#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 65 of 1
but isnt the result that (m-1)!==0(mod m) when m is composite true even when m consists of the same primes?
seems silly not to explain the full thing idk
If that’s a textbook, it wouldn’t surprise me if that extension of the theorem shows up as an exercise for the student to prove
Particularly since they state “it’s not hard to show...” about it
ah right
i really dont understand the point of this ‘additional work’
if n|a that means n is composite anyway
hm i think im reading this wrong
i dont get how does fermats little theorem implies that n is composite or n|a
ohhhh
the gcd(a,n) must be equal to n? (if n isnt composite)
and if gcd(a,n)=n, then n|a?
when a>n ofc
but in this example it isnt
idk if im making sense
fermats little theorem says that
$p$ prime and $p\nmid a\implies a^{p-1}\equiv1(p)$
so taking the contrapositive of that statement gives
$a^{p-1}\not\equiv1(p) \implies p$ is not prime or $p\mid a$
Publius:
ah i see, thank you
idk if this a silly question, but could there not also be the situation that b_{i}k== 1(mod m), where k is less than m and not relatively prime to m?
No you can't
if k isn't relatively prime to m, then b_i k isn't relatively prime to m either
but 1 is relatively prime to m
ahhhh
ok thank you
and if b_i k isnt relatively prime to m, that means, there wont be any solutions for k if we write b_i k==(mod m)?
well yea, p sure thats right lol
this is for the same question, i dont get how d cant be c_i? d^2 is 1(mod m) and so is (c_i)^2?
because c_i d = -1 (mod m)
Hello, I am confused to how they received the final result in this proof. Can anyone suggest some pointers?
We will go over all the factors of n in the expansion as all the factors of n are some combination of the prime factors of n and since all the factors of n are all written as a product of distinct primes which are all coprime, no (p_i)^2|(the factor of n) so mu(the factor) is never 0 by definition
They just open up the product and expand
I understand what you mean, and I know how to get to
but I don't know how they used the above result to get to
Oo how did you get it
I now saw the wiki page and they used some mobius inversion and fourier transform things
ok so earlier in the book, the book shows you another theorem that you need to prove the current one
with that, you can just multiply both sides by n and the totient function
There's Lagrange's Four-Square Theorem which states that any given natural number n can be written as a sum of 4 squares and similar results for k less than or equal to 4, i.e theorem's that states whether or not a positive integer can be written as a sum of k squares for k less than or equal to 4.
But are there results about whether or not, given a positive integer n and a given positive integer k, can n be written as the sum of k integer squares?
Like, how hard is it to generalize this result?
Of course I mean generalizing this result where n is expressed in a non trivial way for k bigger than 4
since n can always be expressed as a sum of 4 integer squares, then the rest of the terms would be all zero, but that's trivial
@silk vine Lagrange's four square theorem allows for 0^2 so already, you wouldn't be able to get all numbers, if you restrict to positive squares
However, its true that every integer > 33 can be written as the sum of 5 positive squares
anyone have experience with either?
im kinda lost at the point where ive highlighted
where have s and t come from, is s just a number in the rth row?
could someone may be just explain the bottom bit differently to the text
hm
If I divide an integrer by an irrational number the result carry on being irraitonal ?
a/rootsquare(2)
For example
a is an integreer
could u elaborate andrew
im not sure about this... I'm learning this as well right now lol
ah thats fine
yeah im just confused about the whole bottom part
like even past the s and t
How do we know irrational numbers cannot be expressed by a fraction ?
that's literally the definition
Yep I saw that
If I multiply integrers with irraitonals
the resuts are always irrationals numbers rights ?
oke np
Fermat theorem talks about x,z,y pow 3
it also proved that x,z,y pow 4 has no solution ?
Oh the problem talks about n <= 3
Sorry ignore that
but I think the book is assigning a number from [1,2,...n-1] to each row
what exactly are you confused about? It's just stating that being coprime to n, only depends on the residue mod n
oh lol
ok that explains what s and t are then
so
oooooo
ok all makes sense
thanks
this is burtons elementary number theory, the main book im using is silvermans one
but they provided a different explanation to why the phi function is multiplicative
which i do not understand whatsoever
tbh
this proof is more common i think and makes more sense to me lol
ya
btw just to make sure, the ending is just basically saying that
because the numbers in the rth row are congruent to modulo n to 0,1,2,...n-1 (in some order) and due to the fact that being coprime to n only depends on the residue mod n (where we have stated the residues to be 0,1,2...n-1), the rth row contains exactly phi(n) integers coprime to n?
@light flicker
rth column, but yes
whoops yea
how come p satisfying p==0,2(mod 4) wouldnt also result in phi(m) not being divisible by 4?
They cover those cases
hm i dont quite get what u mean
did the text just forget to mention it?
@light flicker
ahhhh yeah
i've been stuck on this for sad amount of time now
if there exists $n$ such that $n-n^2\equiv1(p)$, then $p\equiv1(6)$
Publius:
first i write $n-n^2 = g^l$ for some generator $g$ of the group $(\bZ/p\bZ)^\times$, then it must be that $n-n^2=1\implies n^2-n+1=0$... am i even on the right track
Publius:
@winter bear give me your power dad
ok let me try that
yeah i still don't know 
so i get
$\left(n-\frac12\right)^2=-\frac34$
Publius:
but no idea where to go from that
i know there can't exist such n tho
so if it's solvable then $n^2-n+1\neq 0$...?
Publius:
hmm
let me think about that
ok so
$\left(\frac{-3}{p}\right)=\left(\frac{1}{p}\right)\left(\frac{3}{p}\right)$
Publius:
np
To know if a positive integrer N is prime. You can check if N is divided for any prime P such that P >) sqrt(n)
I think it was wrong
What I wrote above
i mean if you can divide N with any prime it aint prime
you don't have to do anything anymore after that
okay and what do you do with it?
What you're saying is "If n is not divisible by any prime smaller or equal to square root of n, then n is prime"
Which is the same as showing that "If $n$ is composite, then it's divisible by some prime $\le \sqrt{n}$"
Gonzo17:
But the latter is easier to show
Take any composite n, recall what it means for an integer to be composite
And from there you should be fine
But why that is true
why what is true?
The fact that it's enough to prove this
If $n$ is composite, then it's divisible by some prime $\le \sqrt{n}$
Gonzo17:
Why that fact is true
if it is only divisible by primes that are bigger than sqrt(n), then if you multiply together all the primes that divide n, you will get something larger than n
I hope that helps
i think the best way to go about it, would be just to make a couple examples for yourself
to convince yourself of the fact
If there are both infinitely many rational and irrational number, on the interval [0,1], if a random number was chosen what would the probability be that it was rational?
0?
if it was zero then is the probability a random number is irrational 1?
yes
why?
because there are just so many irrational numbers
the irrational numbers between 0 and 1 are uncountable
so no bijection between $\mbb{N}$ and $[0, 1] \subset\mbb{R}$
deekaan:
doesnt make sense how that means the probability is 0 for it to be rationakl
im looking for a proof not an intuition btw
oof best bet would be something like stackexchange
I'm not gonna write one up
I dont like those kinds of proofs
Malix:
rofl
Shipreck:
is
The measure of the rational numbers in the closed interval from 0 to 1
I know that I dont know what it evaluates at
0
fr?
Yes
thanks pal
hey all, I'm having trouble with a part of a proof
somehow, they calculated that g(1)=1
how do they know that?
multiplicative functions must always have that g(1) = 1
since 1 is coprime to everything
how do we know that g is multiplicative? in the proof, they start with the assumption that f is not multiplicative
read the theorem
it says g is multiplcative on the top line.. but in the proof, they only assume that f is not multiplcative
I think I'm not understanding how proofs work
lol
It’s a proof by contrapositive
They're assuming g is multiplicative
sorry if this seems like a dumb question... but which line implies that?
If g and f*g are multiplicative...
The Negation of (p and q ) is (not p or not q)
They tell us they will show not q
So p will still be true
In case the symbols I switched to are confusing, the theorem says: if (p and q), then r.
They assume not r, and need to prove not (p and q), which only requires one of p or q to be false
They chose for q to be the part they showed would be false
so if q is false, then p has to be necessarily true
Theorems are implications, you assume things to be true, and see the consequences of those assumptions
This theorem assumes that g and f * g are multiplicative and concludes that f is also multiplicative
Also, just because f is not multiplicative, doesn’t mean g isn’t multiplicative. So we shouldn’t assume that
ok Malix I understand that part now...
but what are the initial assumptions of the proof? The proof says that ** "We shall assume that f is not multiplicative and deduce that f * g is also not multiplicative." ** .
Is the top part ** "If both g and f * g are multiplicative, then f is also multiplicative." ** also an assumption?
WAIT
I GET IT NOW
the two assumptions are actually the same and not contradictory
they assume A -> B which is also implicitly assuming !B -> !A
or am I wrong
uh no?
If A is that g is multiplicative and B is that f is multiplicative
Then they're assuming A and not B (and that f * g is multiplicative) and coming to a contradiction
oh, I set A = "g and f * g are multiplicative" and B = "f is multiplicative"
okay sure, then they're assuming A and not B
so that works
$a \equiv b \quad mod(n) \rightarrow |a| \equiv |b| \quad mod(n)$
This is not true right ?
AfterJack:
No it's not
Show that the equation $x^2-y^2=n$ has only a finite number of integer solutions for each value of $n>0$.
My attempt:
First note that $x^2-y^2=(x+y)(x-y)=n$, so $x+y=a$ and $x-y=b$ are factors of n, of which there are finitely many. But $x=\frac{a+b}{2}$ and $y=\frac{a-b}{2}$, so there are finitely many corresponding integer solutions $x$ and $y$.
zd:
Something feels a bit off here and I don't know what. Any tips would help
I think I need to show all of the solutions are of this form, and that will complete it right?
Yes that would complete it
i dont really understand the significance of gcd(a, m-a)=1? this as a fact is true, but did they mean to say gcd(m, m-a)=1? that seems more important here idk
They want gcd(a,m-a) =1 to justify the simplification of the fractions they do in that next line
Trick: Pick any positive whole number with no zeroes as digits. Rearrange the digits as you like but form a different number. Take the positive difference between the two numbers and add 1. Find the sum of the digits. Find the sum of the digits for this sum. Continue finding sums of digits until you have one digit left. You will get 1. I think! 🙂
Trick: Pick any positive whole number with no zeroes as digits. Rearrange the digits as you like but form a different number.
@upbeat wren
This requires the number to be greater than 9 and not have all the same digits (ie not 11 or 33 or 222)
Also, 121-112=9
What's lambda? And mu is the Mobius function?
@nimble cedar Thank you.
@last grove completely multiplicative functions distribute over dirichlet convolution
so if you look at $(u \star \mu)(n) = \delta(n)$ (here u(n)=1 and delta(n) = 1 if n=1, 0 otherwise) and multiply both sides by $\lambda(n)$ you get
Merosity:
$(\lambda \star \mu \lambda)(n) = \delta(n)$
Merosity:
make sure it's clear why u went away on the left side and lambda went away on the right side
also probably you should derive that fact about completely multiplicative functions distributing yourself too, it should be fairly straight forward by looking directly at the convolution, but if you run into any trouble just ping me
@eager tendon what do you mean by mcm?
Minimum Commun Multiple
when are $m^2+4$ and $m^4+4$ simultaneously perfect squares mod p?
Merosity:
lol when m != 0
irrelevant to me, made a mistake earlier that makes this not matter
Well, the answer is basically never, if m is an integer, because m^2 is a square so m^2+4 almost never is because squares are far apart.
Oh, mod p, I can't read.
For $n > 1$ is there always a prime $p > 2$ such that $n^2 = - 1 \mod p$?
Merosity:
any ideas or rough sketches of attack are helpful, I don't really know what I might look into to begin
Factory n^2+1
err
factor n^2+1
(too much Satisfactory I guess)
(I can say more, but that is likely enough)
I don't think that does it for me, because I can write (n+i)(n-i) = 0 mod p
assuming p = 1 mod 4 let's say
Well n^2 = - 1 mod p is exactly saying p divides n^2+1.
but I don't think this shows that n+i or n-i is 0
so if I want to know which primes have this property for say, n=7, I'd calculate 7^2+1 = 2*5^2
and so 5 is the only prime greater than 2 with this property
I know, but this is sufficient to get you the answer
so n has this property if and only if n^2+1 has an odd prime factor
so now you just have to worry about whether n^2+1 is ever a power of 2
I see and that can't be because n^2 = 1+2+2^2+...+2^k can't be a perfect square when n=1+2m since n^2 = 1 + 4t
perfect
thanks 👍
wrong channel, go to one of the questions channels further down. But here's a quick suggestion, work backwards start from (x+a)^2 and expand this to match the terms with your trinomial
@past mauve c has to be a perfect square number
why does stopple have so much stuff about sigma(n) and s(n)? is it like super important for later material?
sigma(n) is a classical object that was of interest as far back as the ancient Greeks, so it is the kind of thing number theorists like to use as examples to show how powerful an idea is
it also winds up being important in the context of modular forms
I'm not sure I know what you mean by s(n)
s(n) is just sigma(n) - n
ahh, yeah, so directly digging at perfect/abundant numbers
like, its definitely interesting, with perfect numbers and amicable pairs and such, but I don't see the need to to pages of problems on these topics
There are only so many multiplicative functions to choose from is I suspect what is going on.
wdym
oh, just that it is a concrete approachable multiplicative function and there are not that many of those.
(I do not have the book in front of me, so I can only guess from the table of contents what the author is doing with them a bunch, but they show up a lot in most analytic number theory books, along with phi(n) and d(n) and friends because those are the nice examples)
admittedly the other day when I was going to make an analytic number theory video one of the first things I put in the script was proving that sigma(n)/n is pi^2/6 on average
so its realated to zeta?
Yes, multiplicative arithemtic functions have a nice relationship with the zeta function, in terms of an Euler Product.
(ahhh, tau(n) is what I called d(n))
(one thing a lot of people do is to write $\sigma_k(n)$ for the sum over the divisors $d$ of $n$ of $d^k$
zetamath:
and then $\tau(n)=\sigma_0(n)$
zetamath:
hmm
Yeah, Euler's proof using that product formula to show that every even if perfect number comes from a Mersenne prime is very similar to the idea of the product formula for zeta. I don't think I'd noticed taht before!
One thing I wish would show up somewhere is a more holistic treatment of generating functions.
you will want to use your formula for tau(n)
that if n=p^k, T(n)=k+1, and if (m,n) = 1, then Tau is multiplicative?
yes
so, if, e.g., I wanted the smallest number with 101 divisors
what would that number be?
well, 101 is prime
how can I get a prime number of divisors?
(out a multiplicative function)
you can get a prime num of divisors by raising itto itself minus 1?
so 101^100? but thats like massive idk
what about 2^100?
I claim that is minimal
got it?
correct, so when you go on to say, find the smallest number with 8 divisors, you ahve to look at ways you could factor 8
8, 42, and 22*2
err 2 * 2 * 2
yea
so, 2^8, 2^4 * 3^2, and 2* 3 *5 all have 8 divisors
oh yeah, you definitely do not want to compute D(100!)
mmhm
cool problem: show 55, 5050, 500500, 50005000, ... are triangular numbers. (so for all k>=0 numbers with 2k+2 digits such that first one is 5, k zeroes after it then again one 5 and rest are zeros, are triangular)
||
"The formula for calculating the nth triangular number is: T = (n)(n + 1) / 2"
and the formula for getting the nth of your fancy numbers is (10^n)*(10^n + 1) / 2
sorry, I know nothing of how to formalize this
||
that's enough, no need to formalize any more
Try this one then: same thing but for sequence 45, 4950, 499500, 49995000,...
||oh, bc T(n) = ((n + 1))((n + 1) - 1) / 2||
wow that's pretty funny
uhhh can you elaborate? How does that say anything?
at least I did it other way I guess
yeah that was brief
I mean that your second sequence is much like your first sequence but you have (thing)(thing - 1)/2
it's also true for the sequence 21, 2211, 222111, 22221111,... 222111 is 666th triangular number btw
How do I find primitive roots of a large prime number such as 197?
I'm not sure of a good method to find a primitive root
but once you've found one primitive root g, the others are g^k, where k is coprime to 196
Thank you, how would you go about finding one root?
brute force
start with 2, and start raising it to powers and see if it gets to 1 prematurely or not
would that be the only way or would you be potentially able to use discrete logs to solve this?
in doing so you'll get a list of other numbers that are powers of 2 which you would then skip
what algorithm do you have for computing discrete logs?
also say the order of 2 is (p-1)/n, you can then restrict to looking for nth roots of 2
hmm on second thought i dont think this will make the algorithim more efficient
hmm
I think we can use multiplicity of legendre symbol
bc euler's criterion says the primitive roots are those with (g / p) = -1
so you check 2
check 3
don't need to check 4
check 5
don't need to check 6
(bc if both 2 and 3 have (g / p) = 1 then so does 4, 6 etc.)
Would you still require brute force to check 2,3,5 etc
The question I got is a diffie-hellman one - Give an example of how Alice and Bob can exchange keys, using the prime p = 193 and a primitive element g (you need to determine a primitive element g yourself)
bc you have (2 / p) = 1 if p = +/-1 mod 8, and (2 / p) = -1 otherwise
I think this is the result at least
p = 193 is 1 mod 8 so 2 is not a primitive root
p = 197 is 5 mod 8 so 2 is a primitive root
actually I'm not sure all this euler criterion logic is correct
this isnt right btw
yeah mb
not all non-QRs are generators
if (g / p) = 1 you can guarantee it isn't
so if your p is 193 I guess this at least tells you not to check 2 :^)
"brute force" here is checking when the power is some divisor d of p-1 btw
so it may not be too bad to do
yeah. my thought is two fold, one is where we do not factor p-1 and then slowly eliminate the subgroup generated by each of 2,3 etc
and then another is where we do and then test all numbers (still eliminating but less so) against the divisors
would this method work?
yeah that works just fine
yeah should be fine
factorization is NP iirc
so might not be the most effecient way?
i mean this problem is NP too probably so lol
oh theres some interesting literature on this
so it seems we do need to factor for deterministic algorithims
In the example above why is 2^152 and 2^40 not also tested?
you dont need to, you already know 2 is not a generator
ah right i understand now
turns out generalized RH implies that if $g$ is a generator mod $p$, then there is some $g\leq O(\log^6 (p))$, so some algorithim test it against that hoping to get lucky
(but yeah ur prolly not looking for this, the factoring trick is prolly whats intended rip NP)
JohnDoeSmith:
so I looked this up, and it seems to be 1500 not 300, but how do they pick the exponent?
well yeah, but like, why not 1499 or 1501?
almost assuredly the proof, if you look at it, looks like "any counterexample must have the following properties..." where the list of properties is so restrictive that you can enumerate all the numbers with those properties less than some huge bound (e.g 10^1500)
and then you just do a computer search of all of those numbers
Like here is a list (from wikipedia) of theorems we know about odd perfect numbers
Do you know any group theory?
So there was this many decade long search to find all the finite simple groups. It doesn't matter what those are. But it proceeded a lot like this, where people kept proving that if there was one that we didn't know about, it had to have this ridiculous list of properties.
and so people became convinced that there wasn't one
and eventually they narrowed it down to that if there was such a thing, it had to be a group with order 808,017,424,794,512,875,886,459,904,961,710,757,005,754,368,000,000,000
and that number is just so absurd, it couldn't possibly exist, right?
and then someone found it.
tf
The Monster Group, as it has become known
by guess? surely a computer cant check that
They found it as the automorphism group of a particular lattice, if I recall correctly
So this whole "cascading list of restrictions" is not an uncommon thing to see in math. Sometimes it leads to eventually getting to "there aren't any" and sometimes it leads to finding that this one thing dodged all the restrictions
yeah, probably every piece of one of these is a paper.
yeah, it just seems kind of weird/arbitrary at a glance from my perspective as a rising soph in undergrad lol
Elementary number theory is incredibly weird/arbitrary. I really recommend reading the paper "The Law of Small Numbers", by Guy. it's short, and readily available online. Basically, I think the right view is that the deep theory dictates the behavior of large integers, but there are a lot of "small" integers where strange accidents happen.
like, for example, n!+1 shouldn't be a square, but it just so happens it is a bunch of times for small n

how do people write out the aterisk for convolution
like is a 5 pointed star acceptable lol
haha well, anything you write by hand is pretty mcuh only for you, so you do you
I draw three intesecting line segments
mu(n) = 0 iff n is not square free, right
right
I'm not following what dq is from
take n=30 = 2 x 3 x 5
d = 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30,
let q = 5
how can dq divide 2 or 3 or 6
what is u here?
dq is a divisor of n, not a divisor of d
so what they're saying is that they are pairing each divisor of 6 with that divisor times 5
so 6 gets paired with 30, 3 gets paired with 15, 2 gets paired with 10, 1 gets paired with 5
That's all of the divisors of 30
but each pair contains an elements whose mu's are opposites
yeah, mu is multiplicative, so mu(xq)=mu(x)mu(q) = -mu(x) as long as (x,q)=1
so mu(x)+mu(qx)=0

multiplicative inverse(redirected from other channel) @light flicker
yeah i believe
can you define multiplicative inverses for me
suck2015:
but why does that mean that x = y (mod p)
when dividing by p yes
a better way to say it is that if you take the number x - y
then this will be divisible by p
yes
what does that mean?
p = pk , k being an integer?
oh
then k just equals 1
🤦♂️
thanks Zoph
hey all, I'm confused to how they turned the derivative into f(n) - f(n-1)
or do the curly brackets {} represent something important?
well, $\int_{a}^{b} f'(x) dx = f(b) -f(a)$
Godel:
you can take (n-1) out the integral since it's just a constant
Please help me to finding Cp(V) and Cs(V)
Doesn't feel very number theory to me
Probably post it in question channels or in physics server
I'm saying this isn't the place to ask
But look up separable differential equation
oh thank u
Are we still talking about Wilson's theorem?
I love Wilson's Theorem
I put a question on one of my cryptography exams about whether it would be an effective primality test
O(n) primality test, pretty good
haha if you even forget and do the digits thing backwards you could call it O(log(n))
Wilson's theorem is pretty cool
in fact, anything involving consecutive numbers in number theory is pretty cool
hey, how did they combine 5) and 6) to prove the theorem?
I am thinking that they did something with this
"integration by parts"
you can first write
$4503x\equiv4(1803)$
and since you said gcd = 3, and $3\nmid4$, the first eq has no solution
Publius:
uh yes, moreover, there are exactly gcd(4503,1803) = 3 solutions
you can use euclidean algo and perform back sub
do uhh,
4503 = 3 * 3606 + 897
3606 = ...
...
once you get to the bottom, you can solve for 3 (aka the gcd you just found)
i don't have time to go in to details but that's the idea, try a small example if you're confused
@sweet jay
you can sort of guess and check when the (mod n) has a small n, but in this case idk if there's an easier way
not sure why your solution didn't work, maybe a silly mistake?
in any case, you can generate more solutions once you found a solution
do you know how?
if $x_0$ is a solution, then $x_0 + \frac{1803}{(4503,1803)}$ is another, keep adding and you'll get more
Publius:
once you added for a total of $\frac{1803}{(4503,1803)}$ times, you've obtained all incongruent solutions, in this case, 2 times
Publius:
np
wdym?
technically, finding x only will suffice, but usually you get y for free via back sub
(a, b) denotes the gcd of a and b
if that's what confuses you
oh shit wops
i said something wrong
okey
it shows up a lot in analytic number theory
Im confused ab the << notation
couldn't you switch f(x) and h(x) and the relation would still hold?
yes
What book is this? I feel like I just saw taht paragraph in some Analytic Number Theory book
so the relation is kind of useless if the functions are of the same degree at least for polynomials
I wouldn't call it useless, it just is much weaker than <
but the functions in analytic number theory have a lot of noise in them
and so if you want to compare, e.g., pi(x) and sqrt(x) or something like that, you're going to need more flexible relationships
gotcha
also, having relationships like this helps you a great deal in proofs by making you not have to carry around inequalities evrywhere
how can it be wrong?
I don't think it's that bad
Hint: 320 = 2^6 * 5
i have already know that man
Hint 2: phi is a multiplicative function
so if phi(n)=320, what primes could divide n?
1 2 4 5 8 10 16 21 32 40 64 80 160 and 320 divisors of 320
if we add +1 each one
and choose prime
we obtain that 2 3 5 11 17 and 41
right ? @simple hearth
what primes could divide n? answer of this question
2 3 5 11 17 and 41 these
or what ?
Yes, so now what powers of those primes could divide n?
n=2^a 3^b 5^c 11^d 17^e 41^f ??
yup, so now you just have to find all the a b c d e f that work
it's like a little soduku
how can I do that
for example, can f=2?
absolutely not
noww if 41In then 41.m=n right ?
so phi(n)= phi(41) phi(m)
and then phi(n)=40 phi(m)
since phi(n)=320 then we have to find phi(m)=8
m values
Exactly, now you've got it
then convert n values to product 41
but i have question
are we apply all of this values ?
what about 2 ?
if we apply we concluded same thing
as a question
phi(m)=320
yes, phi(2)=1, and so if m is odd, phi(2m) = phi(m)
now when we solve for 3
we obtain phi(m)=160
this is again too hight
am ı use process from the beginning ?
to find
isn't phi(11*17)=160?
oww You are right
its' the n=1 term of the series
note the strict inequality in the second formula
wait, now I'm confused and think maybe it should be a -1
oh, no, it's a +1
I think you have the right idea...
because what they're really doing is aplying the formul for 1/2+1/3+...
and then tacking a +1 on both sides
i cant reach 800
this is solution for n
i check that calculator
but i cant reach
are we supposed to use a calculator for this lol
I think very little is lost in using a calculator at the analytic number theory level 😛
you're gonna need a big calculator 😳
I almost always have a sage window open
oh, H_1000 is just the 1000th partial sum of the harmonic series?
you can do that with Euler Maclauren
uh idk what that is
It is a tool sepcifically for answering this question
but I'm guessing they used it in the proof of the result you gave
so you can just use that result prboably (-:
oh, never mind, they just used the bound on the error in a lefthand Riemann Sum
yes
but if you dig in the proof, instead of saying that the error is O(1/n), the error is literally <1/n
yes
which means you get 3 decimal places for free
yeah, that should do it (-:
but fun fact, when Euler was studying 1+1/4+1/9+1/16+... he calculated the sum to 17 decimal places by hand
bruh
isnt that like 10^3 terms
(for comparison, if you literally calculated the sum of the first 10 trillion terms, you would only get 10 decimal places)
oh nvm lmao
Will do, I posted the link to part 1 of my intro to analytic number theory here
but it is a good topic to transition because the method Euler used to show that zeta(2)=pi^2/6 is exactly the same method that Riemann used to show the zeroes of the zeta function dictate the distribution of the primes
Euler's proof is pretty insane
you mean a proof created in the midst of being high?? xD I guess people are more creative when "high"
when Wile E Coyote runs of the edge of a cliff chasing the roadrunner he doesn't fall until he looks down
I still don't understand why his ski + refrigerator solution didn't work
(the proof of the Weil conjectures is, to my eye, the most impressive of these.)
"oh, if we had a cohomology theory for these wholly non-geometric objects then the result would be a trivial consequence of the Lefshetz trace formula. Of course."
hmmm... how did they get this result?
did they plug it into the Eulers ummation formula
can ı ask another question @simple hearth ?
so the area of the rectangles is the sum and the area under the graph is the the integral of 1/x which is log(x)
so the thing in the limit is the sum of all these triangulish regions
and say, the second one is : 1/2 - \int_2^3 1/t dt
and you can do a little bit of trickery to turn that into what is written above
[This is just proving the Abel summation formula in this case, though]
@winter crow You can ask, there are probably plenty of folks around who might answer!
I bet they want you to use the Chinese Remainder Theorem
dang, @fervent crest , I never knew that existed. Thanks a lot sir
Also read what zetamath said above ^
the number of times I've said to myself "oh crap, I just reproved the abel summation formula in this special case" is high
i can tell you the last digit but not the last 2 digits
FWIW, I find the abel summation formula highly unintuitive, so even when I prove something that would have fallen out of it, it is often insightful
@sacred junco why 17^2=289 then the last two digit 89
bc the last two digits are 89
bruh idek what u were asking
ı was asking part b
ok
the repeating pattern for the second digit is 0,1,6,5,2,9,8,3,4,7,
ye
what is the high-level idea for proving this
using abel's summation formula?
sorry if I'm asking too much 😫
lol you guys didn't mean the euler summation formula.. did you??
did you see how to derrive it from my picture earlier, andrew?
it was a helpful point
I was able to visualize it better
I used Euler's summation formula to prove it though... I'll upload a picture of my process later
it would be interesting to know how to use Abel's formula to tackle this though
So what do you get if you apply the Abel summation formula to the sum from 1 to x of 1/n?
so I will let phi(n) = 1/n
and a\subn = 1 always
(if I do it the other way around, then the derivative of phi will be zero and the integral disappears)
wait no
it doesn't make sense that way
I think the traditional way here is to use the next term in Euler MacLauren
I still dont know what that is lol, I haven't learned that
idk how to deal with the n^C
I think given that you're doing this kind of thing, it is worth learning the formula.
I can link you to a couple of articles I found useful when learning it
or alternatively you can watch the really excellent mathologer video about it
alright then, I'll check out his vid, I like his stuff
if I still dont get it I'll lyk
I'll note, btw, this is a form of Stirling's Formula
but Stirling's Formula gives yo uthe actual constant, which you can't get out of EM
(that's just context, it doesn't mean you shouldn't figure out the exercise, of course)
um not going to lie, this is fairly intimidating lmao, and by fairly I actually mean very
it looks intimidating, but it is not as bad as it looks. Basically, the place your log(n!) approximation is coming from is from approximating \sum log(n) with \int log(x) dx
I've got some weird stuff but it should work
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/488104216678760469/717792123524481184/94730921676115968.png
and what this formula gives you is an approximation for what that error is
hmm
yeah I remember the sum being interchangeable with the integral
I'll try that if I can't get grasp the euler maclauren method, thanks Tuong
👍
I think the result you want follows from EM with p=1.
this vid?
Yes
ok
wait, so what is the function that I am replacing with the sum on the left
log(n) or log(n!)
oh duh
I'm sorry, I maybe should have made sure we were on the same page about that earlier!
I think I really want p = 2 in your formal, that is through the first derivative. This is only an approximation, afterall
log(1)=0 so it shouldn't matter much
since you're looking for an asymptotic bound anyway, that only shifts stuff by a constant
so do you think I should evaluate p=1 or 2
p=1, not sure what to do with this exactly
I know that the error, or big O will decrease with larger p values
but I don't see how this will allow me to arrive at the original claim
so rewrite this as log(n!) = ...
and then use log properties to collect stuff
noting, e.g., that n= log(e^n)
actually, I think this is more terms than you need, because n log(n) - n + log(n) is already log(n*(n/e)^n)
no
wait
that doesn't help
wait
yeah i dont get how that helps
I was already at that step before trying this
but you have n^C
So what I get just from the integral is that log(n!) = log(n (n/e)^n) +A(n) +C
where |A(n)| is at most as big as log(n)
and C is a just a constant
so you could write that as
log(n!) = log(n (n/e)^n) + O(log(n)
which certainly implies your result
(the EM makes that error term much more precise)
(I'm sorry, I think I gave you a bigger hammer than was needed for this problem)
yeah that makes sense
however, the proof is supposed to just rely on just the theorem
which I still cant figure out
Well the theorem just gives you log(n!) = log((n/e)^n) + O(log(n)), so that would say there is a constant C such that for large enough n, we have log(n!) \le log((n/e)^n) + C*log(n)= log((n/e)^n) + log(n^C)
so, there is definitely an N such that if n>N then (n/e)^n > n^C
so then for n>N we have log(n!) \le 2 * log((n/e)^n) ... Something went awry here?
$\le$ and $\ge$
zetamath:
sorry , I can actually compile the latex
this is easy if yo uuse the fact that you prove, in the proof of the 'Know" that the error isn't just less than C*log(n), it is less than log(n)
I don't think the fact, as stated, with no other context, is sufficient fro the desired result, however
I would want to start exactly with the line written there
and then use e's to get rid of the logs
I did, and arrived at smth similar, you still have n^C
where did you get a C from?
oh wait
hold on
bruh
I feel so dumb
like actually
I spent too much time thinking about C, and the definitionsof << and O
haaha it happens to the best of us
but yeah, to elaborate just slightly, this gives you that it's at most of order n * (n/e)^n
but if you go one more term down the EM thing, you learn that front term can be repalced with an n^(1/2)
Perfect
yeah that makes sense
so the "implied constant C" is the e
yup
well sorry for contributing to confusion there, but hopefully it makes sense now
I was trying to like, make my way backwards through the definitions involving O and << from the original theorem, instead of actually thinking about what was going on
no, thank you lol
plus the euler maclaurin expansion will definitely be helpful in the future
oh yeah, it is in the intro chapter of most analytic number theory books because you use it all the time
though it is suuuuuper finicky and weird
the first time it's mentioned in this book is 219/400, im only at 53 ish lol
just as an example of how finicky it is, you choose this number p of terms you want to use, and even for fairly small p it is often very accurate
but then in most cases, for large p, the sum actually diverges
let me get that in a more human file format
how would that happen though
like wouldnt that require and increasing derivative
so, one of the things Euler used this for was to approximate zeta(2)
and he used 10 terms of the EM approximation, and got 17 digits of accuracy
so what you're looking at is a graph of the number of digits of accuracy you get out of EM for that series based on the number of terms you use
so you very rapidly get 17 digits of accuracy
and then it hangs at exactly 17 digits of acuracy for a bunch of terms
and then the bottom falls out and it explodes
(so negative 20 digits of accuracy means the 20 digits before the decimal place are incorrect, btw)
how does that happen lol
roughly speaking,what's happening is that taking a bunch of derivatives gives you giant factorials
e.g. the hundreth derivative of x^100 is 100!
yes
and so at each new term, you're chopping off the error from the lower order terms
but you're magnifying the error of the higher order terms
and so at first, you're winning
but eventually you lose the battle
(and lose it fairly catastrophically as the illustration shows)
and so at each new term, you're chopping off the error from the lower order terms
@simple hearth what does this mean
I'm off for now, but I can elaborate later
tau is the number of divisors?
ye
I like d(n) so much better, but it does get ugly when you do mobius inversion ahd have d(d) floating around everywhere
where can I find a proof of this, the one for k=3 was gross, but I can't find one googling that has this form
What's tau(n)?
sorry, divisor function
its on page 101 of Koninck and Luca's Analytic Number Theory book
their form of it is d(n) = n^ O(1/log(log(n)))
(obligatory joke about what sound a drowning analytic number theorist makes)
ok sweet thanks
If you have not seen this, I think this is really awesome. It shows how Riemann's formula for psi(x) in terms of the zeroes of the zeta function fits it near perfectly
it's really cool
there's a formula that uses the zeros of the zeta function to create this curve that fits the prime counting function really nicely (I think)
@simple hearth I think it's this one
and the more zeroes you include, the more accurate it gets (to a point)
It actually converges to it perfectly even
interesting, I wonder if anyone's thought about this sort of Gibbs phenomena at the discontinuities or derived any kind of information from them
seems like something someone way smarter than me would have already looked into already and found some kind of bound of some sort, just curious if you know anything about that so I don't consider wasting any time on this lol
I don't know anything about it, but I'm very far from an expert on this
the reason he lets n=N!, is so the first inequality holds?
and thus H_n becomes larger than log (N)
yeah, N! is divisible by every integer from 1 to N
that's all that is being used here
yup making sure
I would just have phrased this as $\lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{\sigma(n!)}{n!} = \infty$.
zetamath:
well, it can't be 0 because n! is a divisor of n! so the ratio is always at least 1
wait
oh yeah i was thinking n
wait
even then
oh yeah
i was summing divisors of n, not n!
my bad
but $\frac{\sigma(n!)}{n!} \ge 1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + ... + 1/n$ and the latter, in the limit, is the harmonic series, which famously diverges
zetamath:
it's not a different argument than the one given in the text you quoted, but I think it puts the emphasis on the right part
$\lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{\sigma(n)}{n!} = \infty$.
Sideurk:
haha yes that definitely isn't true
yeah I see that yours is equivalent
so you get s(n) > n(C-1) which implies this, right
what is s?
sigma(n)-n
yeah, sure.
HI, for euler totient. How do i figure out all numbers n such that phi(n) = 16 ?
I try, maybe just 1?
@winter bear
17
well i mean what did you try theortically not computationally
like what ideas do you have
its like a puzzle kinda like sudoku
ph(n) = p-1 ?
thats for primes
for n=p
factor n into prime powers then work backwards
(p_1^k -p_1^(k-1)) .... (p_r^k - p_r^(k-1)) = 16
bad () but yeah
Oh I edit
