#elementary-number-theory
1 messages Β· Page 64 of 1
so to undo it
we map 2 to 1, 3 to 2, and 1 to 3
This is just (132)
Right?
(the convention is to write 1 in front)
Oh
(oh also for S_4 and S_n in general you can also have guys like)
(12)(34)(56)
so this just means 1 goes to 2 and 2 goes to 1
3 goes to 4 and 4 goes to 3
etc
Ok
But anyways
Yeah if you have (1 a b) then the inverse is just (1 b a) right
Since (1 a b) o (1 b a) is, 1 goes to b goes to 1
b goes to a goes to b
a goes to 1 goes to a
Right
We just undid everything
Anyways cool this is a really important group
In fact there is a famous theorem, cayley's theorem, that roughly states that every group is basically the same as a subset of a symmetric group
a symmetric group is just a S_n
the group of permutations on {1, ..., n}
But I won't get into this for now
Ok
So what is a ring?
Well it's a lot like a group
But it has two binary operations
denoted + and x
And satisfying some axioms
(since they are binary operations this means there is closure)
(so a + b in R and ab in R for any a,b in R)
here R is our ring
also i am again denoting a x b by ab
for convenience
this is standard
Yeah np
So + must be
- associative
- have an identity in R
- have inverses for every a in R
Or in other words
(R, +) is a group
Ah, so if we just take the set R and forget about the operation x
(R, +) is a group
Ok?
So yeah a ring is basically a group with added structure
Ok
Moreover it is an abelian group
an abelian group is a group (G, *) where ab = ba
basically, where the operation is commutative
Ok?
And that's the same as a ring?
So for example (Z, +) is abelian
nope
a ring has another operation
Well if you just consider the ring's set and the + operation
Yes
It is an abelian group
(R, +)
A ring is R, +, and x though
Moreover it is an abelian group
@leaden compass got confused here
right so an abelian group is one where the operation is commutative
a ring with respect to addition, +, is an abelian group
this means that a + b = b + a
for a, b in the ring
Ok?
Yeah
This mimics what happens for normal addition
which is commutative of course
1 + 3 = 3 + 1
in Z
Yeah
Multiplication isn't required to be commutative though
Like matrices
Ok I'll give you some examples in a second once I complete the definition of a ring
So does a ring always have to be an abelian group?
Ok so it has a set R, the operation + with respect to which (R, +) is an abelian group, cool
Well (R, +) must be an abelian group
but it must also have x
another binary operation
Yeah ok I got it then
And x satisfies associativity, identity only
Not inverses necessarily
Nor commutativity
Let me give you an example
The ring (Z, +, x) where +, x are as usual
Ok so we already noted that (Z, +) is an abelian group
right
1 + 3 = 3 + 1 etc etc
and (Z, x) is a monoidβ a monoid is a group except we don't require inverses
So yeah, (a x b) x c = a x (b x c) for sure
associativity check
and a x 1 = 1 x a = a
cool, identity
but... what's the inverse of 2?
well, 1/2 would satisfy 2 x 1/2 = 1 the identity
but 1/2 is not in Z
see? so 2 has no inverse
Oh wow
Yeah
So Z with the usual addition and multiplication is a ring
in fact it's basically what the notion of a "ring" was based off of
they just generalized these properties
That means (Z,*) cant be a group?
Wow ok got it
The set of 2x2 matrices with real coefficients is a ring too
with the usual matrix + and x
Note that invertible matrices have no inverses
Sorry non-invertible*
lol
no multiplicative inverses of course
they do have + ones
Ok?
Yea
Oh the additive identity is usually denoted by 0
and the multiplicative one by 1 usually
These aren't really numbers
just notation
So like 1 in this context is
1 0
0 1
this matrix
and 0 is
0 0
0 0
right?
Yes
Now when a ring has inverses wrt x
It's a field
So when (R, x) is a group as well
and not just a monoid
For example (Q, +, x) is a field
Because, for 2, 1/2 is its inverse
and 1/2 in Q
Right?
Yeah
Cool
So anyways
the final thing is
- and x are related by a distributive property
k(a+b) = ka + kb
(a+b)k = ak + bk
again, just generalizing the familiar ring (Z, +, x)
Right?
Right
Cool
So
Z/9Z is a ring
its elements are equivalence classes [0], [1], ... [8]
And +, x behave just as you think they would
You can think of it like this
We take Z, and then we quotient out by 9Zβ essentially we identify {0, ..., 8} with {9, ... 17} and so forth
Ok
So it's basically just the normal (Z, +, x)
but we always reduce mod 9
this means we take the remainder mod 9
So 5*3 in Z/9Z will be, 15 = 9 + 6 so just 6
Okay?
Is it just a notation?
It's notation yes
the quotienting thing is standard
you can quotient rings by ideals... but I won't get into that now
Ok I'll just keep that in mind
Z/9Z has the set {[0], [1], ..., [8]}
and normal +, x
Now [a] + [b] = (9Z + a) + (9Z + b)
but this is really just the same as 9Z + (a+b) right
Right
And [a][b] = (9Z + a)(9Z + b) = 9Z + ab really
Like for example
(9m+a)(9n+b) = 81n^2 + a9n + 9mb + ab
Of course 81n^2 + a9n + 9mb are just an element of 9Z
so it's just in 9Z + ab
Ok
So anyways we can answer your first question already
This is a ring though
no inverses for [3] though
or [6]
Why?
Well basically we want an m such that 3m is 1 mod 9
Since 1 is the multiplicative identity
But.. this is impossible
3m will either be 0, 3, or 6 mod 9
Ok?
Mm
So here it's F_17 instead of Z/17Z
because Z/17Z is a field
so we can write F_17
instead, if we wish
why is it a field?
because 17 is prime
so all the [0], ..., [16]
have inverses
The only way for somebody to not have an inverse is if you can multiply and get 0 mod 17
But that's impossible because it means it's a divisor of 17
Right
whereas for Z/16Z
well; all the even numbers are not invertible
Anyways
You want an x such that [5]x = [3]
To do this you can just multiply by the inverse of [5]
Since you have [5]^-1[5]x = [5]^-1[3]
x = [5]^-1[3]
Right?
Yeah
here 5 has an inverse since it doesn't divide 9
so yeah just, compute it
You want an m such that 5m is 1 mod 9
Where do we have 1 mod 9 from?
1 is the multiplicative identity
m is 5^-1
this means that 5m = 1
we're working in Z/9Z so we're working mod 9
Yes I get that part
Ok right
So then x is 6
Just 2*3
and you can indeed check that 5*6 = 30 is 3 mod 9
Okay?
Oh wait
We're working in F_17 for the first question
lol
Nevermind
the inverse of 5 mod 17 is
7
Ok
So just multiply by 7
x = 4
Yeah?
yeah 21 mod 17 is 4
Right
Ok now
x^2 - 2x + 4 = 0 (mod 9)
is what we want
That is, (x-1)^2 = -3 (mod 9)
Right?
Yes
yeah and -3 is what mod 9
Eh
do you know modular arithmetic
Still -3?
Ok so mod 9 means just take the remainder mod 9
I do but I get confused when there's a - in front
-3 = 9*1 - 6 right
Oops
Ok think of it like this
-3 = 9*-1 + 6
so you ignore the multiple of 9
and take the remainder
So its 6 in this case
Yes
So we want an x such that (x-1)^2 = 6 (mod 9)
just compute it
1^2 = 1 mod 9
2^2 = 4 mod 9
3^2 = 0 mod 9
4^2 = 7 mod 9
5^2 = 7 mod 9
6^2 = 0 mod 9
Wait lmao 6 is not a qr mod 9?
Huh?
Dang
lol
So that equations wrong?
Well the equation isn't anything
it's just that it asks you to find an x
also it's not an equation
it's just a congruence
it asks you to find an x
but there is none
I would just ask your professor or something if they made a typo
Thanks a lot you're amazing
np
I wish you were my prof haha
lol
How did you know all this that's insane
Well anyways thanks! I should better try it all out by myself again
ok
the book told me to use the corollary and proposition:
but i still don't get the idea
i also tried replicate this proof but also no luck
@winter bear help me papa
number of sols to x^m=a
e is just eulers
what's xi
yes i think i know how 8.15 works
ok so for pub
we have done a lot of gcd stuff like this in the book right
where this is in two parts
so if m | p - 1 we refer to 8.15 and we only consider m does not divide p - 1?
JohnDoeSmith:
Honestly just describe the characters and then everything falls into place
i'm not sure where you're going with this though
ok the idea was this gives us sum over chi^d= 1
and then that x^(m/d) is an automorphism of F_p*
rip forgeting by greek
oh whoops meant=a
ok cool
so we can basically throw the x^(m/d) out and replace it with like... a new x, because it's automorphism
basically yeah
if u like call it a new variable instead of x
ok gimme a min let me see if i can write up a soln
Following identically to the argument offered in Proposition 8.15, let $\chi(g)=e^{2\pi i/d}$ where $a=g^l$ for a generator $g$ and some $l$. It follows that $\varepsilon,\chi,\ldots,\chi^{d-1}$ are $d$ distinct characters of order dividing $d$. Now, if $a=0$, then $\sum_{\chi^d=\varepsilon}\chi(0)=1$ as desired. If $a\neq 0$ and $x^m=a$ is solvable. Then it has precisely $d$ solutions (because $x^m=x^{(m/d)d}$ and $x^{(m/d)}$ is a bijective map from $F_p^\times$ to itself since $(m/d,p-1)=1$. And indeed, $\sum_{\chi^d=\varepsilon}\chi(a)=\sum_{\chi^d=\varepsilon}\chi^m(g)=\sum_{\chi^d=\varepsilon}\varepsilon(g)=m.$
Publius:
i lastly have to deal with x^m = a being unsolvable right
wops the last equality is = d and not = m
sure
Yeah unsolvable case is similar
i think it's identical to the one already in the book
unless i'm missing somethin again
Looks fine to me @long wasp
I don't get how u went from the 3rd line to the 4th line in the inductive step
On the LHS, you factor out a 2
On the RHS, you use the identity that n! = n times (n-1)!
Thanks for looking it over for me, I find it hard to explain inequality proofs eloquently, my professor is quite picky
so this is a proof numbers in a primitive pythagorean triple are relatively prime pairwise
i dont understand why the bottom explanation is required
what are we missing from the top part
is it just a diff way to explain the same thing
Hmmmmmmm
Oh
I see
You are supposed to prove that all three numbers are pairwise relatively prime.
Since the statement is $$\text{if }s>t\geq1\text{ and }\gcd(s,t)=1\quad\text{then}\quad st,\frac{s^2+t^2}{2},\frac{s^2-t^2}{2}\text{ are pairwise relatively prime}$$
Whoever:
@dreamy rain the fact that a prime divides all three numbers doesn't immediately imply a contradiction with the assumption
hm yeah thats true if this was just a standalone question, but if we are in the context of ptimitive pythagorean triples, would the top part be enough because we are not allowed a prime that divides all 3?
but yeah this was a standalone question so makes sense
The goal is to show that if p divides two of the three (equivalent to gcd of two of them being greater than one), gcd(s,t)>1.
We canβt get that from just the top part.
However, the end part is way longer than it has to be. If p|(s^2-t^2)/2 and p|(s^2+t^2)/2, then p|s^2 and p|t^2, so gcd(s,t)>1.
Much shorter
ahhh yeah thats nicer
but i dont see how thats necessarily the goal
especially if we are given the fact that the 3 numbers make a PPT
The whole point is to prove that given s,t that satisfy the condition, the expressions will produce a primitive pythagorean triple
You are not given the fact that the 3 numbers make a PPT
but if i were would it be ok?
You need s,t to be odd relatively prime integers tho
Well if you were given the fact that 3 numbers make a PPT, then the first part will be enough
oke yea thank you, i think this makes sense then
also
if ur not given the fact that its a PPT, whats even the point of the top part
wont the seconf part be enough
i.e. just proving that gcd(s,t)=/= 1
when 2 of the numbers arent coprime
im probably overthinking all this lol
it doesnt matter too much
The top part reduces all three cases into a single case
So say the three numbers are a,b,c, then we want to prove that gcd(a,b)=1, gcd(a,c)=1, and gcd(b,c)=1. The top part says that if gcd(a,c)>1 or gcd(b,c)>1, then gcd(a,b)>1
so if gcd(a,b)>1 creates a contradiction, then so will gcd(a,c)>1 and gcd(b,c)>1
@dreamy rain
Yeah the top part works well in condensing those cases. Itβs just that the (s^2-t^2)/2 and (s^2+t^2)/2 are so much more compatible than the pair they chose after that.
if $J(\chi,\rho)=a+bi$, then $J(\chi^{-1},\rho)=a-bi$ right, where $J$ is the jacobi sum
Publius:
im not sure if that's true or how to prove it
hmm
$J(\chi^{-1},\rho)=\sum_{a+b=1}\chi(a^{-1})\rho(b)$
Publius:
help 
umm idk man
um oh wait
quadratic character
right, yeah, $\rho(b)=\overline{\rho(b)}$
tyty
Publius:
yep
even with the hint i don't see it 
if $a=2n+1, b=2m$, then\
$p = 4n^2 + 4n + 1 + 4m$,\
this also means $(2n+1) + (2m)i$ in $\mathbb Z[i]$ can only be divisible by $\pm1$ or $\pm i$
Publius:
am i suppose to show that every prime in $\mathbb Z[i]$ has a unique norm
Publius:
wops that should be a 4m^2
Maybe another hint: a^2 + b^2 = (a + ib) (a - i b), and if an element in Z[i] is prime, then so is its complex conjugate
Guys i have a weird question for you. I was thinking about irrationality, and i asked myself if there are integers a,b such that sqrt(a) and sqrt(b) are both irrational , but sqrt(a) + sqrt(b) is rational
i think they don't exist, but i don't really know how to prove it
Sorry if this is trivial but i'm learning number theory rn so i'm not good
try assuming sqrt(a)+sqrt(b)=q for some rational q
rearrange it by some algebra to reach a contradiction
play around for a bit and show me what you get if you get stuck and can't think of anything more to try
ok i'll let you know
if sqrt(a) + sqrt(b) = a/b ---> (by some algebra) ab has to be a perfect square, so $ab = q^2$. but that means $q*sqrt(1/b) + sqrt(b)$ is rational, and multiplying by b, i get that $sqrt(b) * (q+b)$ must be rational, contradiction
Ricky the Crow:
i cannot use latex sorry
the proof I had in mind was
i think you did the right thing but you should've called your fraction differently
sqrt(a)+sqrt(b)=q, q is not necessarily a/b though
if q is rational, it is a/b for a and b integers
you already used a,b
oh you're right
yeah, other than that it's correct
i'm stoopid
how I worked it was slightly different
sqrt(a)+sqrt(b)=q
sqrt(b)=q - sqrt(a)
square both sides
b = q^2 -2qsqrt(a)+a
maybe this is what you did
rearrange to solve for sqrt(a)
oh that's nice and even quicker, lol
and it's now rational, contradiction
yup you're welcome
hey gamers need some help here
A soccer field is a rectangle 90 meters wide. Each day the coach asks players to run from one corner to the other corner at a diagonal distance of 150 meters. What is the area of the soccer field?
it has some to do with
Pythagorean therom
well how long is the field?
@terse geode u use the pythagorean theorem to find the length, then multiply the length with the width
Not quite sure how to formally explain this, but if anyone can offer insight:
Is it possible to have two distinct linear ciphers that send every plaintext letter to the same ciphertext letter?
My thought process is to say brute force and there will probably be a collision
Well if you consider $b_1=1$ and $b_2=n+1$ to be distinct
Otherwise, if $a_1P+b_1\equiv a_2P+b_2\pmod{n}$ for any $P$, then $a_1\equiv a_2\pmod n$ and $b_1\equiv b_2\pmod{n}$
Because you can first plug in $P=0$ to get $b_1\equiv b_2 \pmod n$, then plug in $P=1$ to get $a_1+b_1\equiv a_2+b_2 \pmod n$, but since $b_1\equiv b_2 \pmod n$ we have that $a_1\equiv a_2 \pmod{n}$
@burnt swallow
You're welcome
Requesting someone to help on how to clear up my proof. Not sure if the "(p+3)/2" reasoning is strong enough, but it made sense in my head
Here is the problem pertaining to above*
oh that's true
that's the part i'm having a hard time on: closing the gap on that reasoning unless i was supposed to rewrite the exponents in a different way after foiling out (p-1)(q-1). @light flicker
p must be either 1 or 3 mod 4
I thought the legendre symbol being = 1 or -1 is irrelevant. Isn't $p \equiv 1 \pmod{4}$ or $p \equiv 3 \pmod {4}$ relevant, based on the corollary to the theorem, such that $\left(\frac{-1}{p}\right) = 1 \ \textrm{if} \ p \equiv 1 \pmod{4}$ or $\left(\frac{-1}{p}\right) = 1 \ \textrm{if} \ p \equiv 3 \pmod{4}$
Eigenspace:
Ah sorry I misspoke
I meant to say that p - 1 = p + 3 (mod 4)
And so (p-1)/2 and (p+3)/2 will always both be even or both be odd
@light flicker How come we are allowed to introduce the (mod 4)? Not quite following
Hello someonle here ?
I have some questions about primes nature
I would like to discuss it with someonle
<@&286206848099549185>
just throw the questions here I think would be best
Wait I need to translate words
Greatest common divisor of A and B = d , exist just if d|A, d|B and if for any c|A and c|B then c|d
c|A and c|B then c|d where can I find the proff that the greatest divisor of an integrer can be divided by all the lowest divisord ?
I hate doing thing and not knowing why they are made that way
Can anyone hint at or help me find an easy way to find x's and y's for which
x = -y mod xy
By easy i mean computationally quick
Well not much really
The expression stems from trying to find integer solutions to 1/x + 1/y = 1/n for some n
But i'm not sure where to look
You want to find all x and y given a fixed n?
Yes
That^
Yeah the mod doesn't depend on n
If you want to solve that Diophantine equation Iβd highly suggest factoring
play around with it and see factoring yeah
Easiest way to solve the equation of that form
Factoring?
Yes, find something to add to both sides and factor the equation
Ah
JohnDoeSmith:
Never heard about that, i'll look into it
try factoring it first though, we can worry about the other stuff later
Yea and it will be pretty easy to finish once it is factorized
Correct
Because if n is prime then n can be too
if n is prime the -n is also prime
If we consider a prime number as any n that can be just divided by 1 -1 -n and n
So if the definition claims
Just n and 1
The primes should be >1
so a prime is defined as a non-unit such that $p|ab \implies p|a$ or $p|b$
JohnDoeSmith:
Wikipedia define primes as numbers >1
So do you think -7 is composite?
Of course no
are you familiar with some ring theory?
Yep
in a general ring the p|ab implies p|a or p|b is how we define a prime, given p is not a unit
now if p and p' are associates (i.e differ by a factor of an unit) and one is prime, so is the other
1,-1 are your units for Z
so p and -p are both primes (see if it satisfies the defination)
the fundemental theorem of arithmetic is still safe with this btw
because in a Unique factorization domain, each element has an unique factorization into primes upto units
the upto units part is important
because otherwise for example 6=2*3 = -2*-3 would not be unique
Alright, using Simon's Favorite Factoring Trick i got that xy-xn-yn = 0 can be written as (x-n)(y-n) = n^2 but what does this entail?
n^2 is fixed right?
^
now unfortunately you'd have to test it out with all the factors
there are a finite number of possible values for x-n and y-n
Yeah you're supposed to use a computer to find the solutions
and i did make a brute force script
yeah so use your favourite factoring algorithim now
Aight, i'll try!
Thanks
Oh, right so the number of distinct solutions will be the ceiling of the number of factors of n^2 halved
Of course
I hope this is quick enough tho
are you considering (x1,y1) the same solution as (y1,x1) or not?
They are the same
That's why i need to halve the number of factors
they will be repeats
i think
yea
it should be plenty fast enough unless n^2 is extremely large
the run time is approximately the time it takes to find all divisors of n^2
the other steps are negligible
I need to find the "least value of n for which the number of distinct solutions exceeds four million"
So it will be big
But i don't need to know the factors only the number of them
interesting
I'll have to look into divisor functions i guess
oh u can construct this without computing actually
hm each divisor of n^2 gives gives rise to one unique solution doesn't it?
is the question equivalent to finding the first perfect square with 4 million divisors?
well depends
I think i'd be 8 million
do we count only positive or negative sols too
oh forgot about that
if positive then 8 million and 1, if negative then 4 million and 1 i think
My old program says that n = 180180 has 1013 unique solutions but n^2 has 2025 factors
anyhow you want to use that
$\sigma_0 (p_1^{k_1} \dots p_m^{k_m})= (k_1+1)\dots (k_m+1)$
JohnDoeSmith:
Uuuh
where sigma_0 is divisor count
the idea is that you figure out the ks
of a given n?
well if you wanna go brute force on n sure
Couldn't i just find a product that exceeds 8 million and then work backwards
yeah that was the idea
Right
I'll try and implement it
Hmm but this is tricky, right?
because i want a high k for small primes but i don't want it too high
yeah its a bit tricky
But all k's need to be a multiple of 2 because it's squared
what are you able to get by simplifying with euler's theorem?
you might need to use the chinese remainder theorem
oh I see I missed the paper you wrote before you posted the question
I just ignored it cause usually people post the other direction haha ok I see
Lol
97 divides it means itβs congruent to 0 modulo 97
So the question is basically asking whether 83 is a quadratic residue modulo 97
yeah got it
i got this far into the proof, but not sure how to close it out since i think i'm stuck with the logichere
I mean
All the numbers in S have negative least residue, so the mu there is just (p-1)/2
And the result follows form gauss's lemma
im trying geometrically to find the infinite solutions to the linear combination ax+by= gcd(a,b), but i cant seem to get the correct result.
i managed to find the solutions geometrically when gcd(a,b)=1 using the method i posted above, but im stuck for gcd(a,b) greater than 1
btw the question might not make sense cus i made it up lol
just messing about
i can post where i got up to if that helps
I donβt really get where the geometry is coming in. This looks like pretty classical linear diophantine solving with one line about geometric interpretation. Is that all you mean?
well yeah i guess so aha
just wondering how come i cant use the same technique when gcd isnt 1
There is definitely a theorem for solving equations of this exact form in burton number theory
is that a book?
The one in the book suggestion channel
just do $(x,y)\longrightsquigarrow (x+b,y-a)$
JohnDoeSmith:
ah oke
It has no geometric interpretation but it might help to read about it there
i mean ik how to figure this out without the geometric interpretation, u can just divide ax+by=gcd(a,b) by the gcd to form a new equation that equals 1 and u can then use the same method as i figured out above
it is the geometric part im more interested in
it doesmt seem like the geometry applies here though, idk
not a big deal anyway
Explain why it doesnβt work
hm
not all points on the line ax+by=gcd(a,b) will actually give a solution?
idk tbh
Do they need to satisfy some congruence?
The case for gcd=1 is much simpler than when itβs not 1
i see
and idk if they need to satisfy some congruence
i dont have too much knowledge on diophantine eqs or anything
should i just leave this if its a lot more complicated lol
No this Diophantine equation is a great introduction to Diophantine equations
So are you not finding the solutions successfully when gcd isnβt 1?
Geometric interpretation ignored
well i can use this to get the solutions, thats not a problem
and i do understand where that comes from
Ok yep thatβs the right theorem
So where is the geometric interpretation going wrong?
Can you describe in words, not math, the family of solutions?
hm idk if this counts as math, but could i use those set of coords in the theorem, along with (x_1,y_1j (since we know that this point must also lie on the line) to form an equation for the line of all solutions?
i really domt know how to describe in words
you might find it easier to go from english words to geometry instead of purely symbolic math to geometry
um if that means what I'm thinking then it's too trivial lol
probably
i really wanna try figure this out without just being given it, but idk if thats going to happen D:
do u have any sort of hints
luckily/unluckily for you I don't really have an answer and have never thought about this before lol
LOL
alright
ill just keep thinking ahaha, maybe one day ill figure out
someone here will prob have an answer though
I still don't understand why it doesn't translate well into the case where the gcd isn't 1
isn't the unit shifting just at a different rate?
b/g and a/g are still fixed
they are just b/g and a/g instead of b and a now
but it's still fixed
yea i mean i have no idea, thats sorta what i was questioning as well
so what's wrong with whatever you are doing?
eh i didnt really do anything tbh, nothing noteworthy
im not really able to figure much out
but I'm confused how understanding the gcd=1 interpretation doesn't translate to gcd not 1 interpretation
yes thats also my question i asked at the start, but uve worded it more concisely
im not so good with words lel
was the gcd=1 case reached by geometric means?
or a geometric interpretation tacked on?
if im being honest, idk how id tell the difference
i treated ax+by=c as the actual graph
so i feel like that makes it geometric
but perhaps not
can you tell me what in here used geometric means and not symbolic math and number theory means?
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/418981682117345288/709978418745311322/image0.png
the only geometry here was interpretation
no use of geometry to solve the equation
so you can do the exact same thing for the gcd not 1 case
describe the family of solutions geometrically, like where they would appear on the graph
but not "solve" anything with geometry
geometric interpretations are common when working with diophantine equations, and often geometric problems and diophantine problems can go hand in hand, or describe the exact same problem
but any solutions to such problems will always require symbolic math to be convincing
for example... proving non existence of rational points on a circle may come down to proving a related diophantine equation has no solutions
and no problem
but yes actually, you should be interested in geometric interpretations of diophantine equations
just not using geometry to "solve" them
yeye
Hello. I am pretty new to the Legendre Symbol and I'd like some help with showing this: $\bigg(\frac{1(1-m)}{p}\bigg) + \bigg(\frac{2(2-m)}{p}\bigg) + \dots + \bigg(\frac{(p-1)(p-1-m)}{p}\bigg) = -1$.
PolyBeanDip:
do let me know if this is the right place for this question
also, m is an integer in [1,p-1]
I think this is the right place @vagrant moat
I found a solution but it's pretty complicated
Can I know know where you got this problem? I would know if I should expect a simpler solution or if mine might be the intended one
btw this is a really great problem
can u show your solution?
if its long and u dont want to latex it cna u just sketch without the details
Yeah sure
so since it's Legendre's symbol, all of those are between -1 and 1, and so the sum is between -p+1 and p-1
and at least one of those zeros out (for a=m)
it's enough to show that the sum is congruent to -1 modulo p
$\bigg(\frac{x}{p}\bigg)\equiv x^{\frac{p-1}{2}}$
Gonzo17:
so the sum is congruent to $\sum\limits_{x=1}^{p-1} (x^2-xm)^{\frac{p-1}{2}}$
Gonzo17:
That is a sum of the form $\sum\limits_{x=1}^{p-1} P(x)$ for a polynomial $P$ with degree $p-1$ and constant term equal to 0
Gonzo17:
But there's a lemma that $\sum\limits_{x=1}^{p-1}x^i=0$ for any positive integer $i$ not divisible by $p-1$
Gonzo17:
The proof of the lemma is to take the generator $g$ in the group $(Z/p)^{\times}$
Gonzo17:
then $\sum\limits_{x=1}^{p-1}x^i\equiv\sum\limits_{k=0}^{p-2}(g^k)^i=\frac{g^{(p-1)i}-1}{g^i-1}$
Gonzo17:
and the numerator of the latter is divisible by $p$ because of Fermats Little Theorem, and denominator isn't because $g$ is a generator and $p-1\nmid i$
Gonzo17:
So, now we have $\sum\limits_{x=1}^{p-1}x^i\equiv 0$ for all $i$ between $1$ and $p-2$
Gonzo17:
and so back to the sum from the problem, which is $\sum\limits_{x=1}^{p-1}(x^2-xm)^\frac{p-1}{2}$
Gonzo17:
The only thing that matters here is the coefficient by $x^{p-1}$, because all other will sum up to 0 by the lemma
Gonzo17:
the coefficient by $x^{p-1}$ is of course 1
Gonzo17:
so the original sum is congruent to $\sum\limits_{x=1}^{p-1}x^{p-1}=\sum\limits_{x=1}^{p-1}1=-1$
Gonzo17:
And thus equal to it
Lol I should have typed this into a document, sorry for the messy writing
@sacred junco
I see, cool, thanks!
@vagrant moat I just posted the solution to your problem in here, if you don't want it spoiled then don't read back
You can ping me for some hints, or clarification if you read this proof
There's an easier solution here
You can rearrange this to be a Jacobi sum
i.e.
$\sum_{x = 1}^{p-1} \left( \frac{x(x - m)}{p} \right) = \left(\frac{-1}{p} \right)\sum_{x = 1}^{p-1} \left( \frac{x(m - x)}{p} \right)$
Zopherus:
Can someone give me a hint?
Assume p = 1 mod 5, and that x has order 5
I need to show that $(2(x + x^{-1}) + 1)^2 = 5 \mod p$
Wrrr...:
x has order 5 mod p?
You can try expanding the left side and rearranging
I tried
But didn't seem to get anywhere
just end up with $4(x^2 + x + x^{-1} + x^{-2} +1 ) = 0 \mod p$
Wrrr...:
Yeah that's ok
That's what you want to prove
Now, it would be good to get rid of the inverses
Or maybe another way
You know that x^5=1
I could write it $4(x^4 + x^3 + x^2 + x +1 ) = 0 \mod p$
Wrrr...:
But i don't see how that changes much
Yeah that's what I was thinking about
So now, you have to show that from the facts x^5=1 and x isn't 1
x can never be 1 because then i'd have order 1 but it has order 5
Wrrr...:
I think i got it from here, thanks a lot my dude
Np man
Wait, so, I don't rly get how Zopherus's proof works
I left out like most of the proof lmao
It's not really easier
because from there, you have to use facts about jacobi sums that tell you that the sum is equal to -(-1/p)
oh, I see
perhaps I should just share the original problem
I'm trying to evaluate $\sum_{a=0}^{p-1}g(a,p)g(-a,p)$
PolyBeanDip:
where $g(a,p) = \sum_{n=0}^{p-1}\bigg(\frac{n}{p}\bigg)\zeta_{p}^{an}$
PolyBeanDip:
I'm guessing that it's p(p-1), but I'm not rly sure how to prove it
is this an exercise in ireland rosen
Well, I got the problem down to proving $\bigg(\frac{1(1-m)}{p}\bigg) + \bigg(\frac{2(2-m)}{p}\bigg) + \dots + \bigg(\frac{(p-1)(p-1-m)}{p}\bigg) = -1$, but then I got stuck
PolyBeanDip:
I got this from expanding g(a,p)g(-a,p) and finding the coefficient of \zeta^(am)
I already know that the coefficient of \zeta^(0) is p-1 so if I can show the other coefficients are -1, then I can use the fact that -1*(Phi_{n}(\zeta_p) -1) = 1
to show that g(a,p)g(-a,p) = p
for all a not equal to 0 that is
noting g(0,p) = 0, the result follows
But, it looks like proving the coefficients are -1 hasn't rly simplified the problem
i suggest just expanding it into a triple sum first
you ight observe something from there
triple sum?
yeah
so just write it out fully
well even if you are not, as a general rule when you have something like this you should try to write it out explicitly
in hopes of observing something
I see
(ping me once you have something
ok
or if you want a hint
wait, but I don't rly think writing the sum explicitly for all a would help tho
wouldn't showing g(a,p)g(-a,p) = p (for non-zero a) be the way to go?
btw, I can't use quadratic reciprocity (cuz I haven't prove that yet)
hmm i mean i know the solution and writing the triple sum is a direct way
no QR required
(just plug in the expression for g(a,p) and g(-a,p))
Omg that's so clean
is there a nicer way to obtain the result that ive highlighted in green
their explanation makes sense, but its not very... nice? idk
or intuitive
Arenβt they just applying Euclidβs lemma?
Euclidβs lemma is pretty intuitive tbh
idk its just that if u werent given the final result, i dont think many people would come up with that process?
i came up with this
idk how to explain it more concisely
and idk if everything i wrote is correct
but i feel like this is a nicer sort of approach
to finding the result that
$x_0+ k \cdot \frac{m}{g}$
bri:
I think it looks fine
ah great
I saw that
yeahhh
was working on something
lemme post
would u be able to come up with a solution that directly
i think this is again a little more nicer
idk why im doing this
but ye
@sacred junco does that make sense?
thats meant to be an x_0 at the bottom
Umm
i can try write it more clear that was kinda rushed, but what particularly do u not get
or is it just all of it
lol
https://i.imgur.com/K7VYAKJ.png I don't understand what's wrong with this
ohhhh
but I might be lost in the naming convention you are using
ok yeah what uve scribbled out is just some working to obtain the first solution
if that makes sense
but yea it doesnt really matter lol
as long as the bottom bit makes sense, then its fine lol
errr
I guess you would need the first/second line
well..
what are u and v doing?
they never get mentioned again
u got mentioned again
butttt, ill just write this up neat in latex and ping u when im done
hopefully itll be more clear
yea I'm a little lost with what each letter is supposed to mean
ye np
I think I read this as an a lol
https://i.imgur.com/x2nIyul.png I think I wanted this instead
actually
I don't really know, I can't follow the work
or what you are trying to do exactly
but yea, if you send something written in latex that defines all the variables then I'll read it π
i think this should be a bit more clear
its only really the bottom bit im concerned with
also, do you know how ud explain the term 'residue class', i feel like thats not a term thats used anymore?
@sacred junco
i probably shouldnt have cropped so much at the top, but i think it should still make sense
what's wrong with residue class?
idk i just havent heard it being used apart from in this paper from like 2007 lol
you could say all members of a residue class are congruent in modulo whatever
ah yh
I still don't know where some of the variables are coming from
where is b introduced?
we are tryna solve this
sorry yea i shouldnt have cropped so much lol
heres the full doc
the top bit isnt relevant
btw a lot of it is just a copy and paste from my textbook lol, but this is just for my personal use so i dont think that matters
yikes
solving that congruence is equivalent to solving a linear diophantine equation
well
wait one second
hm nvm
btw i do know that there is a simpler way to solve linear congruencess
my main motivation for this is that it gives some reasoning to these results
and also making links in maths i p cool
the bulk of the difficulty in the problem is proving rigorously that there are g residue classes that the solutions could have
hm i see
I think the things you were doing before that are convoluted
you could just quote the previously established linear diophantine solving theorem
if you fix a, b, and m, then you are just solving a linear diophantine equation
nothing more to it
hm yeah perhaps ive made it convoluted because i only really know how to solve linear diophantine equations of the form ax+by=g where g is the gcd of a and b. but idk how to solve ax+by=kg, for an integer k. im guessing theres an easier way to solve ax+by=kg than how ive done?
i think ill just come back to this once i cover diophantine equations properly
what does the theorem that you learned say?
does it not prove that the solutions just depend on gcd(a,b)
and that it doesn't matter if the right hand side is gcd(a,b) or a multiple of gcd(a,b)?
if it doesn't include that, then I guess you've covered that for yourself now
the theorem i learned is basically a copy past of what i write in that doc, the only part i didnt like was this
so i changed that bit
ahh
ah I see the one you pasted now
yea
I see why your work was more convoluted lol
yeaaaaaa
since you were using a weaker theorem
perhaps the book im using isnt as good as i thought
burton elementary number theory
I've never looked at it but that should be plenty good
yea hopefully
I mean silverman
I'd use both
np