses are that n > 0 and that you’ve removed redundancy, so the union is not equal to I_0, I think this might work
I guess I’ll just try and write a proof
n = 1 is standard
Hmmm
Too tired, and writing the proof actually seems insanely annoying kekw kekw kekw
Imaging writing a proof: enjoyable, based. Actually putting the pen on the paper: Annoying, cringe.
It definitely looks like the standard prime avoidance lemma works just fine. For the purposes of my work I can simply show any paper that proves it, so no need to elaborate a proof here, thanks
I was trying to figure out what modification of the exercise is true, if you can really move to subsets and only one prime ideal. I have ideas but don’t care enough to hash them out
been thinking about this for the past two days and still can't come up with anything. do you have a hint for me?
For all intents and purposes the +1 on the y-part means nothing, just shift by -1 and it’s basically t -> (t^2,t^3)
Now it’s pretty clear the minimal relation is (t^2)^3 = (t^3)^2
There’s your polynomial
ohh whenever it hits 0 it has no inverse
so basically 0 + 3*x has no inverse
in Z/3Z those are all the same thing
it's only Z/3Z and Z/2Z in which all multiplicative inverses are the same element again. that doesnt happen for other fields
@chilly radish lol long shot but do you know anything about rings with like AeA = A
for e a (central) idempotent
I can't find much online but thought someone might know the terminology better like you lol
Might learn some noncomm alg
😼
Hi guys, was wondering if anyone could help with this question
Surely if it’s central AeA = Ae = A => e = 1
Maybe the last implication isn’t right - woke up 3 mins ago
Did u mean eAe? Cause I’ve seen that expression way more
@delicate orchid No, for example consider the case of A = C[G] and e the principal idempotent, right
Considering
thinking
I’m not saying full => 1 I was thinking full + central => 1, but obviously the principle idempotent is central
Yeah ok now I can see how it’s full
Interesting
Not really no
Sorry
Np lol wasn't sure if it was a common class of rings
are you asking for rings where every idempotent is full
what do you want from me you silly billy...
Okay idk lol
dw
I am sleeps
I was computing char table of A5 and it seems painful unless you use the fact it acts as group of rotational symmetries of icosahedron sadge
it's 1pm boss
A5 isn't that bad imo imo
like you have a very obvious action on 5 points
doesn't that just gib u standard rep?
it's 2 pm
german moment
yur so there you go there's one of them
lol
you live in the wrong timezone
there's two conjugacy classes that don't square to themselves, so there is a pair of conjugate irreducibles
dunno if you know about that life hack
ok so we have 60 = 1+16+2x^2+y^2
now you pull out your handy python script...
and also unique rep fo dim 5 so it's real
i mean yes i worked out that lol
but ye
ok so why u crying about eye deez potents
simple diff
It's 10pm
Lol
I did end up learning a lot of ring theory and all the prerequisites so I’m glad I did this and I look forward to continuing learning this subject when I can but for now it’s my birthday and I’m about to graduate so I will put stuff on hold for now
Thanks to everyone who helped me and showed me the right track
Is it true for a group $G$ that for $g \in G$ if $g^{d}h = hg^{d}$ for all $h \in G$ then $gh=hg$?
Kroros
If so how would I prove it?
see what happens if you set h = d
Do you mean h=g?
no
Oh $g^{d}$ means g repeated d times, sorry for the confusion lmao
Kroros
no it's ok, mb
in which case I don't think this is true
t^2 is in the centre of D_8 but t isn't
turns out it is true if you're conjugating though 
Lmao
stuff like this can't be solved in R?
is there a difference between a group and a module over Z?
Z-modules are assumed to be commutative (I don't know if it's been studied without this assumption)
right sorry i meant abelian group
Ah, yeah, then none
I believe modules were created to generalize abelian groups, among other things like ideals of commutative rings and vector spaces
When you have a group it's kind of intuitive how you can define a product by an integer by repeatedly applying the group operation
This doesn't really make sense like
You don't usually call a module commutative/noncommutative in itself
I mean commutative as in the underlying group is commutative
Sure I mean that is just modules in general but ye
I do now wonder if there is some more general thing but i guess then you've got smth more messy
Closest thing that I've seen that is applicable is a group being acted on by another group such that the action is compatible with the group multiplication
You see this when you wanna look at extensions with nonabelian kernel
oh kinda like a biset
I can't quite follow the proof of the following lemma (from Gromov's paper on polynomial growth)
I have the following questions:
- If there is a hom with infinite image, how does it follow from Tits' thm that we find a \Delta' \subset \Delta (of finite index) s.t. [\Delta',\Delta'] \subset \Delta' has infinite index? It seems like it follows directly from the thm that \Delta itself is nilpotent, but I might be mistaken.
- Why does it follow that \Gamma is almost (or virtually) solvable? We have shown that we can find \Delta' (of finite index) s.t. [\Delta',\Delta'] is almost nilpotent, however, this commutator subgroup has infinite index in \Gamma so isn't of much use directly.
- Why is it sufficient for \Gamma to be almost solvable, rather than solvable to apply the thm by Milnor-Wolf?
Here are the lemma's referenced: (note the induction is on the growth)
Joe 1
how can I show that Q(√a,√b)= Q(√a+√b) , where a≠b and neither a or b is a perfect square? I tried to show that Q(√a,√b)⊂ Q(√a+√b) and Q(√a,√b)⊃ Q(√a+√b) to prove that they are equal. But I am having trouble in showing Q(√a,√b)⊃ Q(√a+√b)
that direction should be the trivial one lol
Um, did you mix-up the inclusion there?
illu i got a holiday tomorrow as well 
Anyways, if you wanna go the elementary route note that Q(sqrt(a)+sqrt(b)) must contain sqrt(ab) and hence it contains a sqrt(b) + b sqrt(a), from there you can extract either sqrt(a) and sqrt(b).
yoooooooooo
lesgo
I got uni tomorrow
lecture at 2 pm
have to wake up early
Don’t ig
As long as you have the script or recordings, yeah
but it so fun to attend it live 
Incomprehensible statement for a commuter
Lol
commuter? 
Ig their commutator is 0
Yeah, i stan'ed algebraic topology back and then still do
det wanna learn topowogy too >.<
real
awgebwaic uwu
ooh i didn't realize you meant pointless topology as in the subject
do you need like a license to start or?
@elder wave I usually wake up at like 3-4 pm on holidays / weekends
Pointed pointless topology
cringe
i found it funny
me wanna learn everything >.< and me slow 
you already know so much
awgebwa is 
where does p-adic analysis go? #advanced-analysis?
I find point set cringe now
Points? Never heard of them
i've done more point-set stuff after AG than in actual point set top course 
@elder wave mr moderator
It’s just “hey did you know that if you X and Y then Z holds and here’s an random space as counterexample”
Is that this weird set stuff? I thought that trend had finally passed
it's algebraic number theory all over again
Whats a CW complex? It's where the arrows start and end
(me forgot rep theowy >.<)
I got an interview coming 
Gl
Actually can you just link the sheets
i can probs find them
lol
Dw
Oh okay
Wtf are these exams lmao
Yeah lmao
yeah i did
Anyway I'll have a go at this q anyway lol
I like how uh
Some of this is more advanced than us
Some is stuff I did in first year physics
Weird lol
We didn't do Mackey's theorem actually
which is that
Using pi for a character bruh
me looked at that a few weeks ago and already forgot 
walter forgets too
walter 
State mackey's theorem
:breakfast: just keep writing down intersect symbols and subscripts until you get bored
my rep theory class straight up just didn't do induced reps
det 

i refuse to read that >.<
I would not uhhh denote it like that haha
Same
it's almost as bad as analysis theorems
Oh wait we did this i think lol
wait
how do I write it
there's a nicer way of phrasing it than this ^ using an inner product
yeah, but the prof was running out of time and went for a bunch of nice applications instead; they were fun 
ill take rep theory again later and probably learn it then
thanks for reminding me
det 
tubu 
this, apparently
no idea where I got this from it was just in the archives (randomrepshite.tex)
cute notation 
yeah I use le arrows
(what's with the last e? in 'randomrepshite')
the word "shite"
time for dictionary again 
zufälligescheiße.tex

whut do you use for coinduction?
coinduction?
induction in Z^op 
Lol
right that's roughly what I excpeted
the honest answer is I literally never do that
Wew's groups are finite
oh right, they were magically iso
Ugly
I wonder if there's some hom-tensor adjunction nonsense to do with this that you can pull into something more tangiable
like they do with frobenius reciprocity
Okay yeah yikes lol
But the way you split up ur sum isn't legit in ur method
Like by the same logic 1 = 1 * 1 = (0 + 1)(1 + 0)= 0 * 1 + 1 * 0 = 0
oh now this looks interesting
lol
But yeah the answer they've given in the next bit implies like
< πl, πk> = l + 1 if l <= k right
Oh I have an idea perhaps
hm
you need to find the number of subsets in X_r that are not subsets of the set of fixed point of a given permutation, that should be the value of the character
what this mofo actually is is anyone's guess
no, sorry
that are subsets
this is a third year question?
where tf do you go
right I should have guessed 
having a fucked course is better than having no course at all
only in ohio
my uni did not have a rep theory course or much algebra at all
they had 2 algebra courses for my masters year
I was on an integrated masters course so idk for that one
for PhD uhhh different since you're from cambridge but you'll want a 2-1 probably
yeah potato I think ur initial guess doesn't make sense btw
we can all agree on the degree at least, I hope
how to find the number of doodads that fix a set though that is the question
The problem it's the other way round like
Number of sets fixed by the doodad
which is bruh
lemme just
$\pi_r(\sigma) = |{Y \in X_r \colon \sigma Y = Y}|$
what fuckin error u cry baby
Wew
false
I'm thinking about this as taking each permutation in 1-row, it fixes Y if and only if none of the numbers in the 1-row form are in Y, and thus there are n choose n-r of them - and then we have P(n-r) different ways of partioning this to get different cycle structures
nope this is still false, if EVERY number in the 1-row form is in Y it also fixes Y
it's a good start though
is the correct statement "fixes Y if and only if all of the numbers are in Y, or none of the numbers are in Y"? I think so
yeah it does
I'm not sure how yet but I can feel that it does
let N(sigma) = X-Fix(sigma) be the set of points acted on non-trivially by sigma, then a pair (Y, Z) is in your Cartesian product if and only if (Z,Y) \subseteq N(sigma)^2 or (Z,Y) \subseteq Fix(sigma)^2
I think I've got an answer by doing it the other way round lol
Oh maybe that is what is being done lol
OH SHIT YEAH
once you've got it in one set you can swap out enumerating over the subsets to enumerating over the permutations can't you?
or am I smoking weed again
ah no you'd have to iterate over pairs of subsets
igojwperk'sdgwrosp[gikjag[
basically what joe did on line 3
mf got the python script online
yeah I mean i could check out S_4
@south patrol which symmetric group u working on
Oh I was doing general case
I think you can do it by counting in a different way and considering how two sets overlap but seems painful
So I reckon there's a smarter way
In particular, noting that pi_r is a constituent of pi_s for r <= s (by the next part lol)
literally cheating but also this is to be expected
wait is it
wtf do you have for the degree
|X_r| right
ok then how can r <= s imply it's a consituent when n choose n is 1
We are dealing with k,l <= n/2
lol
fudnamental group
NO you fool
what topology she got on? in those subsets?
pi_2 of S_4 is (6,2,0,2,0) with pi_2(12) = pi_2((12)(34)) = 2
interesting
my idea about this seems correct @south patrol
Inch resting hm
well, maybe not about the pairs, but if you just take either Y or Z it's definitely true
cause I think if Z is in N(sigma) and Y is in Fix(sigma) or the other way around then you're fine
it's when the set of "non-fixed" points intersects Y but doesn't contain it, then it cannot be fixed under the action
hold on a minute
boss
@south patrol boss
helo
would it be easier to work out the orbits instead
then burnside's lemma that mofo
ah it's not so simple
could still orb-stab it but
not sure
we're definitely missing something here like idiots
if sigma contains only k-cycles with each k > r then pi_r(sigma) = 0
there's something
there will be a way to calculate the inner product without knowing the character values explicitly
thing is I don't care anymore I need to know what these values are
I'm gonna keep legit working on this cause it seems tangentially related to a tangent of my actual research stuff lol
that's my justification for getting nerd sniped
Lol
This stuff seems much more advanced tho
LOL
@willow geyser
Old problem sheet question
lets see if i'd have ever gotten this
Oh yes
You can find the orbits
(A,B) and (C,D) in same orbit iff | A \cap B| = |C \cap D|
no - I don't see what A and B have to do with each other
well, no it isn't - I had to think about it... a grave sacrifice
You can then find # of orbits
and basically like
Apply Burnside to that action i think
Well you can like
yeah just find number of orbits LOL?!?
Just count in a different way lol
I'm gonna get these character values irregardless
Well what we are doing is like
wait is this for the inner product or the actual values
That can be computed w burnside
it's just one fix
Yeah
right
what a bunch of bullshit
anyway
AAnyway I assume this is the sort of thing where like
It's okay if you've already done it

I had the right steps I just couldn't be arsed
Cause that's what our exam questions are like
Like you do enough past papers and you know roughly what to do ig
well that is all exams
lol
minus this observation which I guess helps
can someone remind me of the name of the group whose elements are kind of like the permutation group, but it's like you're drawing lines from n elements on the left to n elements on the right
and the lines are like a string, they can twist around each other
r these braid groups
yeah those are braid groups
i've no clue i just remembered someone telling me about the basic definition and i thought it was super neat
you mean R^2-a few points?
my memory of this is foggy
no
Dw this is basically uh like
Ordered configuration space of n points on the plane so the points are n-tuples of points where each is distinct
But the idea is like uhhh
You can think of a braid (with the twisting) as a class of paths those n points can take
Which is cool
I'll just google the definition of configuration space
Llol
That is the definition
way easier for me to parse in notation
Okay sorry so like
so yeah it IS R^2 minus a few points you LIAR
tht's ordered & then unordered is when u have the natural action
lol
No it's like
R^{2n} minus a few points
Few meaning a lot
wtf surprise n
With what edges?
R^2 minus n points is just S1 \wedge itself with n summands
yeah I thought that's what you were referring to lol
join they circles
wait yeah how tf could that be a braid group lmfao
le abelian braid group has arrived
ok I know one of them is
wedge of circles doesn't usually have abelian
two counting the trivial group
ermmm so anyway uhh so like nayway uh huh
Nice weather today
I need to practice more reppies
cute name
algae 
commie and homie algae 
guh-loys feery
learnt about loop braid groups in a conference i went to kek
and how they are connected to yangs mills operators that conserve charges
(i didnt really understand a lot of it!)
- I am a little bit unsure about the first bit. Is it because that one then factors the composition to get the extension of phi?
- Um, why isn't that a loss of generality? How does it connect to the case where k[x] isn't a field, or is k[x] as a finitely generated ring for some reason always a field?
For q 2 they tell you why in the first paragraph
Yeah but isn't that only for the special case when k[x] is indeed a field?
No
Because they tell you you can extend it to the general case
Usually wlog means you restrict it to a special case but you can get the general case from that special case
the entire first paragraph is explaining why it is without loss of generality; also you have that \mathfrak{M} is a maximal ideal, so k[x]/M is a field
i think that might be the part you're forgetting(?)
Essentially the idea is that if you prove it for when k[x] is a field you can just apply the theorem to \phi \circ \sigma^-1
And get back the general case
What exactly is the general case here, k[x] is not necessarily a field?
the general case is the hypothesis given by the theorem, i.e. k[x] is a finitely generated ring over k, so not necessarily a field
Like, it goes "If k[x] is a field and since k[x]/m is a field, as is sigma k [...] then one obtains an extension" as far as I can see
I don't get how that relates to the k[x] is not a field case, since I can't pass the argument to k[x]/m since I'd have to use the (left) inverse $\sigma^{-1}$ of the quotient map, which only exists if the quotient map is already an injection, hence an isomorphism. But then k[x] would be a field.
Kerr
I'm not exactly sure what the issue here is hmmmmm
I don't understand how the "k[x] is not a field" case is covered
Okay so
Take \phi \circ \sigma^-1
That's a homomorphism
From some field into L
Where sigma inverse only exists if k[x] is a field : (
That is not true
sigma inverse exists because the quotient map is surjective
or is that right inverese
oh well!
Left inverse is injective
darn!
And quotient maps are surjective, so a left-invertible quotient map is a ring isomorphism which doesn't really work from a non-field into a field?
The "pullback" to the general case works like this, no?
The homomorphism $\phi \sigma^{-1}$ from $\sigma k$ to L extends to $\sigma k[\sigma x_{1}, ... ]$, one then factors this extended homomorphism at the image of $\sigma^{-1}$ which is just k[X] to obtain the extended homomorphism from k[x] to L.
Kerr
is this out of Lang
i noticed the Nullstellensatz font lol
"theorem of zeros"
Oh okay, I think I see now. Since sigma restricted to k is an isomorphism to $\sigma k$ this works, the $\sigma^{-1}$ is meant to be restricted to k or rather $\sigma k$
Kerr
i have a question whenever this ones finished lol
what is your question on
what's rad2
radical ideal of (2)?
showing $3+\sqrt{2}$ is irreducible in $\Bbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$
MyMathYourMath
gaussian integers 
theyre so fun!
and the norm is 11
so it its reducible = ab for non units a,b
then N(a)N(b)=11
so WLOG say N(a)=1, N(b)=11
Then a is a unit
and we are done
correct
cool just checking
Yeah, maybe you wanna verify that only units has norm 1 with an extra sentence but otherwise this is pretty much done and dusted
and the trick of G abelian iff G/Z(G) cyclic is noting all elements of G can be written as x^nz where x is generator for G/Z(G) and z \in Z(G) and some n \in Z^+
now... what are the units in Z[sqrt(2)] 😉
as G/Z(G) is cyclic it has a single generator
IFF? NO!
Oh wait
yeah you're good
id have to sit and compute this out
one directioon is EASY
oh god please no
boytjie 
You don't say
hi det
hewwo mmym 
I was gonna sleep like an hour ago but I wanna read more p-adic analysis 
want a text i did on it
Fr, just apply the same norm argument to an arbitrary unit a+bsqrt(2)
oh have you finished real analysis then
u mean inequality theory lol

sure
sorry to interrupt but is the set of all nonconstant polynomials under multiplication an example of a semigroup that is neither a monoid or a group?
undergad analysis is inequality theory
measure theory is algebra 
I have to hold a presentation on p-adic exp and ln

