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Because it's really just a whole bunch of transformations applied to continuous functions
Ah fair enough
its the only limit law you need almost
They're all the same pretty much, just different operations
yeah
continuous operations
Thank you so much
but for example you cant use this to compose when theres a discontinuity
you need to be careful
sometimes you might
but its case by case
got it
discontinuity at the point
i mean
👍
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im stuck on 332
332?
yes
let u=cosθ
ZAMNNNNNNNNNn
@scenic wing Has your question been resolved?
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where did I go wrong
Seems correct
you didn't
4 dot 8 is 4*8 right?
It's all correct then
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$-\int \frac{1}{u} du$
putridplanet
yes integrate
idk how genius
Damn sassy helpee
the antiderivative of 1/x is ln |x|
putridplanet
- C
absolute value
and if i substituted u as cosx then its $-ln(cosx)+c$
putridplanet
still missing an absolute value
absolut value
putridplanet
idk
try a substitution
yes
i already substituted
what did you get
putridplanet
u=sinx
is that allowed
yes
of course
but was my work right
to get this .
Yes
ok v =lnu ?
v = ln u
That's not complete substitution
right
u = stuff in terms of v
and you need to consider the du
$\int\frac{v}{u} xdx$
Absolutely not
x?
putridplanet
du = (stuff with v) * dv
du = 1/u dv
.
Meaning you shouldn't have any x
You only want to go forwards in substitution, not backwards
$\int\frac{v}{u} udv$
putridplanet
putridplanet
Hello ???
no
That is correct but remember what v is you have to sub back in v =ln u
so $\frac{lnsinx^2}{2}+c$
and what is u
beim?
putridplanet
Pure
Pure
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Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
2 comes the $2C_2$ operation. 3 comes from the $3C_2$ operation. -1 comes from the $C_2\leftrightarrow C_3$ operation.
SWR
what about this
Iirc, adding one column to another does not change determinant.
But I would need to look it up to be certain
Yeah. Adding or subtracting rows preserves the determinant
@peak mist Has your question been resolved?
thank you
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I got the answer -5/6 when finding the definite integral, which is the net area, but how do i find the area? (total area?)
Find the area above the x axis and below the x axis separately
so i think my first step would be to evaluate y at 0
Had a typo. Should have been x axis for both
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With regard to partial derivatives, should you treat variables that you're not differentiating as 0, or just leave them as the variable? E.g does f'_x(x,y) = x + y equal 1+y or 1+0?
I've seen conflicting information on this, some sources go with 0, and some keep it as the variable
they are just constants
This causes problems when you take second partial derivatives
How?
If f'_x(x,y) = 1+ythen f''_y_x(x,y) = 1, but if f'_x(x,y) = 1, then f''_y_x(x,y) = 0
The first one here is just wrong.
Because the y is left in?
If so then I don't know why half of online resources do it like that
Yes
Like where?
Here's a problem from https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JAf_aSIJryg
This calculus 3 video tutorial explains how to find first order partial derivatives of functions with two and three variables. It provides examples of differentiating functions with respect to x or with respect to y using techniques such as the product rule, quotient rule, and power rule. This video contains plenty of examples and practice pr...
Khan Academy also leaves the non-differentiated variable as is
Because, in both cases, y is a constant attached to x.
My course textbook also has this for x+y+xy
How does that change things? If the non-differentiated variable is to be treated as a constant, then surely it should be set to zero and multiply away the whole term?
if we have a full derivative, then we treat the 5 in 5x differently than the 5 in x + 5
Because there's an xy term
you treat the variable as a constant
so if it’s a coefficient to the variable you’re differentiating by, it stays, but if it’s by itself with other numbers or non-differentiated variables, it becomes 0
Oooh, ok. I was taking treat it as a constant a bit too literally. Thank you all
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Question, how do we know that z is in the second quadrant?
I assume because it is in the second quadrant we subtract the angle from pi
but how do we know it is?
if x is > 0 and y < 0 shouldnt it be the 4th quad?
here is the example from my textbook
he solves this in the second quadrant
do you flip the signs of x and y to find the quadrant?
unless i mistyped (or wolfram is wrong!) thats Q1
really, how?
Im supposed to determine the quadrant first to know what to subtract my angle by
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so I got the negation of the first statement
@daring cipher Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
If you go back one step you can see easier
I don't understand
Using the identity on the bottom
still don't understand
i'm at least 70% sure it's d)
same
thats why I wanted to make sure
but I didn't know where to start or what to do after the answer I got
yea idk ive been trying to get to A but once I started writing it down I dont see it
Cause your simplification is correct, but its not equal to A
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can any1 help me
absolutely no idea where to start
wait
nvm
it's pi/3
so ig i just gotta get cos and sin from that
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How do i sum a scalar number for example the value 3 with a matrix for example of type 2x2 or 3x3?
You can't do that
Because dimensions do not match
Unless you disguise that scalar as a matrix full of ones multiplied by that element
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you could just look at K_5 and count tbh, but the better idea is to look at it and figure out the pattern why
Isn't there a formula to determine how many there are?
how
surely you know how to do #19
then #20 you can think - wow, I can start at any vertex, then go to any other vertex, then for the second step I can go to any vertex except the first one
this pattern extends into 3 and 4
watch out for double counting paths (its distinct, so AB and BA are the same)
i dont understand how i can get 19
Do you know matrices ?
You can do a path matrix and M^n gives you the number of paths of length n from point a to point b
yes but how i get path simple
Hello everyone, today I want to give you a brief explanation of how Warshalls algorithm works and how it can be applied. Personally I…
adjacency matrix?
Okay but how i can get simple path
Just sum the coefficient
All path in the adjacency matrix are simple though
Correct me if I’m wrong otherwise there’d be infinite path
I have an exam, they give me undirected graphs
can tell me a example?
If you want the number of simple path of length two
Take M^2
Sum the coefficients
And you have your number
Draw a simple graph
And try it 👍🏻
I get 20
Try it with a simple exemple fort
First
Like a straight line
With three points
And two lines
You should get one
19 , i get 20
Okay wait
all paths of length 1 on K_5?
do you know what a path is and what K_5 is?
Yes but i dont know how i can calculate that
I get M^1 if i sum all elements = 4
That would be correct
Four path of length one
From 1 to 2, from 2 to 3, from 2 to 1, from 3 to 2
So you see that it works
sooo my k^5 is 20?
Idk didn’t check it
You could count
Or trust the formula
Or try to prove it to understand why it works
Yes
cn explain me this?:
What does it say
What is that formula for?
For what 😭
The paths of at least length
n are found by adding all the lengths up to n.
At least length 3:
Include paths of length 1, 2, and 3.
I do not understand what it means
ok dont worry but thx for help me
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can anyone help out with this
or this
@heady sky Has your question been resolved?
@heady sky Has your question been resolved?
average rate of change is just f(b)-f(a) over b-a
which is basically the slope formula
so you could plug in 4 and 1 into f(x) and subtract those
then subtract 1 from 4 then divide the 2 results
you can use the same formula for average rate of change for this question as well. basically just calculate each thing the question is asking for
(which is basically just reading a table)
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Why is A, B, E correct?
Why is C, D, F incorrect?
Fyi I’m a complete beginner to this stuff so idk 😔😔😔
f(n) = 3*(1/3)^n
f(n+1) = 3*(1/3)^(n+1) = 3*(1/3)^n*(1/3)
Divide both
What did you understand so far by the rest of it?
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I'm investigating the sum of complex exponentials. The resulting angle in particular. For a sum e^(ia1) + e^(ia2), the angle is given by:
x = arctan((sin(a1) + sin(a2))/(cos(a1) + cos(a2)))
I've observed numerically that as long as the sum of angles a1 + a2 falls within [-pi, pi]:
x = (a1 + a2)/2
Now I'm stuck trying to prove this. I'm not sure where to start, I've searched for trig identities to help me out here and have failed to find any. I would prefer a nudge in the right direction here if possible but I understand if it's quicker or easier to just give an explanation.
@patent turtle Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
What is "the angle" you're referring to
The angle between the resulting complex number and the x-axis/real number line
Just use Euler's identity
Then group real and imaginary parts together
Then find that angle using arctan
How is Euler's identity applicable here?
Do you know what it is
Oh I don't
I meant Euler's formula
,tex .demoivre
riemann
With n=1
This is how I derived the arctan formula outlined in my question. I'm not sure what you're suggesting here.
Its called the De Movieres formula 😐
If a1 is between pi and -pi, then the range of its sine is?
Range might help here, so could sum to prod identities
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how do u go about solving this
use the FTC
fundamental theorem of calculus
what is that
(i just started integrals)
i learned how to calculate anti derivative
and the difference between definite and indef integrals
idk what FTC is
let's start with the question first
yes
$\int^3_1[9f(x) - 5g(x)]dx$
mud ツ
for integrals you can split it when it's being added or subtracted
$\int^3_1[9f(x) - 5g(x)]dx$ = $\int^3_1 9f(x) dx - \int^3_1 5g(x)dx$
mud ツ
oh
u dont just find anti deriv and plug in the limits?
that works too, but it's not 9(2)
oh cause limits are different?
yes
ooooooooooo
that's where this comes in
yes
$\int_b^a f(x) dx = -\int_a^b f(x) dx$
mud ツ
hm
idk what to do for the first one cause its not like a function
it just says fx=2
you know $\int_3^1 f(x) dx = 2$
mud ツ
correct
flip it and you get $-\int_1^3 f(x) dx$
mud ツ
correct
ok so for first one
we get f(3)-f(1)=2
so i guess when we flip
we get -1+3=2 again?
what i do wrong
from $-\int_1^3 f(x) dx$ you should get -(2)
mud ツ
you just substitute the integral with the number
i thouight it was f(b) = f(a) for def integrals
which would be f(-3)-(-1) = -3+1=-2
ooh
mb
you don't have to, and you also don't know what f(x) is
i forgot to flip here thats why
ok and so now we get
you evaluated the integral from 1 to 3 of f(x)
constants can be taken out of integrals
yes
elaborate on this one
$\int^3_1[9f(x) - 5g(x)]dx$ = $\int^3_1 9f(x) dx - \int^3_1 5g(x)dx$ = $9\int^3_1 f(x) dx - 5\int_1^3 g(x)dx$
mud ツ
woah
and you can substitute $\int_1^3 f(x) dx$ and $\int_1^3 g(x) dx $ with the given numbers
mud ツ
so then, $9\int^3_1 f(x) dx - 5\int_1^3 g(x)dx$ = 5(-2) - 5(-6)
mud ツ
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is the complex conjugate of the product of two functions just the product of the complex conjugate of those two functions
so the complex conjugate is "distributive"?
.reopen
???
find x, y and z
????
i dont understand how to solve this can you help me
this channel is in use bro
yes..
i think i might be able to help you
give me a second to think
do x y and z need to be integers?
yes
negative 1
positve 4
and 3
what i did
was find the first 5 integers negative and positive
and cubed them
then i mixed and matched until i got the solution
i cant figure out a more elegant solution than just brute forcing it
Hi, could someone help me delimit this orange thing in Geogebra? I’m supposed to do a bridge but since my homework is due 11:59 I’ll stick to this simple design. If someone could help me, I would be very grateful
bro what the fuck is going on in here
-1 cubed is negative 1
wait
i think i fucked up
yeah its -1 2 and 3
-1 cubed is -1
yeah i fucked up
sorry
idk man
im unsure but im gonna go ahead and close this beause this channel has been hijacked lol
.close
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help
how do i find the range and domain of the function f(x)=x^8/3 without a calculator
$f\left( x \right)=\frac{x^{8}}{3}\text{ }\text{ }\text{ then:}\\dom\text{ }f=\mathbb{R}\text{ }\text{ and}\text{ }\text{ }rng \text{ }f=[0,\infty )$
Joanna Angel
this function is trivial
you can set any real number x
hence domain is an antire set of all real numbers
im sorry i meant x^(8/3)
🙂
ok moment
$f\left( x \right)=x^{\frac{8}{3}}\text{ }\text{ }\text{ then:}\\dom\text{ }f=[0,\infty )\text{ }\text{ and}\text{ }\text{ }rng \text{ }f=[0,\infty )$
Joanna Angel
the base of the power must be non-engative
greater ro equal to zero
then results of such oeprations are the same
but the function is defined when i graph it? i get y values when i put in negative values
for x
you cant set
y negative
neither x
power function is defined onyl for arguments non-negative
unless
you write it in such way: but that is other function:
$y=\sqrt[3]{x^{8}}$
Joanna Angel
that is same only for non-engative
but for negative, you cant use first fucntion you wrote
ok
what about the range im having trouble justifying why its [0,oo)
would the value of the numerator have to do with it? or the numerator/denominator being even/odd
$\forall _{x\ge 0}\text{ }\text{ }x^{\frac{8}{3}}\ge 0$
Joanna Angel
the difference wud be like this :
$\forall _{x> 0}\text{ }\text{ }x^{-\frac{8}{3}}> 0$
Joanna Angel
negative exponent for such power has infleunce
i know but for example if it was x^(5/3) and x^(8/3) why would the ranges be different from each other
i think to justify the range, you can think abt it how the range is the y-values that you get from your function. If you were to plug in -infinity into your equaiton, you would get a infinite value back, if you plug in infinity into your equation, you also get a infinite value back
degree of the graph
when u have x^8/3 its basically a parabola (U shape) and when u have x^5/3 its a odd power
how do you know its a parabola without graphing
but wouldnt the degree for x^5/3 be positive as well?
not exactly since the degree is x^5
is it because its an odd number?
so an odd degree is defined by an odd numerator
basically yea
does that mean the denominator being odd/even is irrelevant if the numerator is odd
so if it was odd/even its still odd degreed?
only if its odd
so odd/odd?
Odd/odd would give u a odd degree, even/odd gives u a even degree
what about odd/even
this is my justification for the range pls tell me if its ok or if im missing something: the range is [0,oo) because any value of x raised to a rational exponent where the numerator is even and the denominator is odd will result in only positive y-values
That sounds fine to me @foggy pecan What do u think abt it
If the exponent of the power function is a rational number, then there are not any problems with positive numbers
On the other hand, there are problems with the extension of these definitions to bases that are not positive real numbers.
to avoid it, I define power functions with rational exponents only for non-positive numbers, unless exponent is negative rational one, then i define it fo positive numbers
so $\left( -2 \right)^{\frac{8}{3}}
$\left( -2 \right)^{\frac{8}{3}}$
Joanna Angel
is disallowed for me, unless we use radical forms
then yes
$\left( \left( -1 \right)^{2} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}}=1^{\frac{1}{2}}=1\neq \left( -1 \right)^{2\cdot \frac{1}{2}}=\left( -1 \right)^{1}=-1$
Joanna Angel
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I am getting 5 but that is wrong
such that x+y+z>0 and xyz = 2***
i did
[det(a)]^2 = 1
@daring pilot Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
yeah but the answer isnt matching
Can you show your work?
1 sec
answer is just 7 so 5 has to be eliminated somehow
Why ±1?
square of det(a) is 1
so to remove square i need to take both positive and negative one right?
i initially didnt do that and only got 5 as the answer
Wrong
I mean, it's right, but that's gives you only 1 and not -1
√x² = x
So √|A|² = |A| = 1
i need to take -1 to even get 7 as an answer tho, if we just take +1 then our only answer is 5
how i saw it is
when x^2 = 1 then x = +1,-1
then why is it any different in
[det(a)]^2 = 1
you can also write that as [det(a)]^2 - 1 = 0
which then becomes (det(a)-1)(det(a)+1) = 0
that gives us det(a) = +1,-1
can you please tell in more detail
sorry, no clue
np thank you for the help, I need to figure out the flaw in my method because it came to my mind naturally so there must be something conceptually incorrect with my understanding
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I was working on this question
And i got
Horizontal stretch by factor of 1 / e^2
Is that correct?
It’s a vertical stretch by e^2
wouldn't both make sense??
Yes you are right
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If the differential equation is of the form $Mdx+ Ndy=0$, when do we have an integrating factor $\frac{1}{Mx+ Ny} ?$
.doc
An important thing to add here is, both M and N are homogenous functions of same order
Im solving 2 b) and value of k is -0.0726
This is my working and im stuck and i think i did something wrong..
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Anyone here familiar with M/M/1 Queueing models?
Suppose a customer arrives at a random time and finds the queue empty, but you are unable to determine if the server is busy or not. How would you calculate the probability that the server is busy?
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excuse the bad writing
@vocal tapir Has your question been resolved?
no clue what's going on here
$\lim_{x\to 0 } \ln\left[\cos(ax)\right]^{\frac{1}{\sin^2(8x)}}$?
artemetra
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im stuck on 393 idk where to start
You could directly integrate it first
And then substitute
That's the integral for inverse tangent, are you allowed to directly write it? Or do you need to show it first and then substitute?
^ it's the same as writing
ok
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hey Im looking at a solution for a q and was wondering why the limit is 0 for all points in the domain
I don't understand your doubt
According to the limit if the number is irrational f(x) = 0
If not f(x) = 1/q
So that makes the function discontinuous
can you write de function
dont know how on latex
is the picture not working
unless you mean draw the graph of f
The only explanation I can think of is c tends towards an irrational number
That would make sense
but not all values in the domain of f is irrational
why are the limits of the rational numbers 0?
i mean the definition of function f(x)
It is given in the question
Unless ur asking for the function itself
Which usually isn't given in limits
@full lantern Has your question been resolved?
I think that you should use a proof by contraddiction. Suppose there exists an $c_0$ in the domain such that the limit isn't 0, call that limit L. Suppose L>0, and apply the limit definition with epsilon=L, you'll find $f(x) >0$ for all x in a neighborhood of $c_0$, but it is impossible because in the irrationals $f(x) =0$
If L<0 choose epsilon=-L
Not 100% sure but it should work
milo_schwartz
OHHHH
that makes so much sense
wow thank you mate, dk how you came up with that
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!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
1
can I ask for homework....
Do you agree that the set {0, 1}^N is isomorphic (bijective) to P(N) ?
ik that N is not bijective to P(N)
It basically asks for an infinite subset of N such that there exists a total ordering on it.
Yes, but {0, 1}^N is bijective to P(N).
Think of it this way - a subset of N is the same as a function from N to {0, 1}, which tells, for each element of N, whether it belongs in the said subset of N.
Thus, {0, 1}^N, the set of all such functions, is the set of all subsets of N (also explains why |P(S)| = 2^|S|).
The question thus asks for an infinite set of subsets of N which have a total ordering.
could you give me a small example or a way to show that a set C will be a total order where C is a subset of {0,1}^N?
im strugglign with this
I think you can choose the following set of functions from N to {0,1} :
The first function will be the null function a(n) =0 for all n
The second one will be b(1)=1, b(n) =0 for all n greater than 1
The third one c(1)=1,c(2)=1,c(n)=0 for all n greater than 2
And so on
or a way to filiter out the subsets of N that do not have a total order
Do you know what a well ordering is ?
In this way the set of these function, call it C, should satisfy the requests
no
Okay. Here is another idea - can you check that a(n) = n implies a total ordering on N ?
Then, can you check that a(n) = n implies a total ordering on N \ {0} ?
Then the same for N \ {0, 1}.
So on so forth.
And since there exactly N such subsets, you have a countably infinite amount of subsets for which there is a total ordering.
Does it make sense ?
i dont get why u ask this
The question asks for total orderings - a(n) = n implies such a total ordering.
Yes - the question asks for an infinite amount of subsets for which there is a total ordering. I am trying to show that if you have a total ordering implied by a(n) = n, then removing the "last" element (if it exists, which in our case, it does), then you will also have a total ordering.
is a(n) = n a well known thing for total orders or is it from the context of the question
No - you have to prove that a(n) = n implies a total ordering.
from the definiton of total ordering $x \preceq y \lor y \preceq x$ how do u prove that a(n) = n implies total ordering
luke1
is it just the = ? from <=
The question says that x is smaller than y iff a(x) <= a(y).
Since a(n) = n, we have that x is smaller than y iff x <= y.
So proving that a(n) = n implies total ordering is the same as proving that the "conventional" ordering <= of the natural numbers is a total ordering - that is, proving that for any two natural numbers x and y, either x <= y, either y <= x (or both, but never neither).
Ugh, I guess this is quite difficult to prove unless you take for granted the fact that the ordering of the naturals is total. We could try to do it if you know about Von Neumann ordinals, though.
no idea what that is
Oof, okay. I hope (but don't gurantee) that it is not a problem if you take for granted the fact that the ordering of the naturals is total.
All you then have to show is that the ordering implied by a(n) = n is the same as the conventional ordering of the naturals, thus it is a total ordering.
Then all you have to show is that no matter how many times you take the first (smallest) element, you're still left with a total ordering. And since N is a countably infinite set, you can take the first element a countably infinite amount of times, thus form a countably infinite amount of subsets for which there is a total ordering.
Depends, I don't know what it asks for.
Wait, wait, wait... I think that I've misinterpreted the whole question. 😐
Wht!!!
Yup, I've misinterpreted the whole question, I'm really sorry. I'll try to help you with this too.
dw its fine i need the help i can get
ur misinterpreted answer did help me a bit to understand some stuff
So basically, we have the set of functions from the natural numbers to {0, 1}. We call a function smaller than another function if for any n, the value of said function at n is smaller than or equal to the value of the other function at n. Then the question asks us for a countably infinite amount of such functions.
Let's think a bit about this. Do you agree that if you take a function, and all you do is to increase the value of one of itss assignment from 0 to 1 (but never the other way around), the new function is smaller than the old function ?
Then, you could start with the function which assigns all natural numbers to zero, then always assign the smallest natural number assigned to 0, to 1.
So the first function is a(n) = 0, the next one is a(n) = 1 if n = 0, and a(n) = 0 otherwise, the next function is a(n) = 1 if n = 0 OR 1, and a(n) = 0 otherwise.
And since we have the natural numbers, you can do this a countably infinite amount of times.
Of course, this is quite an informal proof, though hopefully it is enough to point you in the right direction. If you need help formalizing the proof feel free to ask.
(It is the same as @novel estuary's answer, now I noticed).
Does it make sense, @rocky juniper ?
im reading it several times to understand it
Oh okay. If something is unclear don't hesitate to ask.
i dont rly understand this
"then always assign the snalest natural number assigned to 0 to 1"
Okay, you have a function which assigns all natural numbers to zero.
We want to generate a new function, starting from this function, which will be bigger than it.
What do we do ? We search what is the smallest number of the first function that is assigned to zero, and in the new function, we assign it to 1, while keeping all the other values the same.
This new function will obviously be bigger than (or equal) to the first function, while being different from it.
Then, we generate a third function from this new function, which will also be bigger than or equal to it.
Then we generate a fourth one etc. and by induction, we generate, in the end, |N| such functions, thus a countably infinite amount of such functions.
C will be the set of such functions, yes. All that is left to do is to prove that those functions are totally ordered.
Do you need help with this ?
is it just to do with the f(n) <= g(n) and the definition of total ordering is x <= y or y <= x which f(n) <= g(n) satisfies?
or have i just gotten that completely wrong
Yes, kind-of. If f < g, then for all n, f(n) < g(n). Let's try to prove that if it is not a total ordering, we get a contradiction (thus, by the law of the excluded middle, implies that it is a total ordering.).
Suppose that C is not totally ordered. Then, there are two functions f and g such that neither f <= g, neither g <= f. So, not(f <= g OR g <= f). Thus, not(forall n f(n) <= g(n) OR forall n g(n) <= f(n)). Thus, by De Morgan's law, not(forall n f(n) <= g(n)) AND not(forall n g(n) <= f(n)). Thus, exists n (not f(n) <= g(n)) AND exists n (not g(n) <= f(n)). Thus, exists n (g(n) > f(n)) AND exists n (f(n) > g(n) -- relation 1.
BUT, f <= g if and only forall n (f(n) < g(n)) -- relation 2.
Thus, by proof of contradiction (since relations 1 and 2 are contradicting themselves), C is totally ordered.
I think it is quite like what you stated, but formalized.
@rocky juniper Has your question been resolved?
thanks for this
Actually you could try to prove by induction that C is totally ordered.
We start with that function assigning everything to zero. Obviously that singleton set is totally ordered.
Then, when we add an extra element, it also is totally ordered.
So on so forth.
btw this was the part b i was talking about
Oooh, this one is interesting.
I'll think about it since it is definitely harder.
Okay, I think there is indeed a such uncountable set.
Here is how to construct it - do you agree that P(N) is uncountably infinite ? We will have to construct a set {0, 1}^N that is bijective to P(N).
We could do it this way:
- Take an arbitrary member of P(N) - that is, a subset of N.
- Construct an element of {0, 1}^N based on that subset - that is, any element in that subset is assigned to 1, and anything else is assigned to 0.
- Prove that this set of functions (Z) is bijective to P(N) (all there is to do is to prove that there is a function which undoes step 2 - that is, construct a subset based on that function). Thus, {0, 1}^N has the same cardinality as P(N), thus it is uncountably infinite.
- Prove that Z is totally ordered.
Does it make sense, @rocky juniper ?
yea
for step 3, do we just do the opposite on what step 2 does i.e element in that subset is 0 anything else is 1
im rly bad at abstract alg
Recall that a function is bijective if and only if it has an inverse function.
You can thus prove that the function from P(N) to {0, 1}^N is a bijection by constructing its inverse function, a function from {0, 1}^N to P(N) which "undoes" it.
and to prove that Z is totally ordered do we follow similar steps to part a ) ?
Yes, you could follow the same steps.
Though actually I think it is a bit different.
Let me think a bit about it.
WAIT
This set Z actually is not totally ordered.
Because, for example, take the functions f and g generated by the subsets {0} respectively {1}. Then, neither f <= g, neither g <= f (you can check this yourself).
And since Z (which is equal to {0, 1}^N) is the only uncountable subset of {0, 1}^N we can construct, and since it is not totally ordered, we have that any totally ordered subset of {0, 1}^N is countable.
My bad!
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show that if G is a topological group and A,B⊆G are compact subsets, then AB is compact.
am i right in using tynchonoff theorem and the continuity of the map?
<@&286206848099549185>
@winter tangle Has your question been resolved?
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I don't know what a topological group is, but I'm currently studying compactness. I know that if A,B are compact then AxB is compact for Tychonoff theorem as you said, and we know that the continuos image of a compact set is compact. Therefore if in the field you're studying there exists some continuos map $f\colon AxB \to AB$ then it should work. I studied group theory and I think that AB is something of the form $z \in AB \iff z=a+b$ with $a\in A b\in B$ and $+\colon AxB \to G$ should be an operation
milo_schwartz
if + is continuos then you're done, but as I said I didn't study topological groups so I don't know if it's the case
well a topological group is a Hausdorff topological space G which is also a group, whose
group operation $\dot : G \times G \to G$ and the inversion ${}^{-1} : G \times G \to G$ are both continuous functions
張嘉棋
$G \times G$ has the product topology
張嘉棋
Oh okay, so if they're continuous you're done for the reason above. You can also say that AxB is compact for the kuratowski theorem if you don't want to use the tychonoff theorem
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can any1 help me
sin/tan = cos
why?
if I do it it's 0/0
$\frac{\sin \theta}{\tan \theta} = \frac{\sin \theta}{\frac{\sin \theta}{\cos \theta}} = \sin \theta \times \frac{\cos \theta }{\sin \theta}=\cos \theta$
start with tanx = sinx/cosx
Adam Chebil
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Help
This is an easy question
But I feel like its a tricky question because all the other questions were hard
,rotate
Did I do it right??
Why subtract it with 18 tho?
no?
It asks how much it grew the population
Oh wait
So + 18
Also wait I think...
The weird thing is that Im doing integrals
You need to count the rate for the first 3 days too
I dont know why my teacher gave me this exercise
Im probably doing something wrong
At the end of day 1, it would've grown by f(1)
By day 2, f(2) and so on
Oh yes
So I have to multiply everything
By 1 2 and 3?
Like I repeat the same formula 3 times with 1,2 and 3
Hold on
@storm ridge what you think
Hold on
Its 188
Instead of 224
And its 56 instead of 92
Apparently this is the right procedure
But I don’t understand it
Can someone explain it to me please?
this is integration
basically it assumed that the rate of growth is a derivatve of a function
which it obviously is which is the number of insects
henc dN
Im pretty sure my math teacher hasn’t even explained it
yeah then this wouldn't work
I swear she always give us stuff she never explains
dN is the rate of growth of the ants?
No, dN/dx is the rate itself
dN is the change in the number of ants
and dx is the number of days
so change in the number of ants/ change in the number of days
Just like a car
Change in distance / change in time = speed
@slender tangle wait what grade are you?
I think our school system is different
Im 18 (2005)
I’ve never failed
ok ok
a class
do you know calculus already?
I feel like my teacher give us exercises she never taught us
because either this is an introduction to calculus
I know integrals and derivates
or this is calculus itself
Ok then just do this
Wait galm
Give me 2 mins please
N’(x) is 20+6x+3x^2 (rate of growth)
So Im supposed to do the integral of N’(x)?
yah
yeah
remember that dN/dx is just the same as N
N'(x)
just two completely different notations
∫N’(x) dx= ∫20+6x+3x^2 dx?
yeas
yeah because when you sub 0, it cancels everything
since 18 = bla bla bal + C
since x = 0
then that will be your new C
use that and sub 4 to get the answer
yeah
so just use the equation again but this time replace C with 18
and then have N(4)
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Help
How much variation dr in the radius of a coin can be tolerated if the volume of the coin is to be within 1/1000 of their ideal volume?
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@wheat sparrow Has your question been resolved?
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@wheat sparrow Has your question been resolved?
@wheat sparrow
yes?
hmm
I read "the distance from the axis of rotation to x (i.e., the radius of a sample shell)"
I assume it means y-axis to the x value
which is just x
i think
@wheat sparrow , thinking more, I think you're right
Although I don't know the shell method, it seems logical to me
Sorry for answering even though I don't know the shell method very well
its all good
I avoided to answer because of this
But as I saw no one was answering, I decided to try to help
.close
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how do i graph this
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I have a exercise but I translate for y'all.
The Pic du Midi de Bigorre cable car (Pyrenees) has two sections.
The first section leaves from La Mongie (M) located at an altitude of 1753 m and arrives at Taoulet station (T). On this section, the cable car travels 1800m (MT).
The second section leaves Taoulet (T) and arrives at Pic du Midi station (P). On this section, the cable car travels 2630m (TP).
At what altitude is the Pic du Midi station located? Round to the nearest meter.
The exercise 7-7
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Question number 10,
These problems are for squeeze theorem and Trigonometric limits, but I can't see where the strategy lies for this, since you cannot make a sinx or cos x less between -1 and 1 inequality to create the "trap"
Also, I've deduced that the right side expression is a step function
Can anyone help with that question?
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My question is here
