#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 67 of 1
Merosity:
you're welcome 👍
I was playing with prime numbers and manage to find this pattern on the primes, does anyone reconize it? oeis.org doesnt,...
can you screenshot and talk about it instead?
You really should describe what you're doing
There are just random numbers how are we supposed to tell what your pattern is
oke i will give some description
just crunch those numbers!
I start with the value:
v = floor(p / 2)
After i keep updating v with the same algorithem until it reach to itself:
v = v^2 mod p
De data in my file is primes and total iterations it takes before it reach itself
Alright, and what's the pattern?
so you keep squaring it until it is congruent to the original number?
correct
i use this data to find the upper bound for any n case
like if n is made out of two primes
i can use that data and find out how many iterations it takes for n
basicly i can use this to find small factors really fast with a view iterations with this algorithem
ok i'm still don't get it, for 11 you got 2, what is the exact procedure?
if i take floor(11/2) (which is the same as (p-1)/2
i get 5, so
5^2, that reduces to 3 modulo 11
square that again gets 9
and again to get 81, reducing to 4
doesn't seem to go back to 5 in 2 steps, what am i doing wrong?
@alpine jasper that right, there is a catch
you must imagion at start it can happen your not in the circle yet,.. you need to iterate like 5x before your in the circle
uhh...
can you describe the entire thing with math

If you've read my blog post, he's talking about preperiodic vs periodic points
I.e., for that number, it's true that f^{m+n}(x) = f^{n}(x)
So you need n steps to get "into the circle"
And then the periodic length is m
i see
@light flicker ow thx, i didnt knew how you would call this,.. where has this formula/pattern been used for?
We show that all permutations in $S_n$ can be generated by affine unicritical
polynomials. We use the $\operatorname{PGL}$ group structure to compute the
cycle structure of permutations with low...
This is a paper my friend wrote
That's basically what you're doing but a lot more general
so if f(x) = x^2, take x = 5 for p = 11
then f^{7}(x) = f^{1}(x) [mod 11]
so f^{7 + n}(x) = f^{1 + n}(x) [mod 11] for all n
does this make sense?
oh wops i made a mistake
ow wauw this is even pretty recent thx 😉 @light flicker ❤️
wait why 7
oh nvm it shouldn't be
by the way, what i discovered today is that those values can be used to find the factors on n
so i get what periodic means here, but i dont get what the period for mod 11 is
Okay wait this is the wrong paper
It's vaguely related but it's a different paper I'm thinking anout
I'll find the other paper when I get home
n = 31 * 19
[442, 405, 283, 574, 225, 560, 252, 481, 473, 498, 35, 47]
442
- 442 225 217 4 31
- 442 252 190 6 19
- 442 473 31 8 31
405
- 405 560 155 4 31
- 405 481 76 6 19
- 405 498 93 8 31
283
- 283 252 31 4 31
- 283 473 190 6 19
- 283 35 248 8 31
574
- 574 481 93 4 31
- 574 498 76 6 19
- 574 47 527 8 31
225
- 225 442 217 4 31
- 225 473 248 4 31
- 225 35 190 6 19
560
- 560 405 155 4 31
- 560 498 62 4 31
- 560 47 513 6 19
252
- 252 442 190 6 19
- 252 283 31 4 31
- 252 35 217 4 31
481
- 481 405 76 6 19
- 481 574 93 4 31
- 481 47 434 4 31
473
- 473 442 31 8 31
- 473 283 190 6 19
- 473 225 248 4 31
498
- 498 405 93 8 31
- 498 574 76 6 19
- 498 560 62 4 31
35
- 35 283 248 8 31
- 35 225 190 6 19
- 35 252 217 4 31
47
- 47 574 527 8 31
- 47 560 513 6 19
- 47 481 434 4 31
that list are the v = v^2 mod p values
i combine those values with eachother to find the prime factors like this:
v = abs(list[i] - list[j])
p = gcd(v, n)
so i got (all done in modulo 11)
f^1 (5) = 3
f^2 (5) = 9
f^3 (5) = 4
f^4 (5) = 5
f^5 (5) = 3
so f^{4 + n} (5) = f^{n} (5) for all n
am i doing this correct? what does this mean for p = 11 to have "2"?
We find the limiting proportion of periodic points in towers of finite fields
for polynomial maps associated to algebraic groups, namely pure power maps z^d
and Chebyshev polynomials.
This is the paper that I was thinking about
Its just an image from sage
@light flicker by experience i know it takes max +- 10 iterations before you reach the circle,.. like i am not sure its related to what you send,... but i like your paper 😉
im confused ab p=5 too,
v_0 = 2, so we get
f^{1} = 2
f^{2} = 4
f^{3} = 1
f^{4} = 1 = f^{k>2}
idgi
halp
@sleek cove what your trying?
how do you get 1 for 5 and 2 for 11
oke let me give example for 5 and 11
p = 5
v = floor(5 / 2) = 2
list = [4, 1, 1, 1, 1, .....]
4 is the first iteration
and that value isnt in the circle yet
you skip this value
and go to the next
that becomes 1
and after you see it keep repeating itself
means f(5) = 1
now 11
p = 11
v = floor(11 / 2) = 5
list = [3, 9, 4, 5, 3, 9, ..]
you see 11 start inside the circle with 3
its because iterations is always 2x
i dont get this
i dont see any pattern involving 2 in 3,9,4,5

te pattern is 4 right
Wait are we squaring or doubling
squaring right
squaring
look at the list values 😉
you now what i generate th data again,.. without the 2,... then it will make more sense for you guys
oke patched
sorry for mistake. the data looked confusing because i used steps of 2 in my algo that generate this result.
is was a improvement in calculations
oh i see
yeah this makes sense now
have you looked at other functions such as v=v^3 mod p? or even v=v^k mod p? it seems interesting
It's described in the paper
actually all of the even powers would just shorten the sequence length in half, like v^4 would just be half of v^2
reading papers are for nerds
You can also say things more generally, not just for that specific number
The paper is pretty technical
could i read it
no, i did a lot of pattern filtering on ```
a^2 mod n = v
b^2 mod n = v
a always has a twin b that produce same v. except a has a divered of n.
No
then dont tell me its in the paper smh
and yeah about the power 4 i used to do steps of 2
the first or second one u linked
what i realized if you want to optimize x^2^y mod n calclulation is that you need totient (n)
that limit me to get myself into intresting positions to get potential prime factors for big integers n cases
Thank you for taking the effort by the way, really appriciate it ❤️
I need to find numbers x, y and z such that yz I x^3 -2 and y+z I x^4 -2
Any ideas?
x<100
python?
@forest mica
"""
yz I x^3 -2 and y+z I x^4 -2
"""
def f(x, y, z):
if(x == 0):
return 0
else:
return (y * z) // pow(x, 3) - 2
def f2(x, y, z):
if(x == 0):
return 0
else:
return y + z // pow(x, 4) - 2
for x in range(100):
for y in range(100):
for z in range(100):
if f(x, y, z) == f2(x, y, z):
print("{} {} {}".format(x, y, z))
something like this you mean?
meh python
good?
😳
correct answer
Can someone help me understand this proof?
@fervent crest
This is from Hatcher's Topology of Numbers and jsyk I've read all previous chapters and done all exercises up to this point so no need to explain the previous stuff
The language towards the end is very hard for me to interpret visually because it feels vague
My first issue is that I don't understand how the last matrix making up P takes the next-to-last edge to <1/0,0/1>
@light flicker why pinged me
because you studied these things
It's gorgeous 😍
What is this 
an intro number theory book by Allen Hatcher oriented towards algebraic number theory
ugh so I tried to interpret this as
"the next to last edge" := $\left<(b-a_k a)/(d-a_k c), a/c\right>$
zd:
cause when you mediant that a_k times with a/c you get b/d back as expected
so in the strip it would be the next to last edge, the edge superimposed over <0/1, 1/a_1> in the diagram
or maybe it's reversed? $\left<a/c, (b-a_k a)/(d-a_k c)\right>$
zd:
Just need something when you multiply it by $\left<1/0,a_k/1\right>$ you get $\left<1/0,0/1\right>$
zd:
but it doesn't work lol
hmm or wait
it does but it's what's superimposed over $\left<1/0,0/1\right>$
zd:
I think what Hatcher was saying more informally is that $\begin{pmatrix}a & b-a_k a\ c & d-a_k c\end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} 1 & a_k \ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} a & b \ c & d \end{pmatrix}$
zd:
which I think works to justify that step in the proof?
I don't know why the matrices alternate from transposed to not transposed though
im gonna try a thing
still not much closer to understanding this proposition
let's ping @fervent crest again
Please
LOL
how do I solve n^2+k^2=3737?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler's_factorization_method
Basicly you know that the prime factors are 3737 = 101 * 37
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fermat's_theorem_on_sums_of_two_squares
generate sums of two squares for your two primes
10^2 + 1^2 = 101
6^2 + 1^2 = 37
then you can use those results to finish it with this: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler's_factorization_method
n = 3737
k = 1 * 2, h = 10 * 2, l = 1 * 2, m = 6 * 2
(a - c) = kl = 4
(d - b) = km = 24
(a + c) = hm = 240
(d + b) = hl = 40
a^2 - c^2 = d^2 - b^2 = (a - c)(a + c) = (d - b)(d + b)
a = (hm + kl) / 2 = (240 + 4) / 2 = 122
b = (hl - km) / 2 = (40 - 24) / 2 = 8
c = (hm - kl) / 2 = (240 - 4) / 2 = 118
d = (hl + km) / 2 = (40 + 24) / 2 = 32
a^2 + b^2 = c^2 + d^2 = 4n
122^2 + 8^2 = 118^2 + 32^2 = 4n
And there you see the two solutions
3737 = 61^2 + 4^2 = 59^2 + 16^2
Also you can do for negative cases:
n = p * q
= 37 * 101
= (1/4)((p+q)^2 - (p-q)^2)
= (1/4)(138^2 - 64^2)
= 69^2 - 32^2
Can someone check if this is right?
This also doesn't belong here
you want y on one side
this is clearly a linear diophantine equation therefore nt smh @woeful trellis
$$a(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{p-1}\frac{x^n}{n!}$$ $$b(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{p-1} n!x^n$$
Merosity:
Supposedly if $x \ne 0 \mod p$, $a(x) = -b(-1/x) \mod p$
Merosity:
any ideas how to prove this?
oh wow, the sum is up to p-1. I've been staring at this thinking the sum was up to infinity 😛
and was trying to understand how it could possibly converge
heh I made some similar mistake myself
actually just got an idea, maybe a(x+y)=a(x)a(y) mod p and so that can then be shown to be true as an identity with b somehow, but I think I might have to do more, not sure
eh, I don't know if I'm in the mood to walk down that path right now, I feel like something to do with rearranging terms might be more likely
whats this from mero
" Also, it turns out that
a(x) = -b(-1/x) (mod p)
for any prime p and any x not congruent to zero (mod p)"
I went ahead and checked a handful of cases by brute force, but didn't prove the "it turns out that" part
they call b(x) the "companion function" so I don't know if this is part of some broader method, like
$\sum a_n x^n$ and $\sum a_n^{-1} x^n$ are always going to be related in this way or something
Merosity:
kind of seems like it'd be more specific to the factorial, like wilson's theorem kind of lurking in the background, I'm not sure
I've brute force checked all values with primes up to 100 and found no counterexample, figured that it's reliable enough
n = p * q
a = z^2 mod n
b = z^4 mod n
c = (z + 1)^2 mod n
d = (z + 1)^4 mod n
p = gcd(abs(a - b) + abs(c - d), n)
for any n that is coprime exist a z integer that produce a p prime that is part of n coprime
Anyone a clue what theorems are related to this to explain this relation?
If i change the powers 2, 4 to 4, 8 this also holds true
also for powers:
8, 16
16, 32
32, 64
....
here some example data for n = 4223
@obtuse stream I just worked through what you sent, looks like that's exactly what I needed, thanks
ah I think I see a little more clearly about the congruence now
$\binom{p-1}{n} = \binom{-1}{n} = (-1)^n = (-1)^{p-1-n} \mod p$
Merosity:
this is much much cleaner LOL
kind of looking to take on the mod p^k case, I think it'd be possible to generalize to that from here
as in adding more terms to the a(x) and b(x)
dunno, just seems fun
does wilson's theorem have any reasonable analog for prime powers or is it just sorta bleh
it looks like the factorial is often 0 mod p^k though like 8! mod 9
yeah, so long as you throw out the terms divisible by p
OH oh ok
oh yeah, mathpages is a cool site
I think I just came up with a generalization but I'm gonna go check it first before I try to explain it if anyone's interested haha
I'd be interested to see. I spent all of yesterday trying not to work on proving the thing you posted because I had other things I needed to get done, but it was a super cool claim.
The case k = 1 can be easily solved by applying SFFT.
We find (4,4), (6,3) and (3,6) as a solution.
But for the case k=2 and general, I'm pretty stuck.
Applying SFFT for the k=2 and beyond wouldn't work properly, since I would be dealing with degree 3 and above multivariable polynomials.
Case k=1 (Solved)
• note
Here, k is the same as p. It's quite messy because I've solved this problem before thinking about the general problem, so I didn't have a standard notation, but you get the idea.
Case k=2 (Stuck)
was -1 a typo?
General case (Stuck)
was -1 a typo?
@sacred junco yes, it was. Thanks for spotting it.
Idk what you're trying to do but you can simplify the equation significantly:
\begin{align*}
\sum_{i=1}^k\frac{p_i\cdot180(n_i-1)}{n_i}&=360\
\sum_{i=1}^kp_i\br{1-\frac{1}{n_i}}&=2\
\sum_{i=1}^kp_i-\sum_{i=1}^k\frac{p_i}{n_j}&=2
\end{align*}
Whoever:
Corrected version.
I am trying to solve the problem of finding all semi-regular tessallations of the euclidean plane.
That's where this diophantine equation comes in.
For a fixed k, basically means that I'm choosing k different regular polygons to make a tessellation of the euclidean plane.
Yup
I think the degree of this diophantine equation for k>1 is too filthy for me and I cannot help
hmm
for k=2 there are many many solutions
wait I think I did something wrong
n_k ≥ 3 is an important detail I was not considering
Let’s say a number is a perfect $n$th power modulo $m$ if it’s congruent to a number raised to the $n$th power. What can be said about the number of perfect $n$th power modulo $m$, what about the number of perfect $n$th power in $U_m$?
Whoever:
Ok of course if m is prime and n=2 then it’s just the number of quadratic residue, and the answer will be (p-1)/2
Well if you include 0 it will be (p+1)/2
I suppose the problem boils down to solving it for powers of a prime, since knowing the solution there we get the answer by the chinese remainder theorem
eh maybe not, I think I was assuming too quickly counting the solutions modulo each divisor p^a of m, would just allow us to multiply the results together
Well maybe asking this question for any m is a bit ambitious, I guess we can try working the special case of m being a prime power first, or even just m=p
yeah sounds good
I think when p | n we have problems
at least for the power of p case, just thinking to hensel's lemma, but maybe it's ultimately fine
didn't you ask a similar question to this a while back? I feel like we had a similar discussion and you showed me a trick and I sort of vaguely remember but forgot how it went
Well we talked about how to compute the square root explicitly
not the number of roots
*perfect powers
ah right
I guess euler's theorem simplifies in a sense which cases to even consider
might be easier in vc
$\omega^3 = 1$ let's say mod 7,
Merosity:
$a^3 = (\omega a)^3 = (\omega^2 a)^3 \mod 7$
Merosity:
so there are only 2 (not counting 0)
hour long vid just on that 
and it's only part 1!
how many parts?
two
are you going through different apporaches or like, starting from complete scratch and working your way to the sol
this is the approximation part, the second part is the proof, and Riemann's explicit formula for pi(x)
Well, if you don't know what a Bernoulli polynomial is, talking about Euler-Maclaurin approximation takes a bit
but the goal of this series is to make the Riemann Hypothesis make sense, and make all the stuff around it seem less scary. So I think being super terse hurts that. I'd rather take the time to smell the flowers along the way. But it won't be the style for everyone.
fkng linux does not allow me open youtube and like zetamath's video
so after part two of this, my plan is to do an intro to some high pointsi n complex analysis, to understand how one finds the zeroes of a complex function (since you can't use the intermediate value theorem or anything). This will eventually lead to talking about some Fourier stuff which is necessary for motivating and proving the functional equation.
The part I'm currently figuring out how to talk about is integral transforms, which are necessary for proving the prime number theory and digging a little deeper into this. But I'm having trouble making it not seem like a weird trick. I think I have some ideas though.
but basically I want each video to tell a story that isn't just a B line to a proof
ok mr 3b1b
Is there an example of analytic methods being used for number theory that's simpler than the zeta function
@wooden sleet Yes, there are plenty. The first episode I posted talks about some of them.
@simple hearth I think there is a mistake in the video but im not sure. when you approximate the crescents you write f(0) + f(1) / 2 but isnt f(x)=1/x^2? (so it should be f(1) +f(2))
that's for a generic f(x)
we're going to apply it with f(x) = 1/x^2 later
but everything works nicest if I do all the work for the interval 0 to 1
(even though the interval 0 to 1 isn't even involved in the sum)
Given a positive integer $N$, consider any positive integer $n=p_1^{r_1}p_2^{r_2}\dotsm p_k^{r_k}<N$.
There are at most $(r_1-1)(r_2-1)\dotsm (r_k-1)$ many ways to write $n$ as a totient since that would be a product of primes, which must be powers of the same primes $p_1,p_2,\ldots,p_k$, times a product $(p_{i,1}-1)(p_{i,2}-2)\dotsm (p_{i,t}-1)$ made from them.
Thus there are only finitely many values for which the totient function can take on less than any given positive integer. Therefore the limit of the totient function to infinity equals infinity.
Just making sure, is this valid? Any extra work to do or perhaps I made a bigger conceptual mistake
zd:
I think I have the wrong number for the upper limit of how many ways you can write some number as a totient
i think this is good, but i thought if the limit of the function was finite then it would imply that the num of primes was finite as well
Nice! Or even just supposing that the limit isn't positive infinity, i.e. that you can establish an upper bound so that there are an infinite number of totients less than or equal to it. Since there are only finitely many values to take on, there is at least one which is the totient of infinitely many numbers. Insert similar counting argument to my previous one but based about a totient rather than a prime factorization to contradict
And I saw an even more complicated one from a buddy who did a hacky thing that I didn't really get ;-;
yeah that makes sense as well, theres definitely many ways to prove this
0,1,2,3,4....,n-1 forms a complete residue system modulo n and exactly phi(n) numbers are co prime to it.
Also r,m+r,2m+r,....,(n-1)m+r forms a complete residue system modulo n. How do i prove that this complete residue system modulo n also has phi(n) numbers coprime to it. If r=0, then i understand why but if its non zero then how do I prove it?
How would you prove it if r=0
Hi guys, I need to find the remainder when 15²²+23²² is divided by 19.
I know the first step is to expand binomially and get (19-4)²²+(19+4)²² and then 19k+2⁴⁵ which would mean the remainder is the same as the remainder when 2⁴⁵ is divided by 19.
Now I don't know how to proceed from here...
I don't see a cyclicity in the remainders when 2^n is divided by 19 and I can't manually count the remainder for 2⁴⁵...
Well you didn't notice because the period is pretty long
Ohh
But do you know Fermat's little theorem?
No I've not heard of it..
Well, it says that if $p$ is a prime and $a$ is not a multiple of $p$, then $a^{p-1}$ has remainder $1$ when divided by $p$
Whoever:
You can test it out
Wow what, that is a neat concept!
Indeed
Yeah doing it rn, this is amazing!
Yes it seems like a concept that could be used in very limited situations, but it is fast as heck
Wait okay I need to work a bit, thanks for the hint man! ♥️
I'll have to use a pen and paper 😅
Well, there is a generalization
It says that if $n$ is a positive number, $a$ doesn't share a common divisor with $n$, then $a^{\varphi(n)}$ has remainder $1$ when divided by $n$, where $\varphi$ is the totient function. This is a generalization of that statement I said above because if $p$ is prime then $\varphi(p)=p-1$
Whoever:
Ohh so instead of primes we shift to coprimes
Yeah
And in the first statement we required a to not be a multiple of p is the same as saying a is coprime with p
Because p is prime
Wait wait I'll solve, give me 2
2¹⁸ gives a remainder 1
I'm taking p as 19 and a as 2
So
2¹⁸-1 is divisible by 19
And therefore 2^n*(2¹⁸-1) should be divisible by 19
2⁴⁵-2²⁷ is divisible by 19
Next we need to find the remainder when 2²⁷ is divided by 19, and since we know 2¹⁸-1 is divisible, we know that 2²⁷-2⁹ is divisible by 19
So I just have to find the remainder when 2⁹ is divided by 19. Should I do this manually?
Thanks :D
You've discovered something pretty interesting
Which will simplify your life tremendously
So the theorem is that, if a divided by n has remainder b, and c divided by n has remainder d, then ac divided by n has the same remainder as bd divided by n
I'm pretty impressed that you discovered this on your own
Nooo I don't get it, how did you draw that generalization? ._.
Yes
So 2^{45} is 2^{18}*2^{27}, and the remainder of the product is the product of the remainder
So the remainder of 2^{18}*2^{27} is just 2^{27}
Ohh yes I get it!
So I just have to find the remainder when 2⁹ is divided by 19. Should I do this manually?
what is manually
As in, just simply divide 512 by 19 :P
It's not too tedious but
512 is 2*16^2, which has same remainder as 2*(-3)^2, which has same remainder as 2*9, or 18
Okay I need to take a break. I've been at this binomial thing for a while now and I can't think straight. It's totally eluding me rn
Haha sorry I've been just throwing a lot of information at you
well alternatively, you could just reduce the components
You seem to be capable of doing these stuff, but you just haven't seen a lot of number theory
Reduce the components? 😅
what is 23 = to mod 19
If you're computing remainder of product, you can replace each term in the product with numbers with the same remainder
you're allowed to substitute smaller numbers for larger if they are equal to the same number mod n
so 23 = 4 mod 19, thus we have 15^22 + 4^22
same with 15
Wow what
Oh
Yeah that makes sense from the binomial expansion @sleek cove
I'm sorry I haven't studied math after grade 12 so I'm not well versed with the mathy terms
Nah these math terms aren't taught in high school sadly 
Haha I can see that, you both are PhDs?
noooo lol
no lmao
whoever is only 11

Wait what
Woaaaah
Lollllll uhh
sory 21
Lol 11 years old that would be funny
Sideurk is 5
Nice
but anyways, we notice that 15 = -4 mod 19, so we have (-4)^22 + 4^22, which is much easier to handle
Hahahaha
im a normal 19 yr math major smh
Yes I was at that point, 2⁴⁵ divided by 19
Yeah
It's actually quite impressive that he found that out without modular arithmetic
I mean yes
I totally agree
If I wasn't exposed to modular arithmetic I would have never figured that out
My dudes, I'm 21. I feel dumb asf in here lmao
I wish they thought modular arithmetic in high school
and wow zephyr is only 2? what a prodigy
21...
2 ones?
That's insane dude, you're not even in kindergarten thats crazy
But seriously doe
all jokes aside, whoever is actually 53 lol
Bye guys, thanks a lot. I learnt a lot of stuff today ♥️
he just likes trolling
Huh?
yeah np
Bye
...
Bruh
Bye!
it follows a chaotic system
That's still a well defined function tho
im disagreeing with your well defined claim
it is well defined
it is defined based off of what i say it is

So the theorem is that, if a divided by n has remainder b, and c divided by n has remainder d, then ac divided by n has the same remainder as bd divided by n
@fervent crest
Okay so I was sleeping and thinking of this, and this is way more useful than I thought it'd be. That's all, good night fellas
Man I love this new theorem lmao
The fancy words for your theorem might be something like "multiplication is well defined on congruence classes".
Yeah
is there a way to find solutions for $\phi(n)=k$ where $k$ is given, $\phi(n)$ is the euler totient function
Abhi964:
Or only hit and trial works?
I had come across a question where k=8, so I used the inequality root(n)<=phi(n)<=n-1
my search space was from 7 to 64, after this i used phi(n)=n*(1-1/p1)*(1-1/p2)....
Now I made a few observations and then basically did hit and trial, i wanted to know if there is some general method to solving such kind of equations , or is this the only method
do you know a different forumla for phi(n)
it might be easier to work with
try breaking n into its factorization and distributing
(and yes we can be smarter about finding the solutions)
try breaking n into its factorization and distributing
@sleek cove How do i do that when I dont even know n
well how did you get the latter half of the formula involving arbitrary p_k's then?
the subscript k doesnt refer to the k given in the question.
i know
My bad should have used a different symbol
what im saying is, where did the p_i's come from
I just assumed that n had k prime factors
so why cant we substitue those factors in for n
like, if you've already assumed n to have i prime factors, dont we know n's factorization?
and this assumption is always true
for n>0
what if i dont assume that
No i mean lets say we dont know how many distinct prime factors n has,
We know it has to have some , but we dont know how many
....which is why we use p_i
not p_7 as the last p
i is arbitrary
there must be i distinct primes
But to know n's factorisation we must also know the powers of the primes , so just by saying that n has i distinct prime factors where i is arbitrary, i cant possibly know the factorisation of n
But to know n's factorisation we must also know the powers of the primes
so we use another arbitrary number for the exponent
alpha_1, alpha_2, ...., alpha_i
Okay so how do we proceed after this
distribute
distribute what exactly?
have you substituted in for n yet
substituted what ?
Yea
so, why not distribute (p_i)^(a_i) into (1-(1/p_i)) for all i?
Thats exxactly what I did, and i had asked for a general method
Thanks for the help btw
Now I made a few observations and then basically did hit and trial, i wanted to know if there is some general method to solving such kind of equations , or is this the only method
@runic lynx
what you did isnt a method, but this way is
what i am doing will greatly reduce the guesswork
uh yeah, in this case we know n=8, so we only consider p's such that p^a-p^a-1 divides 8
so theres no "guessing"
and we can easily find upper bounds on p and alpha, which helps
i mean, theres still work to do, but its much better than just trial and error
But now I have realised that this approach is right, thx
i mean, theres still work to do, but its much better than just trial and error
@sleek cove those were the observations I was talking about, I should have mentioned them though
try writing out some cases by hand to ground yourself
backwards element symbol 
If it wasnt possible then I think the problem wouldnt be there
Well no
hes talking to merosity
A problem can still be interesting if the answer is that no such n exists
I meant Whoever
Because you'll have to show it
$\bN \ni n$
Merosity:
it is not the case that no n exists
smh
shake my hand

what if you do it again
no no I want to solve this problem now
I think starting at the solution is probably the way to go
ill get someone to help you
start with
@fervent crest
k≥10 doesn't quite work
Merosity:
So n has to have less than 10 digits
Im not sure where that formula came from
$d_kd_k\dots d_k=d_k(11\dots1)=d_k(10^{k-1}+10^{k-2}+\cdots+1)=d_k\frac{10^k-1}{10-1}$
Whoever:
Now I see
Merosity:
kitchen1112:
nope
that's backwards
write out the digits for k=4 using your formula and my formula and compare, I think that would make it clear why
Notice that kn-n=(k-1)n is a multiple of 10
So k odd or n even
and k-1 is divisible by 5 or n is divisible by 5
n=148148 works
@torn escarp
aside from n being single digit, I think that's the only solution
NO
lol
Sorry caps lock was on
But I notice that if a is the last digit of k, then d_ka=d_k (mod 10)
So I found all the solutions to that equation
And the only one that gave me a solution to the original question was 6*8=8 (mod 10)
ah I see
and then mod 10^2 and so on was the plan eh? 😛
seems familiar can't quite place my finger on it though
Well k can't be greater than 9
Or else kn will have one more digit than n
So I think that's it

Never mind
There's another one
185
Python is taking a long time to verify
As usual
Ok yeah python only gave me 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,185,148148
@sacred junco @torn escarp pretty convinced that these are the only solutions
Wait he has the solution or not
it's a simple enough problem to brute force
fans?
Yeah
Johnny Depp is into number theory these days or somethin?
Not sure who Johnny is
His followers
Who's he
@fervent crest it was correct
Ok
@fervent crest you are 53
Ok
@fervent crest you are a weeb
Ok
@fervent crest ok
Ok
Im still stuck on the question
It's above
kekW this line of a research summary
I think they're unironically using "box" as a variable
that looks like what u get when ur browser cant render smth
So I was working on this problem earlier today. I got 604 (the ans being 605) on account of me accidentally counting f_11 (1) as equal to 0 and not 1. But anyways the point is I had a method to solving the problem, but it is nowhere near succinct as the official sol. I would like some help interpreting the official sol terminology.
Official sol: "The definition of $f_p$ is equivalent to the following: "If $n$ has a multiplicative inverse mod $p$, $f_p(n)$ is the member of the set ${0, 1, \ldots, p - 1}$ such that $n \cdot f_p(n) \equiv 1 \pmod p$. Otherwise, $f_p(n) = 0$."
Note that this really gives a well-defined function because that set includes exactly one member from each congruence class modulo $p$, and each invertible element has inverses in only one such class.
From this point onwards, it's clear: as $n$ cycles through $1, 2, \ldots, 10 \pmod{11}$, $f_p(n)$ also cycles through the same values in some order. We cover those values 11 times. Thus the answer is $11 \cdot (1 + 2 + \ldots + 10) = 605$."
Doctor How:
What does multiplicative inverse mod p mean?
it means n*y=1 mod p
if there's a y such that n*y=1 mod p, then y is the multiplicative inverse
for instance 11 has no inverse mod 11, since it's congruent to 0
2 has an inverse because 2*6 = 1 mod 11
ah
6 is the inverse of 2
yeah
any other questions about their soln you want me to explain or is that all good now
I think I might have a good idea about what a congruency class might mean, but could you explain it to me?
two integers are in the same congruence class mod p if p divides their difference
so x ~ y iff p | (x-y)
just writing the ~ to show it's an equivalence relation and obeys the three rules
but you'd usually write it like $x-y \equiv 0 \mod p$ or $x \equiv y \mod p$
Merosity:
Would 1 and ny be in the same congruence class iff p | 1 - ny
yup
Is there an irreducible polynomial in Z that splits into linear factors modulo every prime?
i believe the answer is no for deg>1
hold on i think i have some stackexchange saved on this cause I was looking into this a while ago
"For, take any value of n for which f(n)≠±1. (There must exist such n because f can take the values 1 and −1 only finitely many times.) Consider any prime factor p of f(n). Then f(n)≡0modp, which means that f is reducible in Fp[x]: it is divisible by the polynomial x−n."
found that in my old notes for a simple explanation without too much algebra needed
it's been a long time since i've done this stuff tho so not sure how much I can actually answer about this
finally learned how to find all solutions to Pell's equation 
any cool things I can do with my life now
also the topograph is very cool and epic
Hmm are you an undergrad? Study for next year's Putnam 🙂
I’m not a huge fan of competition math but maybe haha
I’m also not very well prepared and it takes more than a few months to get good at competition problem solving (I took it in my 2nd year tho, this time is my last chance so I might just for fun)
whats a good place to learn number theory
for like problem solving and stuff( im a CS/Math guy)
i was doing like a really easy modular arithmetic question and i was so confused with what was going on/the solution
Publius:
nope
Publius:
this is because $5^n=5\cdot5\cdots5$, and because $5\equiv2(3)$, you change all those $5$s into $2$ and obtain
$5^n\equiv2^n(3)$
Publius:
@steady nest is this clear?
eh
the congruence part is what i don't understand
oh wait
5 mod 3 is 2 and 2 mod 3 is 2 so $5 \equiv 2(mod 3) $
suck2015:
yeah @alpine jasper
right, since it is mod 3, you only need to try four numbers
actually, have you heard of fermats little theorem?
or euler's theorem
you can simplify $n^5\equiv n^2\cdot n^2\cdot n=1\cdot1\cdot n$
Publius:
so in reality you only need to find $n$ such that
$2^n\equiv n(3)$
Publius:
@alpine jasper i've heard of them in name but i've never read about them
useful
bean:
wdym localization
idk what the x^2+1 part means D :
i think thats all the context i have 😦
the question also asks for find -1 in that system
and fins 1 in that system
no other context provided tho 😦
@winged horizon what do elements of $Z_3[x]_{x^2+1}$ look like
Merosity:
no one can help you with your question if you don't communicate the question to us
Actually nvm
the fuck where is sully
how about read earlier in the book where they explain the notation @winged horizon
What that $\bZ_3[x]_{x^2+1}$ means in this context is $\frac{\bZ/3\bZ}{\brk{x^2+1}}$
Whoever:
top should be polynomial ring
Whoever:
this is still going on?
personally I'd write x as i in this case since i^2+1=0 feels more natural to me
then the question is what are a, b in Z/3Z such that sqrt(i) = a+bi?
square both sides
i=a^2-b^2 + 2abi
this gives us a^2-b^2=0 and 2ab=1
this forces a=1 and b=2 or a=2 and b=1 which gives us 2+i and 1+2i which are negatives of each other as we'd expect there to be two square roots
hi, i would just like sure that this question is asking for | |z| | = |a^2 - 6b^2 | < 10
No the norm should be a^2+6b^2
sqrt(6)*i is painful to look at
crap, wrong channel
How would I show that if pi is an gaussian prime with nonzero imaginary part and m is an integer such that pi | m, then N(pi) | m
There exists another gaussian integer a such that a*pi=m
Ah I think I got it
Thank you
Hi, I'm trying to find the HCF of (3¹⁵-1) and (3²⁵-1) and I need some directions please
There's a formula given in the book that k being the factor of 15 and 25, the answer would be (3^k-1) but I'd like to go behind without a formula here
do you know the euclidean algorithm?
@fiery root
effectively, subtract the smallest from the largest, then factor out the power of 3 since 3^k -1 is relatively prime to 3 you can throw it away
this whittles it down
why does $a^n ,\vert, b^n$ imply $a ,\vert, b$?
zd:
Obviously it implies a divides b^n but I can't really see further than that
single out one prime factor of a
call it p, so p^n divides a^n, which must mean p^n divides b^n, they're all identical copies so each of the n ps must divide one b each
you can't have something like p^2 | b^2 and then specifically imagine each b separately as p^2 | b while p not divide the other b
ok I see this factoring argument is kinda natural
once you have one prime, divide a/p and b/p and repeat again until you use up all the prime factors of a
nice
I think the rut I fell into was not bringing up the prime factorization interpretation of things
but I also saw an induction proof online so that would be another way, although much less natural
derivations preferred lol
Merosity: thanks for the direction, I'll look at it! I'm sorry, due to home issues I've had to disable app notifications so I didn't see your tag. Thank you!
Dang that is one NEAT ALGORITHM!
another way, b^n/a^n = (b/a)^n is an integer
then show that a fraction to a power can't become an integer
Just look at the highest power of p dividing a
then show that a fraction to a power can't become an integer
@void widget that's basically what this is all about though, that would be circular logic no?
If you showed that independently that would just be an alternative proof on it's own though
yeah it's an alternative
Notchmath:
sorry texit is being weird
what I’m trying to say:
Is it known that $p_k#^2 > p_{k+n}#$ if $p_{k-n}# > 2^{(n^2)}$, where $p_k#$ is the product of the first $k$ primes?
Notchmath:
Relatedly, is it known that the sum of the $n$th triangular number and the $(n-1)$th triangular number is equal to $n^2$?
Notchmath:
I assume it is, but I can’t find anything about it online
you can make a very beautiful proof by picture of it by arranging the two triangles into a square
okay yeah I figured, just couldn’t find anything to indicate it was anything
What about the first one?
As for the other problem, it is enough to show that $p_k#>\frac{p_{n+k}#}{p_k#}$. We are given that $p_k#>2^{n^2}p_{k-n+1}...p_k$, so we can conclude by showing that $\frac{p_{k+i}}{p_{k-n+i}}<2^n$ for each $i$ from $1$ to $n$. This follows directly from Bertrand’s Postulate.
I need to format primorials
yeah that’s basically how I got that
just using bertrand
I just want to know if it’s a known result or something I’d need to explain in a thing
tree3:
Cool
primes and primorials are fun but they grow so quickly
Yeah, primorials are much worse than factorials
The prime number theorem gives a ballpark figure, but nothing too strong (like an asymptotic)
yeah
What are the upper and lower bounds for the nth prime in terms of n?
I know the nth prime is approximately n log(n), and I can easily determine that the nth prime is above 2n for n>4, but I feel as though there should be a stronger lower bound as n grows arbitrarily large, and some sort of upper bound (n^2?) that I can’t find either
Quick google search gives me this
The first answer gives quite a few references
If I was given the inequality 2x + 3 < 2n + n’th prime, how would I go about finding the upper bound of the lowest n satisfying the inequality in terms of x?
also, how do I learn more about how to do things like this? Primes have always really intrigued me
If you want to find the bound of n in terms of x, you will probably need to use lambert W function
And analytic number theory
can I ask what I should know before learning analytic number theory?
I’ve gone through linear algebra, and I assume I should have a little bit of background in abstract algebra, as well as real and complex analysis, right?
wait real tree3 (sorry for off topic)
you're not given
why mod4?
It's just a trick
whats trick
there are 4s in the equation, so 4 is a reasonable modulus to choose
aaa
thanks
a,b,c prime numbers , k ∈ N, whats modulo can i take here , , and why?
Mod 4 again maybe
thanks
And mod 2
why mod 2?
LHS is even
k must be odd
a and b are also odd
right
Try a=2m+1, b=2n+1 and k=2t+1
a,b,k all odd
Yes
Mod 3 is what destroys this problem
but why
@sacred junco What exactly is the question asking?
are a, b, and c supposed to be distinct numbers? If so, you can show there is no solution by this:
the RHS must be 1 mod 3. Note that (X^2) is 0 mod 3 if X is 0 mod 3, and 1 mod 3 if X is either 1 or 2 mod 3. The LHS must be 1 mod 3 as well. Because all 3 of a^2, b^2, and 16c^2 are square numbers, the only way for this to be possible is if two of the numbers are 0 mod 3 and one is 1 mod 3. For a prime number to be 0 mod 3 it must be 3, and for 4 times a prime number to be 0 mod 3 that prime number must be 3. Therefore 2 of a, b, and c must be 3, so they cannot all be distinct.
They have to be distinct? Once you get that two of them are 3, there are just three (two distinct by symmetry) cases that lead to all the solutions.
They are (3,3,2,3), (17,3,3,7), (3,17,3,7), (37,3,3,13), (3,37,3,13)
3 is a good mod to take because it annihilates the 9k^2 and is also quite small, leaving not many possibilities. You want to usually take prime power moduli (and maybe combine them after). In this case, 4 isn’t too helpful because can’t conclude that any of the squares are 0 mod 4.
but, here can i take mod 9?
Sure, but it’s much easier to take mod 3 here.
They were not assumed to be distinct prime numbers I assume?
a,b, and c?
@sacred junco
no
Cool
The only way to annihilate the 16k^2 is to take mod a power of two, but there is always a nonzero solution mod 2^r for (a,b,c,k) (in retrospect, that’s obvious given the solution set).
In other words, you can’t conclude that any of a,b,c are necessarily divisible by 2, so it’s not helpful.
I'll admit that I struggle to see how, once you have the fact that 2 of (a,b,c) are 3, you are limited to those 5 solutions. For example, if a and b are 3, I can see why 4c must be 1 or 8 mod 9, but I can't put my finger on why c must therefore be 2.
Difference of squares
thanks again
The first case is a=b=3. You get 18+16c^2=9k^2+1, or 17=(3k-4c)(3k+4c), which forces k=3, c=2.
(as 17 is prime)
The second case has more possibilities.
because...
WLOG set a=3 and c=3 to get 153+b^2=9k^2+1, giving (3k-b)(3k+b)=152.
because increasing only one of k and c results in (3k - 4c) no longer being one
increasing them both makes (3k + 4c) too big
You can solve for k and c immediately
without loss of generality
right
Because we could either have a=3, c=3 or b=3, c=3
But they are basically the same thing
So it’s easier to cover them together
right no I got that, just didn't have the acronym
Cool
Hi
so then (3k-b)(3k+b) = 152
They have to both be even
Because they are of the same parity and multiply to 152
And so they are 76,2 or 38,4
oh I thought you meant k and b have to both be even
3k-b=2, 3k+b=76
k=13, b=37
And that’s the whole solution set
it's interesting that they didn't put the restriction of k being prime as well
it wouldn't have impacted the solution set at all
Yep
huh
try them all
how
for modulo 3 i take ( 3^x mod 3, 2^y mod 3, 7 mod 3 ) ?
or ( 3^x - 2^y mod 3 )
why
for mod 3 neither of what you said is right, you take mod 3 of the entire equation
3^x - 2^y = 7 mod 3
then reduce everything you can, try that now @sacred junco
You can handle the cases of y=1,2 individually and then assume y>2. Taking mod 8 gives 3^x=7 mod 8 (which can never happen).
@sacred junco
thanks !
Guys, If I have an equation, which I reduced by a modulo, then can I still add/subtract/multiply stuff to both sides?
Nvm

yes, but be careful with division of x as you also have to divide the moduli m by the gcd(m,x)
suck2015:
I understand that the modular multiplicative inverse follows this form : $ a \cdot x \equiv 1 \pmod{m} $
suck2015:
in this case , $ 201 \cdot x \equiv 1 \pmod{299} $
suck2015:
they multiplied 201 by 3? but how does that explain the mod 5? ( i do know that 603 mod 299 is 5 but did they just use naive approach?)
@steady nest they wanted some multiple of 201 that was equal to a factor of 300 (since 300 is 1 mod 299). The reason you want a factor of 300 is that then you can do the clever multiplying both sides by 60 thing. To find it, I'm assuming they did the naive approach, although someone who knows more NT than me may be able to give something clever
thanks for the answer, i honestly just did naive approach to find 180 (c++ for loop up to 299) so the math explanation was nice
Beautiful haha
It's completely general, 3 is any prime
The line format is pretty and well paced
What struck you to do it with lines?
It’s because 3 is prime
Since 3 is prime, 3|a*a implies 3|a or 3|a
What do you mean a=b?
Oh, I see what you mean now
Not the a and b in the proof
I don’t see why you’d write wlog here either
Is there an easy way to calculate a multiplicative inverse?
depends on what you consider easy I guess
what way do you compute the inverse currently
I haven't studied modular arithmetic that much so I just pick random numbers until I get it
if you have ax = b mod n, and you want to find the inverse of a, find the value of a^-1 st a(a^-1) = 1 mod n
but i'm ignorant if theres a better way for much larger moduli/a, such as like 6 digit primes for n and a
you can use euclidean algorithm
a few times I've written the exponent I want in base 2 and then got the answer by repeated squaring, but I just use a calculator most of the time
hmm i see
stop posting your problems without also posting what you've tried @sacred junco
i tried modulo 24
mod 2?
there are so few numbers that divide 24
you should try them all to gain the experience to see what it looks like
because if you're hesitating and asking mod 2 you are hesitating way too much
thanks
you're welcome
I don't know how to analyze for modulo n ( example )
how is that possible
..
I thought @supple furnace was teaching you the other day to do much more advanced stuff
?
Do you understand how to mod an equation? I'm surprised you accepted tree's solution if you aren't certain on how to do this
im pretty you cant just solve that equation
unless it is like a general form of all solutions, but i still doubt that
you can boil it down to what form n has to be in by throwing mod at it a bunch of times and whittling down the factors of 24
that's at least something not too far out of niuton's skill level to learn how to do probably
what have you tried?
skymoo:
yes
it doesnt make a difference
@stoic bear why do you delete your messages 
ofc it does td
the main thing is not to give @slow yew the answer, they need to say what they've tried first



