#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 58 of 1
And again, there's an assumption of the problem that you haven't used yet
reading is hard
let me see what i'm missing 
alright, since a^2 and b^2 are both either 0 or 1 mod 4
a^2 + b^2 is either 0,1, or 2 mod 4
i don't think this is what you have in mind when you said
assumption of the problem that you haven't used yet
.. jesus
p is congruent to 3 mod 4
so a^2 + b^2 is 3 mod 4
which can't happen
this HAS to be it 
it is
well, thanks for carrying my ass all the way through this
np
much appreciated
anyone know any good books on elementary number theory and its application in cryptography
or something similar like lecture notes
Koblitz NT
i'm stuck on the second part
help 
if f(x) is a multiple of y, then n | f(x) and we're done
But I guess you have to argue that such x exists
hmmm not sure if correct, but I guess if youre given f(x) s.t. its congruent to 0 (p_i), then obviously its congruent to 0(\prod p_i) = 0(n)? So assuming there exists such x then it will be solution to the first thing
thank u for ur suggestion, have u been through the book personally? @sacred junco
for first 15 pages and I didnt quite like it because it didnt fit my course
ah right, was it easy enough to get into though
I think so, there was more cryptography than nt in there, I think you should just check out the pdf somewhere and see for yourself.
Although Im not sure, I didnt read much of it, nor I remember the content table
f(x) s.t. its congruent to 0 (p_i), then obviously its congruent to 0(\prod p_i) = 0(n)
can you explain the "obviously" part? because that's the whole direction
wait
umm
right but isn't that the forward direction
f(x) s.t. its congruent to 0 (p_i)
the given is that there exists f(x) = 0 (p_i) for each i, so like...
f(x_1) = 0 (p_1)
f(x_2) = 0 (p_2)
... so on?
knowing f(x)=0(p_i) then if f(x) = a*(p_1)*(p_2)*...*(p_i) will be congruent to all
knowing f(x)=0(p_i)
i'm not sure i can assume that
its congruency
hmm
i think the question doesn't want me to assume that there exist a single x that f(x) = 0(p_i)
$f(x) \cong 0(p_i) \to f(x) = a \cdot p_i$
Godel:
no..?
well p_i^alpha
it says there exist x for each individual p_i
the second implication
<== direction
No, there exists f(x) such taht its congruent to 0 to all p_i ^a_i
if those f(x) were different they would be called f_i(x) I think
f(x)≡0(p_i) has a solution for i= 1,2,···,t
i don't know man
has a solution for those individual i's, not all at once
otherwise it'll just say f(x) = 0(n)
which is the thing that i want to prove
i don't, i think x's need not be the same
hmm let me think, you might be right and I just misunderstood the question
it's due in 30 mins 
What's the most efficient way to calculate the solution for a system of congruence?
Using chinese remainder theorem
I'm asking computational wise
When is a number not relatively prime to p?
in other words, its a multiple of p
yes
so how many multiples of p do you have from 0 to p^2 -1
Tbh I don’t know what to do but this looks like Wilson’s theorem and it also looks like a previous problem where I applied a theorem that said x^2=-1(mod p) if and only if p is prime such that p=1(mod 4)
well it does have to do with wilsons, yeah
try writing out the factorial(expanding that is) with the square
Oh lol
yeah ok i see it
continuing this should prove it
try playing around with this for a while
Cant you get rid of the twos somewhat easily?
yep
How?
There’s one in every part of the factorial expansion
yeah, so how many total
P-1
n?
ja
Ok then the number of terms we’re multiplying is ((p-1)/2)^2
yep
so if we take out a 4^{-1} from each
what is the total thing we aare taking out
The number of terms times 4^(-1)?
oh well you are multiplying 4^(-1) by itself that many times
so its 4^(-1) to that power
whats this power
The number of terms?
$4^{-(p-1)^2/2}$
JohnDoeSmith:
hmm its not exactly that
Oh the ((p-1)^2)! looks like I wrote it as part of the exponent but I didn’t mean it like that
JohnDoeSmith:
is what it is right
How?
basically take out a 1/4 from each factor
in the expansion
anyhow first evaluate $4^{-(p-1)^2/4}$
JohnDoeSmith:
Ok then it’s 1/(4^(p-1)^(2)!/4
well sqrt(2) isnt nice in mod
Ok then I’ll leave it in the exponent
$2^{-(p-1)\times (p-1)/2}$
JohnDoeSmith:
its this right
what theorem can you use for modular arithmetic
that simplifies this
$a^{p-1} \pmod{p}$
JohnDoeSmith:
whats this in general
Oh wait nvm I’ve seen fermat’s little theorem
alright by fermats little, what is the thing we had
hello is anyone here

I have a general question about some Number Theory. I know about rings like Z[sqrt(n)] and that some of those rings have/don't have (I don't remember exactly here) zero divisors or unique factorization. Is this question difficult: Does a^3 + b^3 = c^3 have nontrivial solutions in say Z[root(105)]? Or for Z[root(n)] in general?
This seems hard
👍🟥
What's the difference between a Cayley table and a group/multiplication table?
cayley tables are multiplication tables just with a fancy name
Well, you can also de addition in a Cayley table
So in that case, its not a multiplication table
Very fancy name, indeed.
@upbeat wren try to research and work it out for yourself. You probably already know that numbers in general Z[alpha], alpha in R can be described with the fundamental pair of periods.
Fundamental pair of periods? I've heard this term in relation to complex elliptic curves, but I'm not sure if that's what you're referring to here? @civic marsh
I'm having problem with (b), i have done some search on the internet and i found out that n! - 1 is prime for some n, which makes me confuse because i don't know how to answer the question.
apparently these are called factorial primes
it isnt known if there are an infinite number of them, so I would answer that n!-1 can be prime or composite
Ok thanks. I want to ask that is there anyway to know whether a number is a prime or not ?
At problem a i can prove that 119 is not divisible by any prime which is lower than sqrt(119) but i have no idea with problem c
Oh my mistake 119 is divisible by 7
(c) is almost a Mersenne number
But how do we know whether it is a prime or not ?
This helped me, so it should be able to help you
Thanks a lot !
But i also have a question, it just say that if 2^n + 1 is prime then n must be a power of 2, but it doesn't mean that if n is a power of 2 then 2^n + 1 is prime. Similarly for Mersenne prime, 2^n - 1 is a prime then n is a prime number, however, if n is a prime 2^n - 1 may not be a prime
For instance, 2^11 - 1 is not a prime number although 11 is a prime number
So how do we know 2^35 - 1 is a prime number or not
You could look at Fermat's little theorem
Oh wait, no, I'm dumb
It's only for primes
I'm so confused =((
WWM resident:
WWM resident:
I'm glad I could get it right on time
But what about 2^n + 1
Unless that special rule indicated above, I don't think there is a special rule. Maybe except that 2^(an odd number)+1 is not prime
Okay, tks a lot !
Hence the theorem, by the way.
Is there any documents or books that explain these topics ? I'm reading Discrete Math by Kenneth but it seems like the book doesn't explain these topics a lot.
Sorry, I'm not good at giving away titles of books, as I don't have enough.
=(( okay tks
|| Let k be odd and greater than 1, 2^(k) + 1 is not prime. (in fact it's divisible by 3).
-
Any multiple of 3 greater than 3 is not prime as it is divisible by 3.
-
If k is odd and greater than 1, 2^(k) + 1 is divisible by 3.
Proof: Mod 3 ... 2 = -1 and so 2^(odd) + 1 = -1^(odd) + 1 = -1 + 1 = 0.
Note also that 2^(k) > 3 for k > 1. ||
"Mod 3 ... 2 = -1 and so 2^(odd) + 1 = -1^(odd) + 1 = -1 + 1 = 0."
I don't understand this one, can you please explain it to me ?
All in mod 3, for an odd k:
2^k + 1
= (-1)^k + 1
= -1 + 1
= 0
@granite quiver
Okay i get it now, tks a lot !
i've been stuck on this proofs for a while now, i read many many stuff on google, my note, and textbook
and i just don't fucking get it
can someone guide me through everything (inclusive) from and for k>=2 please
<@&681259820611141654>
i think you can come up with a system of linear cong. where the solution is m
idk much, sorry
Publius, you should just look at the part of Ireland Rosen where they go through these things
i did
Chapter 5? I think it is?
It's probably easier to ask questions about that then
does the red line assumen is either p^a or 2p^a?
since n=2 and 4 is proven already
this sentence makes think that it was assumed to be p^a only?
In the first picture
They're assuming that it's not of the form p^a or 2p^a
And then going on to show that it's not cyclic
oh...
reading is hard
i thought euler phi function is always even? why does that matter here
unit of Z/2mZ X Z/2nZ has two order two element because they're both "even" right?
i guess i gotta hope this is not one of my exam question in 30 mins
maybe i should just recite this proof 
Them being even implies that the groups have an element of order 2
Euler phi(m_1) is the order of
U(Z/m_1Z)
And so the order of this group is even and so it has an element of order 2
I'm wandering what is the value of the division 1 by 4 in Z9 ? Is it existed ? Because the division 1 by 4 is a fraction, therefore (1/4) mod 9 can not be an integer, however, every element in Z9 is positive integer and lower than 9.
The way to define division is
That 4^-1 is the number such that 4 times 4^-1 = 1
And you can extend this idea to Z9
Since 4 times 7 is 1 mod 9
This is similar to modular multiplicative inverse right ?
It's exactly that
So using (-8085) * (37797)^-1 instead?
yeah seems about right
except that 37793 != 1 (mod 65536)
what did you get?
yeah
of course 37793 and 1 are not the same mod 65536
seems about right
so the inverse is 7213
so A = 9935
what did you do?
I got B = 33885
It's -B = 42101
@acoustic plinth
hmm wait that's a bit weird
(375552931)%65536 is actually 31651
If I am given two polynomials f(x) and g(x) , what is the difference between doing polynomial long division and doing FFT style division?
FFT?
Fast Fourier Transform
So convert the f(x) and g(x) into evaluation form, IIUC
@stoic bear Is this the right place to ask this?
idk anything about FFT
If in doubt about which channel to ask, I would go to one of the 10 #❓how-to-get-help channels at the bottom
Alright thank you
Hi I'm trying to understand Euclid's algorithm, I'm reading the explanation of why it works from a study guide but unfortunately I am not following (I feel like it's something stupid I just don see)
The explanation goes as follows
The HCF of the pair 207, 60 is the same as the HCF of the pair 60, 27. To
see why this is so, recall the first equation:
207 = 3 × 60 + 27. (this is the equation they are referring to)
If 207 and 60 are both divisible by an integer n, then 3 × 60 is also
divisible by n. This implies that 207 − 3 × 60 is divisible by n. So 27,
which is equal to 207 − 3 × 60, is divisible by n as well. Therefore any
factor of both 207 and 60 is alsoafactor of both 60 and 27. Using the
same kind of argument you can see that any factor of both 60 and 27 is
also a factor of both 207 and 60. It follows that the HCF of 207 and 60 is
equal to the HCF of 60 and 27.
Is there a quick way to do polynomial division, if you know the divisor is a factor?
I specifically get lost when it says "If 207 and 60 are both divisible by an integer n, then 3 × 60 is also
divisible by n. This implies that 207 − 3 × 60 is divisible by n. So 27,
which is equal to 207 − 3 × 60, is divisible by n as well."
@worldly tree If the divisor is factored into monomials then you can use ruffini
@willow crest So if the divisor is a linear equation, I can use Ruffini ?
Here are some rules for GCD: https://www.cut-the-knot.org/arithmetic/GcdLcmProperties.shtml
I think the main one is that GCD(P M, PN) = P * GCD(M,N)
In your equation:
207 = 3 × 60 + 27
You know that if a number is divisible by 207, then it must also be divisible by 180 and 27
@willow crest
If I were to put this part into my own words "If 207 and 60 are both divisible by an integer n, then 3 × 60 is also
divisible by n. This implies that 207 − 3 × 60 is divisible by n. So 27,
which is equal to 207 − 3 × 60, is divisible by n as well."
If 207 = 3 X 60 + 27
Then if you know that 207 and 60 are divisible by n. Then this means that 27 is forced to be divisible by n
Whatever this number n is both divides 207,60 and 27.
So GCD(207, 60) = GCD(60, 27) = n
@willow crest Am I making any sense?
Although we have not proved n is the GCD though, but that was the intuition
@worldly tree sorry I'm not following you, I'm feeling kind of dumb today. I'm getting overwhelmed with all the symbols and I get lost in the process of trying to understand what I'm reading
@worldly tree btw regarding the polynomial division I think using synthetic division in your case is the fastest way
why can we conclude that "This implies that 207 − 3 × 60 is divisible by n"? (which I know is the remainder)
That's because you end the algorithm when there is no remainder.
For a proof, you can reason backwards.
I did this in Python. I hope it's correct:
In [18]: a,b=24,15
In [19]: a,b=b,a%b;a,b
Out[19]: (15, 9)
In [20]: a,b=b,a%b;a,b
Out[20]: (9, 6)
In [21]: a,b=b,a%b;a,b
Out[21]: (6, 3)
In [22]: a,b=b,a%b;a,b
Out[22]: (3, 0)```
In the end, b is zero, and the greatest divisor is 3.
But if you know that the step n left no divisor, then you can also reason back to step n-1.
And so forth. Up until step 0, so you know it also divides the original numbers.
Just watch the algorithm in action and I think you will realize intuitively.
I know how the algorithm works (applying it blindly), I understand that I have to stop when the remainder is 0, but I don't understand the specific explanation they're giving me there about why it works
Because you can reason divsibility backwards (1) and because it always gets smaller (2). (1) and (2) together are the reason for Euclid's GCD working.
Maybe one explanation is that if some number d divides both a and b
Then it also divides a-b
And it also divides a - 2b and a - nb for any integer n
So that's why doing the division doesn't change the gcd
You know that a_n = b_n-1 * k from the last step, because in the last step, the remainder b is zero.
You can, inductively, reason your way up the chain and see that therefor the last a_n will also divide all previous steps.
By induction, this means that it divides both the original a and b.
@willow crest sorry missed your message; so if a number n divides 207 and 60 then it must also divide 27. If I explained this part well.
Then you can rephrase it in the way you wrote it This implies that 207 − 3 × 60 which is 27
If n divides 207 and 3 x 60, then it is forced to divide 27 which is 207- 3 X 60
As its been put above; another way to look at is:
If n divides a and b, then n is a factor of a and b .
So a = nk and b = nm , where n and m are integers.
If we look at a-b, we see that a-b = nk - nm = n(k-m) , so n also divides a-b.
We can go one step further and so a-xb = nk - xnm = n(k-xm)
So n divides a minus any multiple of b
(60, 27)
(27, 6)
(6, 3)
(3, 0)```
(thought the steps might help, not meant as explanation)
We know that n | a and n |b implies that n | a-b and n | a-kb for any k
using your example:
If we know that a number divides 207 and 60, then this number will also divide 207-k60
In your example k is 3. So this means that n must also divide 207 - 3 X 60 which is 27
So from this we know that n divides (207, 60,27, 207-k60)
We may as well use 60 and 27 to find n
@worldly tree although I still don't see it put together (i'll need some time to analyze this) your explanation really helped me. thank you very much
No problem. So it's missing a part which I mentioned above. (Proving that n is indeed the GCD) there is a proof of it in a book. But If you assume this, then it should make a bit more sense
I will reformat what I was saying below this line, so it flows better for you
I think you can demonstrate one key insight in this example:
The last line tells you 6 = k3. But since 27 mod 6 has remainder 3, you know 27 = k3 + 3 = m*3. So 27 also has to be divisible by 3.
And so forth, up the chain.
You can take any portion of the tail end of this sequence and it will be a "sub-case" of GCD. Reasoning your way backwards is actually a lot simpler than forward in this case.
First we show that if n | a and n | b, then n | a-b
If n divides a and b, then n is a factor of a and b .
We can rewrite a and b like so:
-
a = nkwhere k is an integer -
b = nm, where m is an integer.
Now lets look at a-b:
a-b = nk - nm = n(k-m)
This means that n is factor of a-b , if it is a factor of a and b. In other words, if n | a and n | b, then n | a-b
We can actually go further and say that if n | a and n | b , then n | xa - yb for all integers x and y. (Lemma 1)
_ How does this help with your question?_
First recall that n | a means that n is a factor of a. You want the GCD/GCF, which means the greatest common factor. So (Lemma 1) applies here. we will not show that n is the GCD/GCF, let's just assume it. Remember two numbers can have more than one factor!
_ Okay so how do we use what we now know to find the GCD/GCF in a simpler way?_
-
We have 207 = 3 X 60 - 27
-
We know that n divides 207 and 60. (Lemma 1) tells us that n also divides 207 - 3 X 60 = 27 . This means that n also divides 27.
-
So
ndivides both 60 and 27.
_ Who cares if n divides 60 and 27?_
Remember we are trying to find n and instead of looking for the GCD(207, 60) we can now use GCD(60, 27) because they both equal n!
We can keep applying the same argument again, by writing 60 = m27 + r. Until r =0
Hope that helps a bit
does this work as a proof?
since a has order k modulo p it follows that a^k=1
so (aA)^k=a^kA^k=1A^k=1
so with A^K=1 i claim that A has order k
what's $\bar{a}$?
Zopherus:
or do I also need to show that this k is the smallest k?
a bar is inverse which i refer to as A
$(a\bar a)^k = a^k\bar a^k = 1 \cdot \bar a^k = 1 \mod p$
Slate:
yeah this shows that A^k = 1 as you want
but yeah, you need to show its the smallest
i think it being the smallest follows from it being an inverse?
because the inverse is unique mod p
so if k isnt the smallest and theres a smaller x which satisfies the given properties, then that x is also an inverse
but that should be a contradiction since inverses are unique up to modulo
i mean a^x is an inverse
a^x is 1
actually no you're right
or well, A^x is 1
assume there is a x<k, then do the same argument but switch a and A around @sacred junco
I figured it out doing just that @torn escarp thanks!
cool
n = pq with p and q distinct primes and i need to show the following congruence
$m^{1+f(n)r}=m^{1+f(pq)r}=m^{1+f(p)f(q)r}=m^{1+(p-1)(q-1)r} \mod (pq)$
Slate:
$(mm^{(p-1)r})^{q-1} \mod (q)=m$ due to fermat
Slate:
$(mm^{(q-1)r})^{p-1} \mod (p)=m$ also due to fermat
Slate:
i cant guess where to take this to from here, did i start off in the right direction?
i could use chinese remainder theorem since i know mod p and mod q and combine it to mod pq but I don't think i'm ending up with m as the answer
and i dont know what the inverses would be if i tried using CRT
That's all you need
If a = b (mod p) and a = b (mod q) then you have that a = b (mod pq)
If a = b (mod p) and a = b (mod q) then you have that a = b (mod pq)
how would u go about proving that?
i cant seem to do it
@light flicker
you have that pk = ql right?
yeah
alright, gimme 5min
I'm timing
lol
cant do it still, frick. i figured that pk and ql have the same prime decomporisation or whatever its called, so that might mean p/q is an integer
but yeah i dont have anything else
aight
hmmm, i think if p| ql and if q | pk, then p | q and l | k
intuitively, but i cant prove it
if q > p
hm
nah that cant happen then
p and q arent necessarily primes though? u didnt set that condition in ur statement “If a = b (mod p) and a = b (mod q) then you have that a = b (mod pq)”?
u could have this for example
should've realized that was what you were confused about
i shall try again :P
yeah i still dont get it
do u have any other clues, doubt theres any more at this point
had a look online and its chinese remained theorem which is a popular one i think, but dont wanna spoil it lol
well, now you realize that p | q can't happen right?
ye
but p | ql
yh
an important fact about primes is that if p | ab, then either p | a or p | b
so you know that p | l
yeah, just write l = pn for some integer n
and you get that ql = pqn
and so a - b = pqn
oooooooo
that works out nicely
epic
cheers
just to make sure, have i written the correct explanations for this?
yep yep
You're right that this is just a special case of chinese remainder theorem
but you don't need to know about that to do this
Basically, it allows you to split any modulus up into prime power moduli
and working with prime power modulus is almost always a lot easier
as in if u split up the modulus into its primes, u can replace the modulus with a power of its prime and the modular equation would still hold?
or have i got that wronf
Yeah not quite
How it's usually taught kind of
is like giving some example like
In a classroom, the teacher tries to form groups of 3, but two people are left over
Then the teacher tries to form groups of 5, but 3 people are left over
but then the teacher tries to form groups of 7 and no one is left over
What is the smallest number of students that the teacher could have?
oooo, thats an interesting problem
ya
I'm sleeping soon though so you might not get a response til I wake up
yeah thats fine
This is kind of the opposite of what I was describing
this problem is more about how to combine small modulus into a single larger one
and the nice thing about CRT is that it allows you to go both ways, and both ways are often useful
i see
yeah i didnt really get anywhere
28 and 63 are the only numbers that satisfy the bottom 2 equations, but it doesnt solve the top one, it would be silly to continue listing multiplies of 7 above 10
so you know that x = 3k + 2
yh
plug that into your second equation
you should get a solution that only depends on the mod 5 value of k
idk if im being an idiot, or does this work
u should be able to multiply both sides by 5 since 5 is essentially coprime to the modulus which is also 5
idk
what is 15k (mod 5)?
also u can sleep if ur tired
ah oke
the definition of coprime is that 2 numbers have hcf of 1
5 and 5 have hcf of 5
so not cprime
lol
yep
i is idiot
well
ok
indeed
This is related to what we were kind of talking about though
for prime modulus, all numbers have a multiplicative inverse
so there's some number you can multiply both sides by
so you just get k on the left side
so k = 2?
or the smallest value of k would be 2
hm if k was 2, x would equal to 8, which isnt divisible by 7
Cheap solution:
Brute force.
k = 2 (mod 3)
k = 3 (mod 5)
Use the remainder plus multiples of the larger number: 3, 8, 13, 18 ...
k = 8 mod 15
k = 0 mod 7
Brute force two: 8, 23, 38, 53, 68, 83, 98.
@dreamy rain I woke up if you're here
ye lets continue from my last message
Yeah, the smallest (positive) value of k would be 2, but all solutions are 2 (mod 5)
so how are we meant to find the value of k which satisfies these equations
its def not 2
cus subbing in 2 into the first equation, ud get x =8
Well the important thing is that x = 8 satisfies the first two equations right
And we've only dealt with the first two equations so far
oh yh
So you kind of do the same thing again
We found that k = 2 + 5n
If we substitute this back in for x, we get that x = 8 + 15n
ah yup
ill see if i can do it from here, ty
is the answer 98?
@light flicker
ill write up the method neatly gimme a min lel
its not really that much working out, i just made sure i wrote every detail in case i didnt remember if i ever come back to this
but yeah, how does this link to chinese remainder theorem
we have started with small moduli of 3,5 and 7 and ended up with a modular equation of a bigger moduli of 15
and 15 relates to 2 of those original moduli in that 3*5=15
idk where im going with this hm
Yeah that's the idea
And then we combined 15 and 7 into a bigger modulus
105 which is 15*7
We had a system of equations mod 3,5,7 and we were able to combine them into a single equation mod 105
yeah
and we can go the other way
split up a single equation mod 105 into three equations mod 3,5,7
can anyone explain how exponents work in modular arithmetic
like a = b (mod m)
then what can you say about a^n = b^n (mod m) or something
no i mean
idk what i'm even asking
i just don't know how modular arithmetic works at all
like
All rules of addition and multiplication really remain the same
yeah but why i suppose?
the proofs on wikipedia are very confusing
i feel like they're made for experts who have read 20 books on it already
well first you have to settle on what it means for a = b (mod m)
look at anything besides wikipedia kthx
also true, wikipedia isn't really meant for you to learn something new rigorously from
a = b (mod m) means that a/m and b/m have the same remainder
where the remainder is an integer
Yeah it's just that there are a lot of problems with this
Or at least, a lot of work you have to do
Like, what does remainder mean?
remainder can be denoted as r, where 0 <= r < m, otherwise it would no longer be a remainder since it goes into m at least once.
and we have
a = m * k + r, where k is some integer that we're multiplying to get a
How do you know that remainder is unique?
How do you know there's only one such r?
How do you know there's any such r at all?
because deg(m) > deg(r) by the remainder theorem
idk i only know the polynomial remainder theorem lol
Yeah idk, the point is that you have to be rigorous in these things
But maybe the better definition is that
a = b (mod m) if and only if m divides a - b
don't you get that from my "definition" though?
like
a/m = integer
b/m = integer
a/m - b/m = integer - integer = integer?
didn't read previous stuff but generically a/m, b/m are not integers
it's (a-b)/m that is an integer
sorry i'm very dumb
Even if you think about remainders
You have to deal with all the stuff I mentioned
i suppose what i wanted to say is
a/m has a integer remainder
b/m has a integer remainder
so (a-b)/m has to have an integer remainder
?
Again, you have to deal with all the remainder stuff I mentioned
How do you know the remainder is unique and it even exists
And it's not about (a-b)/m having integer remainder, you want this to have 0 remainder
Pick up a book
Maybe something like aops number theory
Or Silverman's introduction to number theory
@light flicker which one did you read? or both or
@light flicker why is that?
Aops is more meant for competitive math
And doesn't go over things super rigorously
$a^2 \equiv 1 ($ mod $n)$ What are the solutions for a?
yohst:
What have you tried?
Well I know $a^2 \equiv 1 ($ mod $p)$ if $p$ is a prime
yohst:
ooop
not what i meant
like a plus or minus one
makes a^2 equiv 1 mod p
so i know thats like one solution
and i know that its just like what numbers are their own inverses between 1 and n-1 inclusive
i only know how to use it to compute like systems of congruences(? i think they are called)
ill look into it some more
Yeah, that's kind of one direction of CRT
Slate:
I understand that the final number i obtain must be converted back to a string using the A <-> 01 conversion scheme, but this doesn't seem to be a correct answer
one sec
90113200805230112182119```
thats the step calculating m?
yeah
c^d mod n
hmm
let me double check again
yeah it's 90113200805230112182119
then just add a 0 in front
how do u get that answer though i got the same number again
(2795798886831045888222263^1567443108794230900121825)%3711589008744437349643567
oh lafmaoafma
^ is xor
omg...
i forgot

what did you use to calculate it? wolfram?
python
is powmod
that much faster
than plainly typing it out?
mine is taking long
what are you doing?
(2795798886831045888222263**1567443108794230900121825)%3711589008744437349643567
yeah don't do that
it's going to multiply 279.... by itself 1567... times
I'm not exaggerating when I say it will take millenia to compute that
cool

thanks @sacred junco
np :DDDD
suppose p doesnt divide a. prove that p doesnt divide a^k
i feel like there should be a straightforward proof for this utilizing the fact that p is a prime
i have something of a mess now
since a p doesnt divide a i can write $a=px+r$ and so $a^k=(px+r)^k$
Slate:
then i use the expansion formula to show that mod p u get a nonzero remainder
that works fine
it does but its more general than it needs to be i feel like
i dont use anywhere the fact that p is a prime
and i still havent wrapped my head around primitive roots and orders and i think that this is related to those
you have used the fact that p is prime
where did i use it?
think through each of your steps
hey, I was studying polynomial rings when I encountered eisentein's criterion. The proof was given by contradiction. I wanted to know if there is a proof without using contradiction?
I tried searching on Google, but couldn't find any
instead of showing a contradiction with f=gh, you can instead say when you factor f into g and h, one of them is always a degree 0 polynomial, which is effectively the same but avoiding a contradiction.
How do I calculate what multiples of 9 end in some number
just look for a pattern
what
I mean wouldn't I miss some numbers if I only considered 7 and numbers that end in 1
what
if you mean 3 then that doesn't help
well 9 * 7 works
and the last digit of a product of two numbers, only depends on their last digits
7 is the only one-digit number that works
yeah so 9 * 7 * any number that ends in 1
this misses a lot of things
yeah
again, all multiples of 9 are 9 times something
and the last digit of 9 times x, is just 9 times the last digit of x
so you're telling me that only numbers that ends in 1 or 7 work?
nvm, I forgot that 9 * 7 * any number that ends in 1 just means 9 * a number that ends in 7
kinda
but not all numbers that end in 7 can be written as 7 * a number that ends in 1
I guess
anyways, you should see that all numbers that end in 7 work
Can someone explain why: Given some linear Diophantene equation $ax+by=c$ and two solutions $(x_0, y_0)$ and $(x,y)$, why $a(x-x_0)+b(y-y_0)=0$?
Tarski:
$ax - ax_0 + by -by_0$
Tarski:
Okay, do you see any familiar things
Not really, but I'm guessing the next step is to change the way we group them?
Yeah that might be helpful
or do we use some fact about the $gcd(x,x_0)$
Tarski:
Nope
okay let's try $ax + by -(ax_0 + by_0)$
You should also think about what you know about x,y and x_0,y_0
Tarski:
@light flicker is it true that $gcd(x,y) = gcd(x_0, y_0)$?
Tarski:
I think that must be true
Why would that be true
Look
You're just ignoring information
How were x,y and x_0,y_0 defined
oh I'm forgetting about our initial equation
that could be useful
@light flicker $gcd(a,b) = c$
Tarski:
How do you know that?
And besides, it's not relevant
There's something a lot simpler that you just seem to be ignoring
What does it mean for x_0,y_0 to be a solution to ax+by = c?
oh
so it is c - c
wow
@light flicker thanks, I'm pretty slow when it comes to number theory, I need more practice
There wasn't even any number theory here
yeah this is just part of a larger problem
And it's not true that gcd(x,y) = c
I'm trying to find a general expression for every integer solution in terms of x_0 and y_0
For example if you have like x= 1 and y=1 then the gcd is 1 but
You can take like 5*1 + 3*1 = 8
And c would be 8
So that's not the gcd
It should be $gcd(a,b) | c$
Tarski:
That would be true yeah
okay, I need more practise
Also $\gcd$
Zopherus:
thanks
And $\mid$
Zopherus:
Okay suppose $\gcd(a,b) = d$ then $\gcd(a/d,b/d) = 1$, how can this be demonstrated?
Tarski:
Tarski:
Okay so you want to show that no number greater than 1 divides both a/d and b/d
use a contradiction?
yes
oh well if there was such a divisor then we can multiply that by d and we get a bigger common divisor of a and b right?
yes
anytime
Is quadratic reciprocity elementary number theory?
ye
just post the question
I don’t have a question
I was just wondering
Whether it’s considered elementary number theory
does it really matter
Idk
ive seen it in elementary number theory textbooks so thats what i would go by
in my very non-expert opinion it would be elementary number theory and i doubt it matters really
Ok
I am using a polynomial calculator to find the gcd of two polynomials. For some reason the calculator (and wolframalpha) get x^2+x+2 as the gcd. But it says "the last nonzero remainder is " ...
Isn't the last nonzero remainder 4x^2+4x+8, not x^2+x+2?
It's kind of because it's just a constant times one anotjer
4 times one is the other
wolfram also got the same answer
i dont know what you mean by simplify
do we simplify when we use regular integers, gcd(4,8) = 4 ?
the ring was Q[x]
or can you elaborate on that , simplify
not saying youre wrong , im stumped :/
Do you know what ideals are
i know examples of ideals, nZ
i would have to look at the definition to be certain
so it looks like they are simplifying. but im not sure why, or is it allowed.
The ideal generated by (x^2 + x + 2) and (4x^2 + 4x + 8) are the same
yes that makes sense
Maybe another reasoning that doesn't appeal to ideals is that
If f divides g, then kf divides g for any rational number k
And f,g are elements of Q[x] here
so with respect to Q[x], x^2+x+2 and 4x^2+4x+8 are equivalent?
Yes in some sense
or k*(x^2+x+2) , to generalize
Changing an element by a unit doesn't change it
When you think about factorization
You normally just work up to units
interesting
so we can't really analogize here from regular integers, like in gcd(4,8)
well maybe you can
Well, the analogous idea is that 4 is equivalent to -4
ah
Or that sign doesn't matter when factorizing
right
so it wouldnt be wrong to say the gcd is 4x^2+4x+8
or maybe it's preferred to use the principal ideal
thanks. i was just surprised when i saw the calculator work. clearly they are using a different 'nonzero remainder'
but not really different it turns out
could someone give me a clue for part b
ive spotted a pattern
but idk if it can simplified or anything
i do have the answer, but dont quite wanna check yet
showing that the nth triangular number is equal to $\frac{n(n+1)}{2}$ should allow you to verify your pattern
Pappa:
You may consider relationship between n(n+1)/2 and odd square (2n-1)²
Since you cannot use "previous triangle number" in your answer as you haven't proof if M is a triangle number or not
the nth triangle number is just the sum to n terms, and its a common result that it equals n(n+1)/2, but ye i could derive it
and yea ill mess around with that
thank u guys
i have no idea what i can do with this
i think its time for me to give up and check the answer lol :(
$\frac{n(n+1)}{2} + \frac{(n+1)(n+2)}{2} = ?$
Pappa:
@dreamy rain you can solve it combinatorially
not quite sure what combinatorially means lel
did you get it?
The sum of two consecutive triangular numbers is a square number. But the question is talking about odd squares
i looked at the answer as well, but it doesnt give an explanation to how they got to it
yeahh
Have a picture of the answer?
Oh you just rearrange the result in a
But how can we be sure that works? Hrm
part c gives a solid proof that it works
"if and only if" nvm, it will clearly work
do u know how they got the answer?
for part a
part b is just the inverse argument p sure
Hey, I have a small doubt about integral domains
Let there be 2 elements a and b of a commutative ring R with identity.
a and b are associate if there exists c such that b = ac.
And a divides b if there exists d such that b = ad.
So aren't these things basically the same?
Also, if d is a unit, then won't there exist d^(-1) such that b*d(-1) = a?
Wouldn't that mean that b also divides a?
first, it's associate, not associative
and the definition of associate requires c to be a unit
so they're not the same
a,b being associate implies that a divides b and b divides a
and the reverse is true, if a divides b and b divides a, then a,b are associate
but just having that a divides b doesn't let you say that a, b are associate
oh okay, thanks a lot!!
that made it all clear!
also is your dp from tower of god?
what do you mean?
like endrossi spelling wise or
oh wait, yeah I know what you're talking about
its just an alias
i wonder why
Hey, I have a small doubt
Is is always the case that <1> generates the integral domain?
the ideal <1>?
yes
yes
and that's not the case with rings (with identity) in general?
I'd like to know in either case
cause a lot of proofs in my book assume it in some cases, and there isn't anywhere explicitly written out
then is the ideal <1> a two-sided ideal?
yes
it really just follows straight from the definition
also you don't even need it to be a two-sided ideal now that I think about it
either sided is enough
yeah, maybe that's why the book didn't mention it
But I am having a bit trouble seeing it
well, list out what ideals must satisfy
So I'll need to prove for myself, thanks a lot anyway!
oh okay got it, lol now it seems obvious that you mentioned
<1> has to have all 1*r in it
for any r in R
it will always be in commutative ring with identity
thanks again!!!
yeah
i don't understand what does the "dth powers form a subgroup" mean exactly
what's dth power?
the set ${x^d \mid x \in G}$
Zopherus:
${x^d \mid x \in G}$
Duck5929:
So (a,b) denotes the gcd of a and b, what denotes the lcm?
a \cap b
@fervent crest
"standard"
I mean, you should understand that one of the big reasons that (a,b) is even used is because its the ideal generated by (a,b) in ring theory
and that (a,b) = (gcd(a,b))
in other words, the ideals are the same
and the correspondence ideal operation for lcm would be intersection
as in (a) \cap (b) = (\lcm(a,b))
Lol
I think A23 is pretty interesting
Both problem collections are pretty neat
I hace a really small doubt: In a ring of polynomials, an irreducible polynomial p(x) is one which can't be written as :
p(x) = f(x) * g(x)
But defination of irreducible only requires that f(x) and g(x) are not units. But there are no units in polynomials except for constant 1 and -1, so it is safe to assume that irreducible polynomials simply can't written as product of 2 polynomials?
okay first, it depends on your ring if there are more units
what are the units of R[x] where R is the real numbers?
everything except 0
really? what's the inverse of x then
1/x
is that an element of R[x]?
yes
In general, the units of R[x] for a ring R are just the constants which are units of R
oh okay, my question was incomplete, sorry😅
I should have said irreducible polynomials with degree greater than 1 can't be reduced in polynomials with degree greater than 1
but I see know
they can't be reduced
thanks!
no wait
If you consider the ring Z[x] where Z are the integers
then the polynomial 2x is not irreducible
is 2 a unit in Z?
no
so then 2x is reducible
i'm having trouble to show the order = (p-1)/d part, i tried to do the three examples first thinking that the first (p-1)/d will be unique but that was not the case
i have also tried writing out U(Z/pZ) by its generator
let a be a primitive root of p, then
U(Z/pZ)={a, a^2, ... , a^(p-1)}
rise to dth power
{a^d, a^(2d), ..., a^(d(p-1))}
idk how to precede from that tho...
@light flicker help me papa
