#help-0
1 messages · Page 937 of 1
oh
wait how did he multiply by sec/|sec| outside?
sec/|sec| is still a function
not a constant
<@&286206848099549185>
@covert agate Has your question been resolved?
What's the issue Chromium?
integrating |sec|
?
hmm
Indeed, $\frac{\sec x}{|\sec x|}$ is still a function, that outputs the sign of sec x in the interval for which the integral is done
Ansh
the thing is, for whichever interval sec x is Riemann integrable, it's sign function remains the same throughout the interval
so the area under the curve is simply the area under the curve of sec x, with a sign function of sec x attached so that the interval decides on the sign of the area under curve
i don’f get it
"the area is just the area under the curve of "sec x" with the sign of "sec x" in the interval
we're not talking about shit in general (@_@;)
rn, we're talking about |sec x|
If you're soooo hell bent on generalizing though, at most you'd want to talk about some function that has an absolute value function involved
yea
how do we find int |f|
in terms of F
or is there no general antiderivative expression?
We don't lol.. that's the point.. there's no general antiderivative expression as such
the most realistic approach is to break the |f| into intervals and add up to the respective areas to conclude
,w plot |x| + |x-1| + |x-2|
consider this for example 
hmm that actually looks integrable 
it’s always bigger than 0 lol
theree
iirc $\int |x| dx = x|x|/2 +c$
Frosty
hmm yep
how..?
same thing, x > 0 => x²/2 ; x<0 => -x²/2
You really don't want to think about generalizing it tbh, or it'd be a mess if you start coming across integrals that'd be far easily dealt with by just being flexible with them, than being crude and using the generalized approach
huh
yea, im not sure whether you can generalise to |f|
so how do we continue about sec
Start with integrating: $\int |x| \dd{x}$
Ansh
Note: $|x| = x\cdot sgn(x)$
Ansh
sign function - signum function, whichever you call it
Ansh
😋
anyway, what then?
Ansh
yea..?
$=sgn(\sec x) \int \sec x \dd{x}$
Ansh
that's it :|
why can we just take it out???
Ansh
No it doesn't :/
why can we take out the signum thing again?
Signum thing, within the interval of "x" is just the sign of the area
which is +1 or -1, i.e., a constant
Wait, the proof might be less obvious than you think. Imagine a continous but nowhere differentiable function.
:o
Splitting the case where f(x) = +1, f(x)=-1, or f(x)=0 might not work because it may create a nonmeasurable set.
why would differentiability affect the integral
can this be rigorously proven
I'm just being careful. I might still be wrong, though. Just look what if f is a weierstrass function.
int |f| = signum(f) int f?
the proof lies within the separation of intervals
wait so this is true????
holy shit it is
differentiate the rhs
you get |f| right?
Well I prefer to think as integrals as the area under the curve rather than the "opposite of derivative" so, yeah that holds true for me
what do you think 👀
No, I mean, how does separation of intervals work on a function like Weierstrass function which is fractal
isn’t it always 0..?
yha
hmmm.. abs(....) function basically flips the -ve graph w.r.t. the x axis :o
so whatever the interval is, say any arbitrary interval, when W was negative, is now positive, and the integral in the interval is still sgn(W) int W, in the interval 
so we can’t differentiate sgn(x) • f?
$\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{sgn(x+h)f(x+h) - sgn(x)f(x)}{h}$
Ansh
*y = |x| is not differentiable at x = 0
The problem is, the "interval" may not actually be interval. Is it always the case that {x | f(x) >0} can be decomposed into open intervals and countably many singletons if f is a nowhere differentiable function?
no (@_@;)
the point remains the same still though, although you can't really generalize.. flexibly checking on the intervals for your function should give you a thorough understanding of why your sgn(f(x)) is free to come out of the integral
Also @covert agate I found a decent site for you that I myself refer to when stuck with some questions
If you'd like to check https://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/classes/calci/ProofIntProp.aspx#Extras_IntPf_FToCII
In this section we prove some of the facts and formulas from the Integral Chapter as well as a couple from the Applications of Integrals chapter.
yea
thats what i use often
so
we assume sec θ > 0, then we’re done with the signum issue?
(will also need a caae where sec θ < 0, but that’s just sec θ > 0 negated)
mhmm
and sgn(sec theta) take cares to adjust that dependency
original integral 1/√(x² + 1)
and for all practical purposes, you can assume that no-one's smart enough to ask you to integrate |sec x| in interval: say [pi/4, 3pi/4] (@_@;)
because there's a vertical asymptote at pi/2 right there
wdym
the integral will be done in one of these intervals no?
the sgn(sec theta) derives the sign of the area accordingly and you're done
btw, ngl, the x = tan(u) substitution is hella dodgy too lol
nope it's correct
!?
I'm only solely concerned about the x = tan(u) part
has something to do with how inverse trig works but nvm
Do you understand this?
if you do, then there is no modulus sign to worry about any more.
the sgn(secx) coming out was the issue
(and i still don’t get it)
For a general f, check if this is true, then.
(ffs)
by drawing a graph
int |f| = sgn(f) F?
but sgn is not differentiable lol
aren’t we working with antiderivatives
wtf
instead of area
urghhhhhhhhhhhhh
hmmmmmmm
I read absolute value function has no antiderivative
$$\int^b_a |f(x)| \dd x = \frac{f}{|f|}\int^b_af(x) \dd x$$
This is so much more entertaining as a lurker
Camilleone saves the day
Shuri2060
help
👏
uhh not really
draw an example while I write some latex 💤
yea i tried lol
just draw a general f
that goes positive negative
then draw what the modulus version looks like
Then notice how the area is flipped by the f/|f|
wait what even is modulus lol
????????//
| . |
^absolute value signs
$$\frac{f}{|f|}(x) = \begin{cases}1&f(x)>0\\-1&f(x)<0\end{cases}$$
Shuri2060
$$\int^b_a |f(x)| \dd x = \int^b_a\frac{|f(x)|}{f(x)}f(x) \dd x$$
Shuri2060
@covert agate do u follow?
yea
But you wouldn't follow if I just took that fraction outside?
i wouldnt
Let
$$S_{>0}=\bigcup_i\left{(a_i, b_i):a_i<x<b_i, f(x)>0\right}$$
$$S_{<0}=\bigcup_i\left{(a_i, b_i):a_i<x<b_i, f(x)<0\right}$$
hmmmm
no.
Shuri2060
Wouldn't it be easier to write {x : f(x) > 0} tho?
I want to break the integral into bits
depending on the sign of f
So I need to involve the limits right?
ok no no no
I should just use the indicator function
$$\bd{1}_A(x) = \begin{cases}1&x\in A\0&x\not\in A\end{cases}$$
Shuri2060
$$\bd{1}_{\bR^+}(x) = \begin{cases}1&x\in \bR^+\0&x\not\in \bR^+\end{cases}$$
Shuri2060
$$\bd{1}_{\bR^+}(x) = \begin{cases}1&x>0\0&x\leq0\end{cases}$$
Shuri2060
$$\bd{1}_{\bR^-}(x) = \begin{cases}1&x<0\0&x\geq0\end{cases}$$
Shuri2060
$$\int^b_a |f(x)| \dd x = \int^b_a\frac{|f(x)|}{f(x)}\bd{1}{\bR^+}(x)f(x) \dd x + \int^b_a\frac{|f(x)|}{f(x)}\bd{1}{\bR^-}(x)f(x) \dd x$$
@covert agate ok ok this is the next step
This is the indicating function
And I'm using it to indicate if f(x) is positive or not
not good with union notation
Chuck that
Just the indicating function is needed.
I'm setting A to be the positive reals and the negative reals in the 2 cases
$$\int^b_a |f(x)| \dd x = \int^b_a\frac{|f(x)|}{f(x)}f(x) \dd x$$
$$= \int^b_a\frac{|f(x)|}{f(x)}\bd{1}{\bR^+}(f(x))f(x) \dd x + \int^b_a\frac{|f(x)|}{f(x)}\bd{1}{\bR^-}(f(x))f(x) \dd x$$
Shuri2060
I then split up the right integral into positive and negative area, essentially.
Shuri2060
i don’t get this
$$\bd{1}_{\bR^+}(f(x)) = \begin{cases}1&f(x)>0\0&f(x)\leq0\end{cases}$$
Shuri2060
^Do you get this?
Let's start with the definition of indicating function
Does that make sense
yea
Continuing on from this
$$\bd{1}_{\bR^+}(f(x))f(x) = \begin{cases}f(x)&f(x)>0\0&f(x)\leq0\end{cases}$$
Shuri2060
yea
$$\bd{1}_{\bR^-}(f(x))f(x) = \begin{cases}f(x)&f(x)<0\0&f(x)\geq0\end{cases}$$
Shuri2060
And the same for the other case
Next I get to here
By 'splitting' my integral
The left term represents all the 'positive' area (above x-axis)
The right term represents all the 'negative' area (below x-axis)
The left term is the blue area
The right term is the green area
$$\int^b_a f(x)\dd x= \int^b_a\bd{1}{\bR^+}(f(x))f(x) \dd x + \int^b_a\bd{1}{\bR^-}(f(x))f(x) \dd x$$
Sorry to make things clearer
JUST consider this for now.
Shuri2060
This is my claim for any general f
yea
So back to this
ahhh
1 sec
no ok i should get rid of this
Stick with this
$$\int^b_a f(x)\dd x= \int^b_a\bd{1}{\bR^+}(f(x))f(x) \dd x + \int^b_a\bd{1}{\bR^-}(f(x))f(x) \dd x$$
Shuri2060
$$\int^b_a |f(x)|\dd x= \int^b_a\bd{1}{\bR^+}(f(x))f(x) \dd x - \int^b_a\bd{1}{\bR^-}(f(x))f(x) \dd x$$
Shuri2060
Next claim
Modulus sign on function means I add the positive area and subtract the negative area
^I can't take the fraction outside for a definite integral
The outside has no x's (my mistake)
So instead, I will work with this
Ok now I'm suddenly unconvinced by this
🤔 🤔 🤔 🤔 🤔
@hasty elk @little drum is this actually correct?
(wait i can just tag you guys???)
LOL
kek
Did you confuse yourself shuri
yes.
im thinking antiderivatives and it makes sense (i think)
but when i go back to areas, i ?????
It makes sense
$\int^{\frac{3\pi}{8}}_{\frac{\pi}{4}} |\sec x|$... yeah makes sense
When you go to anti derivative, the antiderivative is piecewise defined
The idea is that ./|.| acts as a reflection of the negative part
Ansh
what's the integral |sec x| from pi/4 to 3pi/4? would you just plug in the value in the anti-derivative and get F(3pi/4)-F(pi/4)?
Ok, no, this is pretty much as far as we get for the definite integral
Are you crossing poles? If yes, you can't
When you get down to it, it's abusing the hell to goddamn mars and back that the negative of the integral is the integral of the negative
ofc right, you're crossing the asymptotes
forget that, the integral itself is divergent when the upper limit is pi/2 :/ but that doesn't stop you from writing the integral in a finite interval as an antiderivative right?
You can write down the antiderivative
Which is indeed an antiderivative
For the domain of the original function
However, if your definite integral spans across poles
It means you chop it up
hmm?
(and it will be improper pieces)
yeah
$$\int_{-1}^1 x^{-1}\dd x = \lim_{a\to0}\int_{-1}^a x^{-1}\dd x + \lim_{a\to0}\int_{a}^1 x^{-1}\dd x $$
Shuri2060
Is how we interpret this, I believe. (if it doesn't exist, the integral doesn't)
Provided it exists
So I am going to have to go back to unions
$$\int^b_a |f(x)|\dd x= \int^b_a\bd{1}{\bR^+}(f(x))f(x) \dd x - \int^b_a\bd{1}{\bR^-}(f(x))f(x) \dd x$$
Shuri2060
$$= \sum\int^{b_i}{a_i}\bd{1}{\bR^+}(f(x))f(x) \dd x - \sum\int^{b_j}{a_j}\bd{1}{\bR^-}(f(x))f(x) \dd x$$
Shuri2060
$$=\left(\sum F(b_i) - F(a_i)\right) - \left(\sum F(b_j) - F(a_j)\right)$$
Shuri2060
Split the positive parts into bits.
Then you'll find the definite integral corresponds
Ahhhhhhh I seee how you were tryna put it >_<
honestly though, being flexible between switching to antiderivative and area arguments is for the best at hs/early uni level
Sure. Well it's not bad being sus of stuff like this
although in calculus... well hmm
In calculus things tend to be sufficiently nice
no no.. I'm not trying to dissuade them here.. Just, 
You'll get to know your stuff better as you go one step at a time
It's a lot easier to look back and question later
You really only run into issues once you hit the more mindscrewy parts of real analysis, and at that point you have the tools to understand in far greater detail
Like I'm doing rn lol, still not 100% convinced algebraically
The only use for the "antiderivative argument" which I see, at this level, is if you're proficient enough to assume a F and differentiate it, make some alterations and conclude your integral that way and correspondingly saves a hell lot of time than say, u-substituting/using IBPs etc. on several occasions
ok ok 1 sec
I'm confused how the heck that antiderivative corresponds to the definite integral
Surely it doesnt and you have to chop that integral and then use that antiderivative
I'm like hoping I'm wrong and just thinking about something wrong but

We're back to the same argument that the area is really specific to a...well, a specific antiderivative
Am I wrong lol. If yes, just gonna figure it out haha
For modulus functions antiderivatives tend to require piecewise definitions
And that makes sense because there's no actual way to integrate |x| in one shot using only elementary functions without resorting to piecewise chopping
Ok I am right
You have to take the definite integral piecewise
The area clearly isn't negative.
@covert agate sorry, does that make more sense?
Back to the original problem
Your 'anti-derivative' IS gonna end up being piece wise
uhh this is the og integral? (shouldn’t we end up with |sec u| instead of sec u)
And not continuous in most cases
In this case it wasn't.
Desmos is actually screwing this up a bit
But sure as hell not like this
:o
Yeah
You want to shift the purple thingies up and down
to connect
So that antiderivative from the calculator is only valid over joined up bits
But saying antiderivatives are not continuous kind of breaks things very badly because antiderivates need to be differentiable
So when you calculate the definite integral it needs to be broken up
In that case the calculator approached wrongly surely
What it spat out wasn't an antiderivative
It was only one over piecewise domains
Yes
LOL
This reminds me of winding numbers if we take mod 2
This reminds me of how integral of 1/x is not ln |x| + C
In my year 1 everyone went wtf at it
^ there we go
elaborate 😢
it is over the original domain
(but the C is not constant everywhere)
Precisely
That's the special property of the constant of integration 😉
C can differ at less than 0 and more than 0, so the true integral is written piecewise
Very mindscrew
bruh
@covert agate On a more serious note, I can't imagine anyone being asked to find the antiderivative of |f(x)| properly
Like where the hell did that question come from smh
original problem
=_= don't involve me smh
Your problem was: antiderivative = integral
maybe, I'm not even sure lol... that statement was only in concern of the substitution
I don't even know what the original problem was HAHA
I just came here after finishing writing a four page latex on parameterizing a general circle in 3D
Saw entertainment
3rd line should’ve been |sec x| no?
bottom.
the original problem in context 🤦♂️
I'd honestly hate doing this kind of problem without limits
(i mean definite integral)
Wellll I don't find being able to do hard integrals by hand thaaattttttt important 😂 😂 😂
Realistically, most integrals are impossible to solve and we have computers 😏
Gotta keep on the ball if i don't want to do shady things
Two words: Pure. Math.
wait what do you do in phd math lol
cami is phd?
yes
shuri are you bsc
I'm working on functional analysis, harmonic analysis, and statistics all rolled in one
and riemann
I don't even know how i got to this point
how cursed is phd statistics like
It's all integrals
that sounds nicer than normal stats
multidimensional ones?
$\int\int\int\int\int\int\int\int\int\int f(A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,Z)$
Shuri2060
One dimension, two dimensions, n dimensions, countably many dimensions...
All sorts of shady things appear
Phd courses: here have n dimensional integrals for free
in fucking statistics??
Phd research: here have countably many integrals for free
Yes, in fucking statistics
Tbh i like it better this wY
I actually understand things
Not like bullshit shady hypo testing
no thanks :)
Give me countably many integrals any day
do we even have a choice
@covert agate Ok back to the original problem, when you do your substitution I think you're meant to separately consider the integral over different domains
If you do sub in sec
wdym
Shuri2060
yea
Shuri2060
$$\dv{x}{u} = \sec^2 u$$
Shuri2060
$$\dd{x} = (\sec^2 u)\dd u$$
Shuri2060
Ok, so whenever we substitute for indefinite integrals
We have to be able to undo the substitution
yea
to get the final answer in terms of x
Therefore, we only consider bijective versions of tan
bijective??
Yes, we only let u go from -pi/2 to pi/2
uhhh you know what bijective means or not?
no
D:
not surjective
uh oh
maybe injective
isn’t it analysis
NO
Not really?
Its just like basic functions stuff
Elementary set theory???
Like something you should know anyways.
bijective functions is like everyone should know
(can barely do sets, fuck)
what do u mean barely do
if u can union intersection complement
you're good to go for now lol
the heck?
wat.
$A\cap B$
Shuri2060
yea
cup as to or
cap as to and
$${(x, y)}$$
Shuri2060
Curious, have you seen functions denoted like this
no
as a set of ordered pairs (x, y)
Shuri2060
This notation is familiar?
yea
f is a function that maps to domain A to codomain B
codomain is superset of range
yes.
yes
$f(x) = f(y) \implies x=y$
Shuri2060
this is injective
injectivity
what do you mean surjective
superset
what
anyways, range = codomain
means surjective
superset is like anti subset?
look, i never use that word
i have a feeling i need to track down a good book
almost
ever
$${(a, f(a)) : a\in A}$$
@covert agate so this is an alternate way to represent functions
Shuri2060
huh
This represents f
For example, if f(x) = x^2 for real x
(1, 1) is in the set
(2, 4) is in the set
(sqrt2, 2) is in the set
(-sqrt2, 2) is in the set
think of it in terms of a graph, the set of all coordinates of the function f is exactly that set
oh yea coordinates
Why I bring this up
Oh I know this y = f(a) so (x, y) and a is in some set?
Well if a function has an inverse
no
wait, how do we define codomain lol
bijective = injective AND surjective
yes.
its just a superset of the range
Some of this is recognizable from haskell
lel
Inverse exists iff bijective
it's got nice colours
If inverse exists, then the inverse function will be all those coordinates but swapped
And you kinda should be familiar with this stuff
before doing idk
calculus
When substituting in indefinite integrals, you need a bjective substitution
or you can't undo it (since the final answer needs to be in terms of the original variable)
before doing any kind of mathematics at the high school level even
which bit.
Readup on chapter 5
?
cami sent
$$f:\bR\to\bR$$
Shuri2060
We usually do stuff like this
even though f might not map to all of R
Just for convenience/generalisation
Wait what's the difference between codomain and range
Codomain can be any superset of the range
The range is everything f can map to
$$\Im(f) := f(X) := {f(x) : x\in A}$$
Shuri2060
Yeah it wasn't supposed to be
Shuri2060
What's Im here
Image of f
and :=
image?
Ah ok
alright then?
so we restrict the domain of tan
to
(-pi/2, pi/2)
that makes tan bijective and therefore invertible
We only consider the middle curve this way
Now we have a substitution function that is invertible
This is important for indefinite integral substitution. After substituting and integrating, you need to undo the substitution to have the final answer in terms of the correct variable
Definite integral substitution --- you don't necessarily need a bijective substitution.
You also convert the limits of the integral when you substitute for definite.
So there is no need to undo the sub
Oh ok
I have only reached till limits in school till now
so I don't know any of this
Good day
@covert agate Has your question been resolved?
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I’m absolutely clueless as to how and why exactly this happened. Thank you to whoever helps me!!!!
I need it explained like I’m 5, because I’ve been literally trying to understand how and why for the past 2 days
@oblique vigil Has your question been resolved?
(-log(3) -4log(8))x = -2log3
(-1)[log(3)+4log(8)]x = (-1)(2log3)
divide both sides by -1
Do you know why we divide both sides by -1?
"Divide both sides by -1"
Is a way to change the sign of both sides
If -x = -3
Then x = 3
If (-log3 - 4log8)x = -2log3
Then (log3 + 4log8)x = 2log3
You can also think of this as "Multiply both sides by -1", same thing.
Can we do that because the entire equation is negative on both sides?
You can just always do that
You can multiply both sides by 2 any time you want. You can multiply both sides by -1 any time you want
That is, you can flip the sign on both sides any time you want
Ok, now this is making a lot of sense!!!!!!!!!!!
So no matter what the equation, this isn’t special to logs or anything
Ye the logs aren't doing anything to make this happen
Thank you so incredibly much!!!!!
Np, feel free to ask if you have anything else.
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is it the answer the this question?
just wanna make sure
you need to simplify
?
Yes
are you sure bro?
Yeah
thank you my friend
Np
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U too
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hello
You got help with this already.
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Can someone tell me the steps to solve it?
what are the options?
start by explicitly marking the lengths on the sides of the triangle
as well as marking the location of the angle
then based on the relative positions of the sides you know to the angle you want to find
identify the appropriate trig function to use and set up your equation
I don't understand how to identify the appropriate trig function
did you do that
start by explicitly marking the lengths on the sides of the triangle
as well as marking the location of the angle
I did the 1st part I don't understand the 2nd part
wdym by first part
I marked the lengths on the sides of the triangle.
Do I put hypotenuse where I marked AB and 90 where C is?
can you show me how you marked your diagram
Do I put hypotenuse where I marked AB and 90 where C is?
you can if you want
can you identify whether BC (the side of length 13) is opposite or adjacent to angle A?
Opposite
and you've also already identified that AB (the side with length 16) as the hypotenuse
are you familiar with
soh cah toa?
No
its a mnemonic to help remember what sin,cos,tan do in a right triangle
and it would be helpful to look that up
if you don't know it
@astral wasp Has your question been resolved?
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Does this look right?
anyone/
You wrote that intersection of A and B is {1, 3, 9}?
I wrote A'∩ B is {1, 3, 9}
What's A' ?
Ah
Yeah it's {1, 3, 9}
I think iii is wrong
It should have elements that are in A or are not in B
So that'd be every element except 1 3 and 9
Yes well spotted thanks
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Let f be a function, a in the domain of f .
State the definition of f continuous at a.
Can anyone explain to me what this question is telling me to do?
it just tells you to say what does it mean for function f to be continuous at a
It has no holes or jumps?
Have you been introduced to definition of continuity at a point?
at point a
Not yet
Well you need that
It just says state the definition of f continuous at a
the limit of f as x goes to a is equal to f(a)
thats the answer?
Shuri2060
Sometimes the questions are really that easy
It's probably in your textbook
oddly enough on one of the exams this answer was not accepted because it was not rigorous enough
they expected an epsilon delta definition instead
?
??
Well whatever your exam wants.
I don't really buy that, there is nothing to prove when asking for a definition
I corrected it
I can write it out in full if I want
I assume if OP knew the epsilon delta definition, they wouldn't ask
Sorry for side railing. Feel free to .close @fresh relic
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how do i go go about doing this one
'best' 🤔
I think what they want you to do is draw it
and decide which way of chopping it up is smarter
i drew it but idk how to understand which way to chop it
can u show diagram
eh?
you should get used to just sketching on paper but ok
You should shade in which region is of interest
the y-axis about the x-axis?
the question says rotated about the y-axis about the x-axis
the part of the solid you're rotating
wrong.
They give you 2 equations
what is the 3rd equation which forms the last side of the triangle
y = x ?
where is there any mention of that
wdym 3rd equation
huh?
y=3x
y=-x+8
y-axis
Are the 3 lines that bound your region
ie. triangle.
the third equation is the y axis?
no.
ya
how do i visualize it
like i can only visualize it being rotated around the red line function
??
no, rotate this thing around the x-axis
Use a 3d graphing program if necessary
/draw the thing on paper
and try
is it shell with respect to x
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I asked this question last night, but apparently it was unsolvable. I'm going to add some more information now and ask if it's solvable.
So, I want to solve for function f.
I know that the curve has no inflection points in range [0,8], that it is concave-down and increasing, and that it passes through 2 specific points.
With this information, is it possible to solve for f?
No
I’m sure you can find a polynomial that solves that
But imagine you had something like 1/100000 x^6
You can just add a bunch of insignificant terms that change the curvature slightly
What if there were a stationary point in [1,8], and I knew where it was?
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Because of x^2?
the numerator should always be 1 degree less than the denominator.
oh so it's not the form (ax^2 + bx + c) but degree?
I thought we were only allowed to use Cx + D if the denominator's in ax^2 + bx + c form
It isn't only about degree, as something like x/(x + 1)² has a different form
But you do have the form ax² + bx + c there
that looks painful

guys I can't solve these equations
I think I'm stupid
sigh
@pale kestrel help pls
oh right, now that I have a new equation I should try that
so what I do is find the values that make each of these undefined and substitute them in right?
yeah
so
ohh
alright
I managed to find A and B but not C and D
A = 1/4 and B = -1/4
oh 1 sec
Found C using x = 0
but if I sub plus or minus 1 for D I get either A or B?
so what should I do in this case? @pale kestrel
C = -1/2
when is $x^2 +1 = 0$?
xdk1235
huh this has +1
am i supposed to go by the fractions or the resulting equation? I'm pretty sure it's the resulting euqation because that's what i see on my textbook
$\frac{1}{4}(x+1)(x^2+1) - \frac{1}{4}(x-1)(x^2+1)+C(x^3-x)+D(x^2-1) = 1$
These two are the only methods I've been taught
You could totally compare the coefficients at this point after getting A and B-
Ansh
for D?
For both C and D
I already found A, B and C
oh
C = -1/2
but I ndo what to put in for D because it becomes a zero
oh my God
it could be 0
why did I think it couldn't be zero?
oh no wait
C's not zero
tbh, I don't see how you got C = -1/2
:p right? so you get C = 0, D = -1/2
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Hey friends. Starting taking Calculus II this semester, and I haven't been in a calculus course in a few years. I get the priviledge of uncovering all of the gaps in my mathematical knowledge.
I'm stuck on finding the integral of a function. I feel like I'm overthinking the u-substitution.
I have u = (x^2) + 1.
du = 2x
And my trouble is substituting this back into the equation
Coffee's translation: Put $u= x^2 - 1$ and the expression converts to- \
$\int \frac{1}{2\sqrt{u}} \dd{u}$
What is being substituted in the place of x in the numerator?
Ansh
I also saw that calculation on an external website. What I'm tying to figure out is where the x in the numerator goes.
Sorry, I'm also working while doing homework.
I'm confused why dx was substituted into the equation when we're solving in terms of u.
why would it not be sqrt(u-1) / sqrt(u)
oh because we can't have u inside the integral when we have dx or vice versa
I learned that here 
also good to know, thank you
i'm thinking more so of how dx = (1/2x) was substituted into the function when du is already present
it looks like dx (du)
It makes sense how the x's cancel out to leave 1/2
but why was thewait
WAIT
it clicked
holy heck
I see it now. The u-substitution was distributed to du/2x, which is du (1/2x).
because you're replacing dx in terms of du, the du is also accompanied by 1/2x
cool. Thanks for the help yall!
POG
@sullen trout could you type .close please?
@pale kestrelwanna see something I solved on my own?
Can I dm you? It's not a question
go for it
.close
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Hi
$$x = 7 - A$$
Shuri2060
$$A = 7 - x$$
Shuri2060
I still dont get it
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I want to prove $2^n>n^3$ for n grater or equal than 10

