#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 97 of 1
I've tried using the theorem that says that for every group homomorphism f there exists a unique g: G/[G,G] -> C^x such that f = g o phi
dedekind's lemma?
G is cyclic, G/[G,G] is G
Wait what's G^X here?
Try considering maps onto roots of unity
I noticed that but it still didn't lead me any where
Let's start with the easy part
What's the obvious cyclic subgroups of C^times?
Oh dammit wew
powers of i?
Yes, but moreso complex numbers with a norm of 1 right?
subgroups generated by nth roots of unity specifically
That are a root of unity
Oh yeah of course
the one that states that any set of group homomorphism from G into the multiplicative group of L (L is a field) is linearly independent in the L vector space L^G (homomorphism from G to L)
no I was just suggesting a name for the lemma lol
But also, neat
galois theory really flexing with their lemmas
This is just a very specific case of the fact that irreducible characters are orthogonal
Didn’t realise it had a particular name
probably need to make up for how ugly the category of fields is
Nvm, if L is of a weird characteristic this won’t necessarily work
dirichlet characters
Who
ah yes, characters
Character theory
Now Grace? She was a character
Character hypothesis
What tha5
There are characters that’s my hypothesis
Man character theory is reminding me of the work I just handed in 
So yeah
Think about the general description for maps from a cyclic group to any group
I'm sure it was character building!
It was K theory but used character theory of compact groups a bit
But im not very knowledgeable about that area so I am scared I got smth wrong but it ok.
Can someone prove that algebra is better than analysis? I've felt like it's true for a long time, but haven't been able to come up with anything rigorous
Lmfao
That's logically equivalent to the consistency of mathematics so sadly unprovable but still true
So what, it's unprovable in a mathematical sense, but any actual person knows it's true?
I love that, very poetic and mean
thanks
Hey can someone explain langlands to me?
Good lord no
Have you considered asking in #1100505349427036191 ?
i feel like i'm being dumb. given some ring $R$ and some ideal $M$ with the canonical projection $\pi$, is it true that $\pi(-r) = -\pi(r)$? is $\pi(-r) = \pi(0-r) = \pi(0) - \pi(r) = -\pi(r)$ valid?
fluff
just got done with some more practice exercises for abstract algebra
feeling good about my final
The canonical projection R -> R/M is a ring homomorphism
This pi from R to R/M?
yes
Otherwise we wouldn't really care about it as much
Then yes
for some reason it is not clicking why $\pi(0-r) = \pi(0) - \pi(r)$, i feel like it should be $\pi(0) + \pi(-r)$
fluff
Because it's a homomorphism of abelian groups.
p(-r) = -p(r)
And then depending on how you're interpreting some of those minus signs it's also a homomorphism of R-modules
oh $\pi(-r) = -r + M$ and $-\pi(r) = -(r+M) = -r + M$?
fluff
cool thanks!
Well that too yeah, but also like pi(r) - pi(r) = 0 = pi(0) = p(r - r)
You can also see this "by hand" because -(r + M) = -r + (-M) and because M is a subgroup of R: -M = M.
Think of the quotient operation as kind of squashing all the elements in a given coset together
It does not relate to the thing I quoted btw
Like when you quotient out Z by (2), you get Z / 2Z, but also you just lump all the even numbers together and all the odd numbers together, and call the even numbers zero and the odd numbers 1
The first isomorphism theorem on rings is just an extension of the idea that even + even = even and even + odd = odd (and so on)
keep in mind that any ring homomorphism is still a group homomorphism according to the group structure
well, I personnally see it more like an universal property but well
can be both
Hmm, how so?
well, it's about how a morphism can be factorized on this quotient
don't link the picture
I won't latex this but it's like you have a morphism A->C and it can be factorized into a commutative diagram A->A/B -> C
it is way easier to think about it as an equivalence relation/just set operations than a universal property at first
squash
If topologists get to sniff glue, I can have this
I think both view have to be understood in parallel, working with morphisms without the universal property-view seems so much a pain
my dude is in an intro ring theory course
that is not the time to introduce universal properties
True
That should've been linear algebra
back with another related question... for rings $R,S$ (not necessarily a ring with identity) and $f:R\to S$ is a ring homomorphism, is $f(a^{-1})= (f(a))^{-1}$? yea this is like the same thing as before but i don't see why it's true if $f(1_R) \neq 1_S$. i see why it is true in the group homomorphism or if they were rings with identity AND $f(1_R) = 1_S$ as we would have $$1_S = f(1_R) = f(aa^{-1}) = f(a)f(a^{-1})$$ and thus have what we need
fluff
but this is reliant on $f(1_R) = 1_S$ which may not be true?
fluff
if there's no identity then firstly, how can there be multiplicative inverses
secondly, of course this isn't true, either 1_R or 1_S don't exist
*doesn't
w/e
well, usually it's true for "unitary" rings (do we call them like that?)
f(1_R) = f(1_S) should apply when they both have identity
If they don't, who cares go wild
not necessarily?
Necessarily
f(x) = f(1x) = f(1)f(x)
seems pretty necessary to me
:smoke:
nah I kid, but yes necessary
by definition
The reason the professor guy said that it doesn't necessarily apply is that rings don't necessarily have one
I mean he was lying, but still
= f(x)f(1) :smoke:
you're taking a class on rng theory not ring theory
No, 1_S-f(1_R) is just the zero divisors of f(x) 😎
but @teal void it depends on the teacher and how he defined rings
can that work?
Idk, would be funny if it did
ah uhm i kind of never really thought about this, but is what my professor stated not a homomorphism?
If 1_S-f(1_R) was a zero divisors for all elements in the image of f then... this should work no?
Oh but it is an identity of the subring
u people are asking about 1_S when we've established it is not unital
The map sending R into the top left corner of a 2x2 matrix sends an element from a unital ring to a unital ring, but doesn't send id to id
It's in fact, even an embedding
" 1_S-f(1_R) was a zero divisors for all elements in the image of f" what does this mean
It means the only one that did not get got was kerr I think
so it's a homomorphism of non-unital rings
we have not seen the definition of ring homomorphism in use here
I mean are you assuming f(1) = 1 is an axiom for homs?
personnally I would asume so if the context was not given X)
really it depends on how they define the rings and their morph
if it is a homomorphism of unital rings - which that map clearly is not, the identity is not in the image - then it is part of the definition that f(1) = 1
Let a=1_S-f(1_R) and af(x)=0 for all x in R, then works out that f has the multiplicative property
So f(1_R) is the identity on the image of f, but not necessarily in the larger ring S
So to explain, the example you give illustrates that when you define homomorphisms with rings on identity, you have to specify that f(1) = 1. If you don't specify this, then sometimes f(1) doesn't equal 1, even if they have identity. So to answer your question, no unless you force it to be yes, but sometimes it's reasonable to force it.
You win the day, because that's what the example he linked was about I think
It still holds that without it an bijective ring morphism is still an isomorphism of Ring structure, unless I miss sth?
unless structure means something yes
so i guess this came up because i was trying to prove the fact that "a ring homomorphism is injective iff the kernel is trivial". the forward direction is obvious but i cannot see how the backwards is true (without $f(1) = 1$, which was not assumed as the definition of a ring homo)
fluff
Well, the image is isomorphic to a ring with unity
cosets my dude
they're all the same size
So when focusing on f(R) it might as well be the identity element for all intends and purposes
ignore me I got my implication backwards fuck
Wait did I? Which direction's the obvious one?
injective => kernel is trivial is trivial
Idk both are really trivial if you done it often enough
Injective to trivial is just the more general trivial result
Ring kernel is trivial implies group kernel is trivial implies injective
For the other direction use the homomorphism property
idk i feel like i have no intuition on this ...
Okay, so the map's injective if every preimage of everything is unique right?
Like no a and b such that f(a) = f(b)
yes
Okay, so if the kerel is 0, then there's no a such that f(a) = f(0)
And you can use this to derive that all the other cosets are trivial by like subtraction and shit idk
but that's the basic idea - to show that because f(0) is unique, every thing else must be too
And that just comes from the definition of a hom
wait bruh can i just
assume $f(a) = f(b)$. then $f(a) - f(b) = f(a-b) = 0$ but the only element that sends to $0$ is $0$ so $a-b = 0$ thus $a=b$ oh why do i care about multiplication at all
fluff
for some reason i was really caught up on multiplication because it was a ring homo? but i understand fully
By the way if you wanna piss off your professor, just say that the ring hom is a group hom, and so if it has a trivial kernel it's injective
It's right and also it says nothing (well it actually just says the thing you said, but it provides no actual reasoning)
i can use it without proof, i just wanted to make sure i understood for myself lol
huh
Professors are really all the same
cool
Sounds exactly like something I've been told a billion times
turns out some things have one line proofs
everything has a one line proof
Especially the proof that arbitrarily long lines exist
godel in shambles
why'd you have to go there?
Aaaah
f(a) = f(b) => a=b and anything else is heresy
who?
That's not abstract algebra
That's probably better suited for number theory
Please try and keep stuff algebra related
I really don't wanna hear this much about how your parents didn't love you
*you're
chmowned
but yes please try and keep stuff algebra related don't leak military intel on a math server thanks folks
well that was fun
I like the preimage way because it's a more natural segue into the inverse being a function
don't do what now
some guy came here leaked pentagon plans called me a fatass and left
Thug shaker central and it's disastrous consequences
I find it spooky
It means the last axiom of ZFC is nearby, a surjective function being left-invertible
What is "the last axiom of ZFC"? Choice?
It depends on your choice of ordering
Z (for Zorn's lemma)
FrankelC
how tf did you get from ring theory to zfc, is the axiom of choice your godwin point?
man I'm trying to remember why the axiom of choice does weird shit with the cantor set
If you only care about the logical equivalence class, like I said surjective functions being left invertable
Frænkel.
Afaik in english orthography it's the same for german names?
It is, but the fact is that it is fraenkel in german too
Which is a bit funny since you'd it be expect it to be just the English orthography at first
Just like it isn't Göthe either.
Halliday
I am familiar with that work of his
what asking a lot of questions?
And also answering still a lot but maybe not as many?
what's that reaction mean?
it's good right?
Okay good
how does the preceding sentence show that E is a splitting field for g(x) over F(a)? because we don't even know what the zeros of g(x) are
is it because f(x) = p(x)h(x) = (x-a)g(x) because p(x) has a linear factor since it has a zero?
Since g(x) is a factor of f(x), any splitting field for f(x) is also a splitting field for g(x).
does anyone have mathematica experience?
Please ask in #computing-software unless you have an AA-specific question.
Also, please do not post your question in multiple channels: one is enough.
how do we know that f(x) has a factorization in F(a) tho, because we're only given f(x) in F[x]
also aren't there less zeros for g(x) then that of f(x), so the splitting field should be smaller? where am i going wrong
E is the splitting field for g(x) over F(a), and E contains say n zeros of f(x). but could there exist a splitting field E' for g(x) that contains n - k zeros of g(x) (since g(x) definitely has less zeros than that of f(x)) and since splitting fields are defined to be the smallest fields containing the zeros of a given polynomial and field its over, that would be the field instead?
idk if im making sense
nvm
i got it lol
Bro is giving himself a thumbs up
is this a valid presentation of the quaternion group?
I thought it looked a bit big
You can use the like famous things Hamilton wrote down I believe
Also you only rly need 2 generators if you want minimality
I like a presentation where you add a symbol l which is i^3
<@&286206848099549185>
p(x) is a factor of f(x).
a is a root of p(x)
so p(x) is reducible over F(a)
thus p(x) = (x-a)r(x) where x-a and r(x) are in F(a)[x]
Carry this up to f(x)
f(x) = p(x)q(x) where p(x) and q(x) are in F[x]
now factor out the x-a
f(x) = (x-a)r(x)q(a) where r(x) is in F(a)[x]
Now let r(x)q(x) = g(x) which is still in F(a)[x]
What book is this, it looks like a high school book
damn bro I just got flamed
Gallian
I hope this is sensible to ask here, and if anyone can point me to literature on it.
If I have a homomorphism of rings $\varphi : R \to S$, one can ask: does that induce a lattice homomorphism on the ideal lattices $\varphi^{*} : I(R) \to I(S)$ by sending an ideal $I\subseteq R$ to the ideal generated by its image $(\varphi (I)) \subseteq S$?
The answer generally is, no. For example, if $R = \mathbb{Z}[x,y]$ and $S = \mathbb{Z}[z]$, define $\varphi$ so that $x,y \mapsto z$ (obvious map on the integers themselves). Then the meet of the ideals $(x),(y)$ is their intersection $(xy)$ in $R$, but their meet in the image is (z). This happens because, generally, the image of an intersection can be properly contained in the intersection of the images. But I'm certain joins are preserved under these induced homomorphisms, so my question is, what conditions are sufficient/necessary for a meet homomorphism to be induced as well?
Michael Harp
Why we can assert that? (dummit page369)
did you try applying the map to 1 ⊗ 1?
you are right
Wait I can make the summation be formal and I think it works then
alright im making a dumb mistake somewhere but I can't figure out where. I've somehow shown that $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n,\zeta_m)\subsetneq \mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n)\cap\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m)$ in a few cases, which is of course false. I argued as follows:
$$\begin{align}[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m):\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n)\cap\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m)]&=[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n,\zeta_m):\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n)]\nonumber\
&=[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_{[n,m]}):\mathbb{Q}]/[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n):\mathbb{Q}]\nonumber \
&= \phi(nm/(n,m))/\phi(n) \nonumber \ &=\phi(m/(n,m))\end{align}$$
where the last line follows from $n$ being coprime with $m/(n,m)$. However I also have that $$[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m):\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n)\cap\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m)]=[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m):\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_{(n,m)})]=\phi(m)/\phi((n,m))$$ and in general these two quantities arent equal
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
alright im making a dumb mistake somewhere but I can't figure out where. I've somehow shown that $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n,\zeta_m)\subsetneq \mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n)\cap\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m)$ in a few cases, which is of course false. I argued as follows:
$$\begin{align}[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m):\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n)\cap\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m)]&=[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n,\zeta_m):\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n)]\nonumber\\
&=[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_{[n,m]}):\mathbb{Q}]/[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n):\mathbb{Q}]\nonumber \\
&= \phi(nm/(n,m))/\phi(n) \nonumber \\ &=\phi(m/(n,m))\end{align}$$
where the last line follows from $n$ being coprime with $m/(n,m)$. However I also have that $$[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m):\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n)\cap\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m)]=[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m):\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_{(n,m)})]=\phi(m)/\phi((n,m))$$ and in general these two quantities arent equal
```Compilation error:```! Package amsmath Error: Erroneous nesting of equation structures;
(amsmath) trying to recover with `aligned'.
See the amsmath package documentation for explanation.
Type H <return> for immediate help.
...
l.60 ...n) \nonumber \\ &=\phi(m/(n,m))\end{align}
$$
Try typing <return> to proceed.
If that doesn't work, type X <return> to quit.```
(say take m=12, n=2)
I don't understand the first line under the hypothesis
If the field extension by those two roots of unities is contained in their intersection it's also contained in of either the field extensions by just one of the roots.
So the RHS should just be 1
oh oop i miswrote
i meant Q(zeta_{[n,m]}) strictly contained
not Q(zeta_n,zeta_m)
lmao
What is zeta_n,m ?
By the principle of explosion either mistake is equally bad!
zeta_[n,m] no zeta_n,m
Sure, still don't know what you mean by that
[n,m]=lcm(n,m)
In this notation [n, m] is the lcm and (n, m) is the gcd.
Oh, yeah that's more coherent
Why does A=R[X]/(X²+1) as an A-Module only have 0 and A as submodules?
A-submodules of A are ideals of A. Can you think of why a ring might only have trivial ideals?
Or from the other direction, do you know what A as a ring is isomorphic to?
I swear you asked this like 14 hours ago lol
yeah i didnt get a response
and I'll repeat what I said before, there is a 1:1 correspondence between equivalence relations on a finite set and the partitions of that set, so check how many partitions of 5 there are
yeah then its 7
yus
i was thinking like
elements that make up a partition have to be unique
so i was thinking it had to be more
no u just draw le funny tetris
although if you drop the "up to "isomorphism" (whatever that means)" condition it becomes much more fun
yeah i was thinking without isomorphism
Yes it seems like the question is not about "up to isomorphism"

well the case of the partition 5 only has one possible equivalence relation on it, as {1,2,3,4,5} is the only option
case of partition 41 has 5
indeed
3+1+1 is probably the next easiest one
and you may start spotting a pattern in your answers, or maybe not
311 has 5 pick 3
omg using "pick" for the choose function is incredible
and then multiply that by 2 to accommodate for 32
I am stealing that
For notation you could even write it like nPk for n pick k! Oh wait...
2111 has 10 and then we can generate all 221 partitions by multiplying it by 3
throwback to that time I tried to defined the choice function over an arbitrary field
hold on lemme think about 2111
yeah it's 10
Waiiiiiiiiiit what is your answer for 221?
30 partitions of 221
Are you sure?
because with 2111 we can have the first 2 1s grouped together to generate a new one
last 2 ones to generate another
Yes but you are over counting some things
{a, b}{c, d}{e} is the same as {c, d}{a, b}{e}

{a,b}, {c,d}, {e}
5 choices for a, 4 choices for b invariant under permutation
3 choices of c, 2 choices of d invariant under permutation
So you have to divide by 2
Yes and then you have to divide by the permutation switching the first two pairs
ah i see why dividing by 2 works now
this reminds me of conjugacy class sizes of S_n but we don't care about order
in fact
yur way more fun than up to homeomorphism
I actually have no idea what the right answer is so double check your arithmetic if this is being graded
SURPRISE they're open sets in topologies on {1,2,3,4,5} now
not graded
darn...
What is U^\circ?
But anyway, absent other context, probably not: if U \subset V then for most defintions U^* would have the same dimension of U, so it wouldn't make much sense for it to contain V^*
annihilator of U
<3 annihilators
They sound so cool and then are actually so boring
every linear algebra definition ever
U^\circ sits in V*
Yes but you're not taking the annihilator of V
V^\circ is just 0
Just like Radical Groups
So yes P(V^\circ) \subset P(U^\circ) if you decide the first is the empty set.
They just sounds like they wanna overthrow the government
oxon?
yeah same year as you
fairs
who is teaching NT
you would think James Martin, but he's actually teaching Calculus of Variations
think he's lecturing calculus of variations?
yep
maynard*
I was stunned when I saw him walk in and write down calc of var
What about James Newton?
right forgot there are a few james
oh it's kobi, just checked
he's a cool guy, a bit quiet
NT seems pretty chill. Just basic theorems...Euler-Fermat, Wilson, Gauss' Reciprocity and some appendix on cryptography
ye it's just elementary/olympiad NT
3rd year has algebraic NT and 4th yr has analytic NT, and other algebraic NT ish things
yessiree
england is cringe dw
going to school in england is cringe dw*
I think it's a shame anal NT is so late in the degree cause it seems pretty cool tbh
Don't worry, I probably go to a worse school
yeah it doesn't require that much machinery to be a 4th year course imo
Better than France, at least
*nothing I say is ever serious
Absolutely, some of the elementary proofs use analysis I techniques
They deserved each other in the 100 years war fr fr
University of Maine
Monash university
at most uses residue theorem or some fourier transform things (but for Fourier the course will teach the relevant results)
Do you guys have a math department with more than five people?
so it couldve been a 3rd year course imo
FT based
We regularly got confused for a burger chain
Like all of math, or a specific area
I'm actually doing research in CMS in cam using FT to study orthogonal series
All of
My condolences
Also it's more like 15 people I was exaggerating
The reason I don't have a PhD right now is we didnt have a PhD program
I'm an undergrad who only cares about algebra, I don't know how big the math faculty is
And it's hard to get in to math PhD programs if you have shit grades
Isn't math a Wam booster
Wam?
it's better to keep an open mind unless you've already looked at other topics
since you're only an undergrad
Weighted average mark
Bullshit
I'll do other stuff once I'm done with Lang
That's just what we tell analysis guys
(I'm an analysis guy)
Also I'll osmosis some analysis through Lang
Don't tell someone to try new things if they're already right
I just threw up a little
Fair
true if you allow your statement to be meaningless
You say that like Hilbert didn't invent half your shit
Arrow theoretical means we can shoot arrows at people
Only theoretically
So it is abstract nonsense
Nah it's really not
It's just defining math shit by their structure instead of by the things they are
Also yes yes, you can do abstract bullshit with it too, but who cares
Because they're something inherently cool about the fact that you can uniquely identify a group by only it's homs to other groups
And do that with everything else too
Ok, let me try, the following sequence is exact, where the last arrow sends all the not cool stuff to 0. $$ \text{category theory} \to \text{math} \to A$$
Parrot Tea

Gottem
the following sequence is exact:
0 -> Me -> Cool -> 0
*0 -> Wew -> Cool -> Cool -> 0
now hold on just a moment
It's fine, Cool is projective
My brain is too small for this, does noetherian + projective give you something
Or is it just cause Noether is cool
Noetherian means that it cannot be true that Cool/Wew \cong Cool unless Wew = 0
Ahh, ok
But the fact that Emmy Noether was cool is a proof that Cool is Noetherian, thus we can be sure that that exact sequence implies that Wew = 0.
Yeah otherwise you get an infinite filtration
Which is intuitive as wew is just one box
one of the conversations I've read
simmer down in the back
aren't all rings?


Ring of continuous functions on [0,1] my beloved
What lol
no 'N'
if f is a cts function so is -f
This is [0,1] -> R not [0,1] -> [0,1]
Okay yeah fair I guess
saying on [0,1] implied that ig
Continuosu real-valued functions on [0,1]


what on earth is intro to complex numbers?
do you introduce euler's formula mid semester?
Hi
I asked the new Snapchat AI bot on how to find the minimal polynomial of sqrt(3) over Q_2, but I feel like it’s not correct. I don’t know much at all on p-addic numbers, so I don’t know for sure if it’s incorrect. Here’s what it gave me:
“To find the minimal polynomial of sqrt(3) over Q_2, we need to find the smallest degree polynomial with coefficients in Q_2 that has sqrt(3) as a root. We can start by writing down the general form of a quadratic polynomial with coefficients in Q_2:
ax^2 + bx + c
We want this polynomial to have sqrt(3) as a root, so we set x = sqrt(3) and simplify:
a(sqrt(3))^2 + b(sqrt(3)) + c = 0
3a + bsqrt(3) + c = 0
Since a, b, and c are in Q_2, we know that 3a, bsqrt(3), and c are all in Q_2 as well. Therefore, we can write:
3a = 2^n * m, where m is an odd integer and n is an integer >= 0
bsqrt(3) = 2^k * l, where l is an integer
c = 2^p * q, where q is an odd integer and p is an integer >= 0
Now we can substitute these expressions into the equation 3a + bsqrt(3) + c = 0 and rearrange:
2^n * m + 2^k * l + 2^p * q * sqrt(3) = 0
If we assume that m and q are both equal to 1, we can solve for sqrt(3) and get:
sqrt(3) = -(2^n * l) / (2^k + 2^p * sqrt(3))
This expression shows that sqrt(3) is in fact an element of Q_2(sqrt(3)), so it is a root of some polynomial with coefficients in Q_2. To find the minimal polynomial, we can try plugging in a few different values of n, k, and p and see what works. For example, we might try n = 0, k = 1, and p = 1, which gives us:
sqrt(3) = -l / (2 + sqrt(3))
Multiplying both sides by 2 + sqrt(3) gives:
sqrt(3)(2 + sqrt(3)) = -l
Simplifying gives:
5sqrt(3) = -l
This means that the minimal polynomial of sqrt(3) over Q_2 is x^2 + 5.”
pfftttt reddit spacing
never ask ai some math >.<
Why are we having to correct AI lol
x^2-3 is a poly that has sqrt3 as a root
If you don't know about p adscs anyway
and to show its minimal, go mod 4 and say 3 is not a perfect square there.
or apparently field extensions
gah if it wasn't Q_2 I might've been able to actually think about this
classifying squares in Q_2 is a bit annoying actually iirc
yeah it's not like the other p-adics
its similar
I'm not like the other girls
idk ur the number theorist
you have like Q_p^x = <p> x roots of unity x (1+ (pi))
and then something p-adic logarithm
but if p=2 some cases are left
sad!
The complicated thing is that convergence for square root in Q_2 is worse
anyways, this server is more for helping humans, not debugging AI
A principal unit needs to be congruent to 1 mod 8 for the square root to converge.
Yes and in fact they don't have square roots.
false. The square root of 1 is one. Libreal destroyed
ah hmm
1 is congruent to 1 mod 8, I just checked
t-t-t-t-there must have been... some some... SOME sort of m-mistake!!! No... NO!!!
I think actually you can make the argument that if the formal power series for (1+x)^{1/2} doesn't converge that it's impossible for 1 + x to have a square root.
ngl I just saw "no square roots"
that's the only part i read
Just by writing $y = \sum_i a_i 2^i$ and noting that the $a_i$ have to satisfy the same equations as the square root of $(1 + x)$ in the ring of formal power series
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
that's nifty
this reminds me of math class
*maths
my teacher asked "what's the square root of 0?"
then picked this one guy and added "what number multiplied with itself gives 0?"
the number of undergrads in my analysis class who were convinced sqrt(0) was undefeind
the dude deadass said "every number"
Bruh
Yikes
what about -0 tho
doesn't mean there can't be be others :smokeD:
but lets just say if u ask me what THE sqrt{0} is I'm saying 0 irregardless of if we're in C or Z/4Z
If someone asked for the sqrt of 0 in Z/4Z I'd be like huh
lol
anyway x²=0 supposed to have 2 solutions 
"erm sorry I don't think the definite determiner is properly licensed here, there is a failure of presupposition meaning your claim is meaningless and uninterpretable"
🤓🚬
SHUT UP
What about the other square root though?
You know, reading the above I feel unoriginal in my harassment of wew here
casual reduced ring enjoyer :p
I'll do better
Clearly the square root of zero is an infinitesimal
In the auto differentiation ring
Ah yes my favorite ring
Z/1Z
Q/Q is my favourite ring
OwO
QwQ
Do you mean Q, the field extension of Q?
I guess it's technically a ring
Good ol Q(6)
Q bar/Z is my favorite ring
whats Q bar
(why tho?)
alg nums
The complex conjugate of Q
Roots of polynomials with integer coefficients
huh
so Q bar = Q ?
No
x^2-2 moment
Sqrt 2 is root of x^2-2
rip
it is
yes, it is
algechill moment
This is number theory but who cares
ok wtf? why did the channel got purged?
Define $p_n$ to be the sequence of prime numbers. For a given number $k$ define $\tau(k ) = {(p_m/p_n)k: p_n|k, m\leq n}$. Let $t_0(k)= {k}$, and let $t_m(k) = \bigcup_{j \in t_{m-1}(k)} \tau(j)$. Finally, define $t_{\infty}(k)=\bigcup_{m=0}^{\infty}t_m(k)$. Find / approximate $|t_{\infty}(k)|$.
Might need to define p_0 to be 1 I forget
Also it should be |t_{\infty}(k)|
Halliday
Then use it to prove the prime number theorem or some shit idk
(hint: $|t_{\infty} (p)| = \pi(p) + O(1)$ for $p$ prime)
Halliday
Solve my problem you won't
it doesn't seem so hard, like not harder than bar(Q)
My god man what's your definition of not so hard?
Is a train not that heavy?
Q bar isn’t that bad until you look at it as a field extension
Oh neat
What is "the best" proof that $-\frac{B_{n + 1}}{(n + 1)} = \zeta(-n)$?
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
discuss.
What's B?
bernoulli numbers
oh gross
the one I don't have to read through
by definition
So cringe

By definition... of zeta
No, define zeta to be the function such that $\zeta(-n) =$ the sum of this sequence I just pulled out of my ass called the bernouli numbers
Halliday
Oh hey look it can do all this other stuff too, neat
u don't know the half of it
abstract chillgebra moment
Yo, is there any way to prove that you can't have an affine space where the set of points A is a field K and the vector space V is a two dimensional vector space over K?
I asked in questions and they told me to ask here.
It's easy to prove for finite fields, but I don't see how I can do it for infinite ones
How are you distinguishing the points from the vector space?
what would be prerequisite materials and good entry-level books for AA?
the points are those in the field K, the vector space is of dimension two so I'm guessing you identify them as the addition of two points times vectors in the base of V over K.
That's how you prove it can't be affine over finite fields
because K can't be bijective with KxK for finite fields
but for infinite ones it can
Intuition still tells me it should be impossible to find a function f: AxA-> V such that both:
f(a,b)+f(b,c)=f(a,c), dor a, b and c are in A.
And if you any pick p in A, f(p,a) is bijective between A and V.
But it's hypothetically possible from all I know
good entry level book does the prereq anyway
but a bit of sets functions relations etc
are you asking if you can have an isomorphism from from k → k²? k being a field? I don't get the question
My question is: For which choices of fields K does a K-vector space V of dimension two accept an application f: KxK -> V such that (K,V,f) forms an afine space, that is, such that there exists an f: KxK -> V which satisfies:
1.- For all a, b, c in K, f(a,b)+f(b,c)=f(a,c).
2.- For all p in K, by fixing p and studying the function f(p,x), this function is bijective between K and V.
And I said+
Condition two cannot be satisfied for finite choices of K
because if K is finite field, then K can't be bijective with V, since V has dimension two over K, so it is isomorphic to KxK
So I know that for finite choices, this is not the case
for infinite choices, I believe it is not the case either
But i can't prove it
I've heard affine spaces are like euclidean space, but what exactly are they?
affine n-space over an algebraically closed field k are all n-tuples of elements of k
Oh neat
denoted A^n_k or simply A^n
you just forget the extra structure
algebraically closed is not necessary
So what's the vector space, and set of points here?
does not sound the same from the op's definition
there is no vector space
Probably not. I've heard of the projective plane, but I forget it
The way i define them here is, a tuple (A,V,f) where A is a set of points, V is a vector space and f is a function that returns vectors between points in said set, that satisfy that f(a,b)+f(b,c)=f(a,c) and that f(p,x) is bijective for any fixed p I choose.
There is lol
it's like affine space but you add points at infinity
so all lines interesect
even parallel ones
It's different from just affine n space
Let $G = GL(2, \mathbb{R})$, prove $[G,G] = SL(2, \mathbb{R})$
Kroros
I've already proven [G,G] is a subset of SL(2,R)
But I'm stuck on the opposite inclusion
I've also proven that SL(2, R) is generated by matrices of the form [[1,0],[x,1]] and [[1,x],[0,1]] in a previous exercise and I assume I have to use that
I edited the message, my apologies
if you can show the generators are jn[G,G] you're done right
lol
Oh neat I have heard of that
What's a set of points? Just some set?
yeah
a set
in this case it's a field
Okay cool
basically, intuitively, an affine space is a bunch of points and a bunch of arrows that connect them all
Yeah I gotcha
Almost like an metric but different too
No not really hmm
Hmm if you can do it, you can have the vestor space be 2^k dimensional I think, but who cares about that
Fix a basis on $V$ and define a map $f^: V \to V$ by $f^(x, y) \mapsto f(x, y)$. This gets finite fields by cardinality and shit I think, but idk if it breaks infinite fields
Halliday
Hmm, I don't really wanna get out a pen and paper
Wait do vector spaces play as nicely over finite fields as I want them to?
Like is F^2 just FXF?
I'm just gonna assume so
||SL(2, R) is the kernel of the determinant, so by first iso GL(2, R)/SL(2, R) = R^\times, which is abelian. And since the quotient is abelian [G,G] <= SL(2, R)||
this is quicker imo
shit that's the wrong direction 
i saw ppl ve been asking question here to so i guess its not forbidden, and im desperate, does anyone onow the answer? i need it like for right now :/
Why do you need it right now
i have an exam tommorow and when i wake up i wont have any time to practise
im trying to find answer for almost 3 hours and cant it, like my examples have supremum and infimum so i would say they are sublattice, but that note from lecture is making me crazy and i spend so much time to learn for this exam i cant mess up on sth like that
thanks that really helps!
but why is r(x)q(x) = g(x) still in F(a)[x]?
I think this is a very interesting question but I don't know where you got it from
r(x) is in F(a)[x] and q(x) is in F[x] which is a subset of F(a)[x]
so closure of the ring F(a)[x]
Such an f(x, y) is (I guess) best understood as a 2-cocycle of the abelian group K with values in the (trivial) K-module V.
ah that makes sense thank u
If we could show that all of these vanish, for instance if H^2(Q, Q) = 0, then we would have our answer, because then all such f are of the form f(a, b) = a - b
I suspect this is untrue though.
H^2(Q,Q)?
Yeah you can define cohomology for groups
H^2(Q, Q) is a cohomology then?
Okay so f is bijective if you fix the second coordinate too.
Point 2 will imply that it's bijective if you fix the second variable too
no?
like
let's say you fix p=1
Oh right I'm dumb
Then every vector in V will have a correspondence to a unique vector (1,x) since it is bijective
and same for 2
etc.
However, if its not bijective in the first, then you do have to have a bijection between K and a subset of K
Wait no, I was right
Uh one sec
Yeah I was wrong
Can I ask who asked you this question?
Or did you come up with it?
Feels like you might be able to finagle a fixed point out of this?
algebra teach
I'm very advanced 
yeah, whatever this means!
basically our algebra teacher said that we're equipped to solve this using basic linear algebra
like
were not that far into it
Hmm are you sure there's not a hypothesis missing? It seems kind of hard as stated.
Is the set of all functions such that f(0) = 0 an ideal for the set of all functions from R to R?
did you try proving it
you are correct
What would the dimension of it be as a subspace of R^R?
Sorry
The quotient of it over R^R
R^R was infinite dimensional but I said that that the quotient had dimension 1.
You mean the quotient of all functions by that ideal?
Yes
you are again correct
a very quick way to see it is to apply the first isomorphism theorem to the map f -> f(0)
Yeah I didnt get that far unfortunately but I guess my intuition was correct
I just said that the equivalence class of 1 was a basis
That is at least an argument that it is at least one dimensional.
Actually I guess every equivalence class is a basis except for the set itself
Yeah
Modulo that ideal everything is equivalent to a constant function.
Because if you subtract a constant from any function you can make it vanish at 0
yes
sounds good then! good job
Thanks
No
Construct an example
probably can do one with chinese
yo im chinese……… u can’t say that…….
How is R isomorphic to R^2?
arent they as additive abelian groups?
Just because it is
Can you write down an isomorphism?
u cant write it down explicitly
If you want to appeal to the axiom of choice you’d probably have to show R is free as a an abelian group which isn’t true
Im joking
ig R is free as a Q-module
but its like its there by AoC
just like u know there is a basis to ur vec spaces
so why wouldnt that be neough
enough*
Okay, so then you need to argue how you do it
I mean if you want to appeal to vector spaces then sure, but you need to use the fact that R has infinite rank as a Q-VS
And sure it’s true that this also implies the isomorphism over Z, but it’s hard to see why this holds when you only consider them as a modules over Z because you don’t have a basis over Z
modules over Z just came to my mind to ease it for me to find examples thats it really
but using AoC u can define some decimal map from R^2 to R cant really remember how tbh but its there
You don’t need to do that
Yes over Q it’s a cardinality thing
or ig as Q modules
R and R^2 are bijective by some cardinal arithmetic implying they both have a continuum-sized basis over Q
Then you take a bijection of their bases and that defines an isomorphism
so its there ig 😄
idk i just remember it as a stated fact
but yea it doesnt work without AoC ( no clue why )
I tried following this convo but I'm so confused
my abstract 2 final is next week and I'm p confident but this still feels beyond me
here is what you can get out of it
A x B iso to A x C does not imply B iso to C
as groups
😄
i figured RxR iso to Rx{0} would work and it does but i took the fact R^2 is iso to R for granted when in reality its not that easy
the map (x,y) --> (x,0) is not even surjective
if thats what ur thinking
yeah R^2 to R feels crazy to me but i guess it's possible
it is but with AoC
but ig AoC is always there like with ideals and/or with basis
so meh
I'm still in undergrad so I need to find a good resource for axiomatic set theory i think (AoC is set theory right?)
Axiom of choice seems illegal
none of this conversation uses anything beyond basic set theory for general mathematicians
not really
as delerik said u WILL see AoC alot
like you could just read chapter 0 of Folland's Real Analysis
And also implicitly often lol
ah ok, im in real analysis in fall
it will have all the set theory you will ever use for a long while
basically idk how would u do algebra without AoC like u wouldnt even have maximal ideals
so maybe thats why R^2 is R as groups is more well-known than "not without AoC"
and alot of the proofs use AoC aswell
choice is an obvious thing students will just assume
you mean the equivalent of choice, Zorn's lemma
Baer's criterion aswell
yes
which proves alot of things for injective modules later on :d
chapter 0 of Folland has it all
folland has it all
great textbook
so now does the counterexample i wrote work with AoC?
@next obsidian but yo what if this product turns into a direct sum
or nvm
I was asking dansam
It's probably just some shit that pops up when you feed it to itself
I have a problem that I have been stuck on for a long time. it seems very simple but i can't seem to prove it:
Let R be a commutative ring with identity. Let a in R be nilpotent, (a^n = 0 for some positive integer n), and let u in R be a unit. Show that (u-a) is also a unit in R.
it also gives a hint, namely "first consider when u = 1"
but the hint hasn't helped me generate anything substantial
right so you know a^n =0, do you see a relation between 1-a and a^n?
let me think for a moment
nothing is jumping out at me
the only thing i can think of would be to condsider (1-a)^n
it is often useful to like, look at simpler cases. what about when n=2
yep
as i said, I thought of n=2 first and it was easy to figure out what to do from there :)
its a good idea to look at simpler cases usually
and you did!
hmm okay
i just pointed you to look at the simpler case
so in the most general case, we consider u^n - a^n = (u-a)(.....) = u^n, which is a unit?
i just want to make sure i understand
yeah that works
that is a lot simpler than i made it out to be
thank you for your help my friend
mhm
That's what, from dummit and foote ring theory first set of questions? Edit: That's not quite the problem from D&F, but it's close - I was thinking of sectoin 7.1 problem 14 part C, which wants you to say that 1 + X is a unit for nilpotent X
What's those dots for? Edit nvm
the number of endomorphisms of Z_n is n right...
Suppose ord(g) does not divide |G|. Then g^{ord(g)} = g^{|G|} = 1, and try to derive a contradiction
Kevin Yang
Oh, I wasn't sure what version of Lagrange's theorem you were asking
oops sorry its this
ye
If H is a subgroup of G you first need the fact you can partition the group into cosets of equal size
Oh
Do you know subgroups have order dividing the main group?
Do you know about Cyclic subgroups?
no oops
ill just skip this
it suffices to prove that a primitive root exists
right
does proof for FLT generalize here
I think the proof of FLT results from this
theres an easy proof of FLT
using basic nt
wait this is literally just the same as FLT
im dumb
How would you prove Fermat's Last Theorem using this?
fermat little theorem
Lol I was just messing around, sorry to bother.
no worries lol
@warm ember try first to prove, if G abelian and has order n, that (a_1a_2...a_(n-1))(a_1a_2...a_(n-1))=1
Then use the fact that a_j*a_k=a_1 for some unique pair j,k
Jeez
I'm still stuck on a question
anybody know advanced abstract algebra?
Like
I'm pretty sure there's no way to make an affine space where the vector space has a higher dimension than the set of points over field of coefficients
Like
if we're dealing with 2D points, 2D vectors should be joining them
etc.
But exercise is asking me if I can have an affine space where I have a field K as the set of points, and. the vector space is of dimension two over K
I know I can't for finite ones
but idk for infinite ones
Wasn't this supposed to be the identity on A_i? It would make so much more sense considering the particular case i=j in the first condition.
And pretty much the same issue on Wikipedia. Maybe they meant "the identity on A_i"?
Depending on what answer you want: here's a dumb example. If you scroll up you'll see someone giving a proof that $R \cong R^2$ as abelian groups (you can check that they're even $\cong$ as rational vector spaces). Let $\alpha$ be this isomorphism, then $f(x, y) = (\alpha(x) - \alpha(y))$ gives an "affine space" which is bijective in $x$ for any fixed $y$.
why should it not be the identity on A_i
@dire siren
@formal ermine I was saying that I think it should be the identity on A_i instead of what is written in the photos.
the identity function rather than the identity element
1 is the identity function here
then it makes sense; but I was confused when I saw "identity of A_i" on Wikipedia
maybe it's a typo
yeah
plus I haven't seen before the identity function to be denoted by 1
thanks for confirmation
maybe you've seen the identity matrix denoted by 1
yes
Let $\Lambda$ be a $R$-algebra with $R$ commutative artinian ring and $\Lambda$ finitely generated $R$-module. We know that for any $A \in \text{mod} \Lambda$ that $A$ is a left $\text{End}{\Lambda}(A)$-module by definining $f \cdot a = f(a)$ for $f \in \text{End}{\Lambda}(A)$ and $a \in A$. We also have that for $\Gamma := \text{End}{\Lambda}(A)^{op}$, which is also a $R$-module with the same properties as $\Lambda$, we have $A$ a right $\Gamma$-module. Now we want to show that $A$ is a bi-module, that is we want to show $(\lambda a) \gamma = \lambda (a \gamma)$ for $a \in A, \lambda \in \text{End}{\Lambda}(A)$ and $\gamma \in \Gamma$. I end up with $\gamma(\lambda (a)) = \lambda( \gamma (a))$ if i havent made any mistake.
whats the argument for that the gamma lambda can switch
Wrong channel and also wrong server
sorry about that im not finding any servers related to this question
try to find the homotopy equivalent circuit of this then use van kampen
I think you're trying to prove something that is not true, also seemingly this has nothing to do with R being Artinian. In general if R is a commutative ring and M is a module then M is either an End_R(M)-R bimodule or an R-End_R(M)^{op} bimodule. It's pretty unlikely that it will end up being an End_R(M)-End_R(M)^{op} bimodule in a natural way (think of R^2 as a module over R, it is not a bimodule for M_2(R) and its opposite because the natural "left and right actions" don't commute). On the other hand End_R(M) is an End_R(M)-End_R(M)^{op} bimodule because matrix multiplication is associative. Maybe you should explain what you think the End_R(M)^{op} action is in your setting?
this is all the information ive been given
Yes this is different from what you wrote.
i wouldve just assumed the op meant f\cdot_{op}g = gf
I don't know why you would write it that way.
But anyway they want you to show that if A is an S module for S a ring, then an S-module M is an S-End_S(M)^{op} bimodule.
It seems to have nothing to do with R really or any Artinian conditions for the moment.
yeah im not saying the artinian fact because i found it useful. it was just given
because thats what an artin R algebra is
emphasize that the operation is different, switching the order for the original one
Yes but you confused yourself about what they were trying to prove. The left action is just by scalars in \Lambda (= S in my notation), then the right action is by those matrices which commute with the scalars in \Lambda
anyways ye ic
my bad
This was very helpful. Thank you.
No worries! I'm not sure about answering this for other fields in general, but this shows that "most of the time" it is possible
Well, I know K can't be isomorphic to KxK for finite K, because cardinalities don't check out, but if we keep axiom of choice, K and KxK are isomorphic for all infinite cardinals
so that settles it!
That's not true! They're just in bijection. For Q and Q^2 for instance it is an easy exercise to see that they are not isomorphic.
(as abelian groups)
Having that isomorphism of abelian groups is an important part of my example.

