#elementary-number-theory
1 messages ยท Page 56 of 1
thats my hypothesis
if you've ever seen the word "divides" before
well a | b if b is a multiple of 'a'
yes.
anyone can write on brilliant lmao
lets say, m | n iff m is a multiple of n*
also elementary number theory is accessible to even middle schoolers lol
thats true
And if you actually look at what we did
does brilliant pay you for writing??
oops
well i wouldnt leave it out if i wrote it
sure hope brilliant pays their authors, it's a paid platform
im not reading anymore brilliant.org , done with this
You could've figured that out on your own honestly
they could have said (leave steps for reader)
oh really
also you should try reading an actual book on number theory
And people who are familiar with proofs understand this
oh ok ill keep that in mind for the future
proof steps are implied. why even bother proving
just say 'bah the steps are implied'
Like I said
the trivial ones are
educational resources often include these sorts of things to make sure the reader actually understands what's going on
"Yes there are a lot of logical gaps here, but they are logical gaps that you could fill in if you understood what they were saying
And that's why people leave logical gaps, so the reader can check that they're understanding what's happening in the proof"
right zopherus , but as i said this is targeted to under-undergrads.
๐
if it's a college number theory book i couldnt care less. but this is targeted to high schoolers
so should high schoolers have their hand held in every step of anything ever?
The point isn't the age, it's the familarity with these ideas
"We already know that this condition is a necessary condition" but no we don't you have to prove that
when solving 3x + 5 = 2x - 9, do you expect a high school textbook to go
You seemed to struggle with the idea of substitution, and that's not really the level they're writing for
3x + 5 = 2x - 9
3x + 5 + 9 = 2x
3x + 5 + 9 - 2x = 0
3x - 2x + 5 + 9 = 0
(3-2)x + (5+9) = 0
1x + 14 = 0
x + 14 = 0
bruh isn't it obvious, d divides a and b, d divides ax, d divides by, so d divides ax + by
yes its obvious now
because they expect the reader to be familiar
but thats the point of a proof, to make reasoning transparent
and if the reader isnt familiar, that suggests the reader needs to spend more time to figure it out themself
its not bezouts identity, technically
because otherwise they cant truly understand
perhaps blame it on the reader
It would be transparent, if you had the experience needed
Also
if it's too transparent you fall asleep reading the proof
yes but brilliant says they are beginner friendly. oh well
And that's why here, they say "we already know that"
prove the necessary conditio
from zophs link
more mind reading, yikes
mind reading what?
yes we were proving that
That's why they say "we already know that"
is there a way to prove bezouts identity other than "bah use euclids algorithm"
i dont know what 'it' refers to
Because they proved it in the previous article
well im sure there is but is there a nice and short one
more confusion*
about what
bezouts identity can be proved using well ordering blah blah
You are arguing about the word 'it'?
no, i wasnt sure what 'it' referred to
like ok heres the thing
every article ever is gonna have prereqs
if you open up a calculus textbook
to page 200
and start complaining that you dont know what dy/dx means
youre not gonna get any sympathy
same thing applies to online resources
thats true. but heck this is not a necessary condition.
when someone says, X is a necessary condition, and it isnt, thats a lie. you can derive it, but thats not the same thing
it can be easily derived

You shouldn't do math honestly
...
what part of necessary condition doesnt make sense?
what are you intending to say by "necessary condition"
do you know what a "necessary condition" means
You really can't think logically
i think so
zoph, phd in crankery
zoph
i dont care if you give up. thats your choice
A is a necessary condition for B, if B => A
dont drink too much
you should give up to
yep
or neg A => neg B
(or prove an equivalent statement, like notA => notB)
did you actually read the article?
get sniped
yes; did you read the article before it?
yeah i was just referring to the part where it says ' this is a necessary condition' it is not
what does that have to do with anything?
yeah i will, thanks
what do you mean "it is not"
@sacred junco no I'm telling this guy to give up math
because bezouts identity doesnt say that
salty zoph
fuck

no thats not the article
thats from the previous article
like when you're saying "k*gcd(a,b) can be expressed as ax + by is not a necessary condition"
nobody is expecting hand holding. i think you missed the point i was making. its ok.
you're implying that there's a counterexample
so either you phrased your point wrong
or youre fundamentally misunderstanding
what "necessary condition" means
i am "proving ax + by = z has solutions iff z is a multiple of gcd(a,b)" at least thats what is purported to be happening. the author uses N and then changes his mind
the author... doesnt change their mind, N represents the entire set
i meant doesnt use the letter N anymore*
anyways my issue was the statement that i circled.
anyways im not pursuing number theory. dont worry. i cant mind read at this level.
youre gonna be pretty offput by math in general if you cant fill in 1 line of proof
it kind of is

"mind read"
yes, he shall join the field of true intellectuals
Ok I drank too much
foundations
Continuous logic time
what it is just a little bit of thought
Just follow the proof, and it becomes quite obvious
well the article says clearly itsi a necessary condition
he said a typical thing jan would say

where is the link to the previous article
why fuck zoph
anyways, hi sloth
hai
this crank is entertaining
Lmao

Got u good
that he cannot fill in one step of a proof from what I gather
wait the statement is
hegels literally in middle school and understands this
hegel is in highschool
no kindergarden
zoph dont text while drunk
hegel is 12
" there exist solutions x,y,z to ax + by = z iff gcd(a,b) | z "
which is equivalent to saying, z is a multiple of gcd(a,b)

144 I estimate
I suck at comp-math
thunk

if gcd(a,b) | z then there exist solutions to ax + by = z
this is essentially saying Z is a PID
hey i just gave the thing a better reading and like the proof does seem kinda weird tbh
they seem to say "you can express the GCD like this" and then say "question => GCD fact and GCD fact is true so GCD fact => question"
"Let d=gcd(a,b). We show that any integer of the form kd, where k is an integer, can be expressed as ax+b for integers x and y"
this is the necessary condition
@vast dove I'm sure he'll truly see the light as a result of this
ie "the thing that is always true"
wtf why is copy-pasting off brilliant so dumb
again, A is a "necessary condition" for B if B => A
this is why u take screencap
A iff B , the necessary is B โA, correct?
they don't seem to have shown that only integers of the form kd can be expressed
screencap? 
A is a "sufficient condition" for B if A => B
right jelly, this article is full of logical gaps
oh
all the stuff after "so to show that it is sufficient"

gimme a sec
let A = "there exist integral solutions x,y,z to ax+by = z" and B = z is a multiple of gcd(a,b)
reading is hard jan
imagine reading jan
well i am aware of bezout's lemma but their wording makes it seem this way imo

$\begin{tabular}{|c|c|c|}
\hline
$A$ is a necessary condition for $B$ & $B \implies A$ & \
$A$ is a sufficeint condition for $B$ & $A \implies B$ & \
$A$ is an equivalent condition to $B$ & $A \iff B$ & alternatively: $A \implies B$ and $B \implies A$\
\hline
\end{tabular}
i dont think we even proved the statement
Namington:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
no clue where my error is but w/e its readable
you gotta use \
all we showed is that gcd(a,b) divides z, which is obvious by the definition of gcd(a,b)
where did we prove 'if there exist solutions x,y,z " then gcd(a,b) | z " ?
hm
pls,,,
this proof purports to prove both if and only if
missing $?
i feel like i could teach way easier in person
imo they should have maybe changed their wording a bit, d divides every integer of the form ax + by instead of exists x' and y' such that d = ax' + by'
the latter seems like a useless fact
what?
rip my logic

do you agree that
Bezouts identity says the second thing
let A = "there exist integral solutions x,y,z to ax+by = z" and B = " z is a multiple of gcd(a,b)"
That's literally what bezouts identity is
yes
bezouts identity says that gcd(a,b) is an integral linear combination of 'a' and 'b'
i.e. there exist integers x,y such that ax + by = gcd(a,b)
also we can let both a,b, be nonzero
gcd(0,0) is a mindf$ck
yes
some books define gcd(0,0) = 0 others leave it undefined
in the partial ordering of divisibility 0 is greatest
frick convention
because you could leave it as undefined
its not a natural convention like 0! = 1
what is the largest number that divides 0 and 0 , there is no largest integer
n | 0 for any n.
what does this matter pertaining to the current conversation
i meant gcd(0, 0) in the first place
The word "greatest" in "Greatest Common Divisor" does not refer to being largest in the usual ordering of the natural numbers, but to being largest in the partial order of divisibility on the natural numbers, where we consider a to be larger than b only when b divides evenly into a. Most of the time, these two orderings agree whenever the second is defined. However, while, under the usual order, 0 is the smallest natural number, under the divisibility order, 0 is the greatest natural number, because every number divides 0.
-stackexchange
so do we agree that A = "there exist integral solutions x,y,z to ax+by = z" and B = "z is a multiple of gcd(a,b)", and we want to prove A iff B
actually different books define gcd(0,0) differently
anyways, we want to prove A iff B
have we done that?
i like that it isnt sourced from a specific user on stackexchange but just the website as a whole
yes
i dont see the proof
stackexhange is a hivemind
All of stackexchange collaborated on that definition
Accepting it is a prerequisite to making your account
A = "there exist integral solutions x,y,z to ax+by = z" and B = "z is a multiple of gcd(a,b)." We want to prove A iff B. Proof: there exist integral solution x,y,z to ax + by = z. if z is not a multiple of gcd(a,b)... you can do a proof by contradiction
@empty nymph why are you still here
just to suffer
assume there exist integer solutions x,y,z to ax + by = z.
nothing in the way im proving it corresponds to this brilliant.org article
smd noone caught my meme
yes, there are usually multiple ways to prove things
man i already forgot it
and at an elementary level, proofs by contradiction are usually just "rephrasings" of direct proofs
this scroll chat is a mindf###
Stack exchange is a gauntlet
it killed iron man
imagine being killed by a glove
i clicked elementary number theory
this channel is fine, yes
what about the converse. if gcd(a,b) | z , then how does that prove there exist integers x,y such that ax + by = z
how do you edit your pfp
Let n = p1^k1โฆpm^km. I'm trying to show ฯ(n) = n(1-1/p1)โฆ(1-pm). I thought I had a slick proof of this by interpreting ฯ(n)/n as the probability that a randomly chosen integer k between 1 and n is coprime to n, but I realized that this relies on the events "k is not divisible by p" and "k is not divisible by q" being independent. Is this true? Is there an easy way to see that?
I know I can just use multiplicativity but this seemed cooler
ok
I'm not sure those events are multiplicative
Are independent?
Yes that
and of course, xk and yk are integers
Yeah, it seemed suss
completing the proof.
so the new integers are x' = xk, and y' = yk
But the argument that ฯ(n)/n = the probability that a random integer k is coprime to n = (1-1/p1)โฆ(1-1/pm) is so nice :(
and because you can do this for any z, a, b
Guess I'll just be boring about it
so that is the converse i think
yes
wait, we didnt prove the first part, the only if part
A = "there exist integral solutions x,y,z to ax+by = z" and B = "z is a multiple of gcd(a,b)", and we want to prove A iff B. Lets prove A only if B.
is this part trivial?
no we proved that if z is a multiple of gcd(a,b) , there exist
@solemn raft they aren't mutually exclusive but you're in the right track
right, B โA. can we prove A โB
are you getting "if" and "only if" backwards
nope.
wait FUCK
consider what you're doing by multiplying by (1 - 1/p)
no worries
anyway yeah we can show the only if direction
i feel like these "elementary proofs" are like a wall to the more interesting fruits of number theory
yeah...
@sacred junco I'm not sure what you mean? I didn't say that they were mutually exclusive
yoneda, you can think about it as starting with a large list of numbers below n and then filtering out the ones divisible by the factors
Sure
Well, math is usually foundational
You need to know the basics to do the more complex stuff
and there's a straightforward logic to see that the ones you filter out have a nice ratio of the other primes
well you start with the list from 1 to n - 1
Getting proofs right is definitely a wall for many
Divides n?
assume there exist integers x, y, z such that ax + by = z
suppose that z is not a multiple of gcd(a,b); then z / gcd(a,b) is not an integer
but we know gcd(a,b) divides a and b so considder
(ax)/gcd(a,b) + (by)/gcd(a,b) = z/gcd(a,b)
left hand side is all integers, but right hand side is not an integer; contradiction
anyways so exactly n/p1 of the numbers from 1, ..., n - 1 have the common factor of p1 with n
this is the proof id probably think of immediately night
Yeah
so now consider what you're removing when you're "filtering"
ah i was thinking along the same lines, by contradiction
you're removing p1, 2 p1, 3 p1, ..., k p1
Oh, are you saying that if I remove p1's multiples and then p2's, I'll remove the multiples of p1 p2?
where n = k p1
And theres n/(p1 p2) of those?
well by removing multiples of p1 first you're already removing multiples of p1 p2
Right, I'm saying that's what would be overcounted
but the thing is, what you're left with is also divisible by p2
as in
initially from 1 to n-1, 1/p2 of them were divisible by p2
but once you remove the multiples of p1, still 1/p2 of the remaining list is divisible by p2
im still so confused by this article https://brilliant.org/wiki/bezouts-identity/
Ah, now I see
So this is proving independence since we show P(divis by p2|divis by p1) = P(divis by p2)
it's not that obvious to see this, but you can argue using the fact that exactly 1/p2 of p1, 2 p1, 3 p1, ..., k p1 is divisible by p2
for a list of numbers whose size is a multiple of p1 * p2, yes
Okay, I think I can go from here
I mean, I need to argue that as you keep removing stuff this is still true
gl
But it makes sense
I think it's probably easier just to prove multiplicativity and look at what it does to the prime powers
But I'm happy to understand why it works
btw the actual proof involves using a large table of numbers and modular arithmetic
?
instead of a 1D list, they use a 2D grid
Actual proof of what?
I know what residue classes are lol
ah then you should be good ig
My proof that ฯ(nm) = ฯ(n) ฯ(m) is that Aut(GรH) โ Aut(G)รAut(H) when G, H have coprime order
Apply this to Z/nZ and Z/mZ and take orders
lol idk ring theory or whatever that is
reminds me that i gotta read some algebra lol
Algebra is good
indeed
I think thats a good proof
and it scored 0 on mathstackexchange. sad
i gave it a thumbs up or whatever
oh wait I can just use the chinese remainder theorem, lol
Yes
I am very very bad at number theory
hey guys im back
is the professor around
I rewrote the proof to the collorary of Barzini's identity, using set theory.
i would not call this a "set theory proof"
barzini?
any more than any proof of the equality of two sets by a two-way inclusion argument could be described as such
huh?
two-way inclusion arguments are used, like, everywhere
look up the word set theory
i know what set theory is thank you very much
definition of a set , we can start there
don't take me for more ignorant than i already am
Everything uses set theory
thats a stupid critique
The proof on brilliant used set theory
i've seen and used plenty of arguments of the kind you present
just not explicitly
zopherus aha!
i'm not criticizing your proof itself. content-wise, it seems fine.
it kind of led me to that thinking
You don't have to talk about sets to use set theory
jesus christ, the proof is wrong because i said set theory
NO, I DIDN'T SAY YOUR PROOF WAS WRONG.
its pedantic, fair enough
the thing i'm objecting to is your LABELING of the proof as "set-theoretic" as if that somehow makes it special. which it doesn't.
huh?
by that metric basically any proof out there except the most basic ones would be set-theoretic.
that not my intention, why are you trying to mind read me like that
yeah, none of us said your proof was wrong what
i'm not trying to mind-read you.
yes you are
no i'm not.
the thing i'm objecting to is your LABELING of the proof as "set-theoretic" as if that somehow makes it special. which it doesn't.
that was not my intention
i was trying to emphasize that it uses sets. because sets are cool, ok?
sue me
i think they are called sets, let me double check that
...okay, fine, it uses sets because you reframed the proof of an iff statement as the proof that two certain sets are equal.
yes they're called sets.
i didnt say the proof is special at all, how do you get that
it came across as such.
ok hmm
i was just making everything explicit, as opposed to hidden 'you should know this by now' statements. i know you math people love those.
-.-
there are many number theoretic proofs that can be recast as set proofs
i mean... ok but maybe don't be as condescending
anything can be recast as a set proof. it depends on the target audience whether or not that's necessary.
i dont know about that. i think that statement is a bit extreme
an "if this then that" proof can be recast as "this set is a subset of that set"
if one so desires
but like you said it depends on your audience. i mean sometimes using sets would be more natural
or maybe easier to follow (shock, gasp)
i guess im in the dumb audience
i wrote that proof because this proof is driving me crazy
im trying to match this proof with the proof i wrote, which is clearer
mine's lengthier , i know
so the first sentence is saying ( B \subseteq A )
theres really nothing wrong with that proof? the "necessary condition part" is p obvious i think, and if someone doesnt see it immediately, they can always work it out themselves. authors dont need to feel in every little details
infact i will go ahead and say its better if they dont
so that readers can learn by filling in the details
i know, that leads to frustration for stupid people like me
some readers will give up though
its true some can learn by filling in details, but others wont. its tricky decision
its not like he is skipping a difficult step
ideally you dont want students to give up
like, obv since $d|a$ and $d|b$, then $d|ax+by=N$
JohnDoeSmith:
and the statement is given, i think almost everyone would be able to figure this out after some time to think
yeah but thats not what he said
that is what he said
yes he said that it is a necessary condition
i.e $N=ax+by\implies d|N$
JohnDoeSmith:
...
sometimes seems off , idk
not really , uh oh here we go again
if you read this sentence carefully he says 'this condition' which is
any integer of the form kd
so when we say A is a nessacary condition for B, we mean that $B \implies A$
when we say A is sufficient for B, then $B\implies A$
if its both, then its $A\iff B$
JohnDoeSmith:
thats a necessary condition for ax + by. then he said this condition is sufficient.
ok
ah this english
wait
he said the necessary part is obvious and didnt include it
he proved the sufficient part
can you write out the necessary condition, sorry
with bezouts
what was the sufficient part , lets label the parts
ok so $d|N$ is $A$ lets say, and $N=ax+by$ for some x,y is $B$
A = " z = ax + by for some integers x,y " and B =" z= kd , where d = gcd(a,b) "
ok so when he says necessary, he means B is necessary for A to be true, i.e $A\implies B$
JohnDoeSmith:
also think about what the word necessary means
if B is necessary for A, that means if B were false A couldnt happen right
right
you should recognize this as the contrapositive of A implies B
ok but the author says "this condition is a necessary condition" , so i got confused which condition
i mean that is fair, but theres only 2 ways it could go
so its not too hard to figure out which way he meant
"Let d=gcdโก(a,b). We show that any integer of the form kd, where k is an integer, can be expressed as ax+by for integers x and y. We already know that this condition is a necessary condition"
right there are only two ways, i agree
also the placement of the parentheses is misleading
i mean these are nitpicky at the end of the day, everyone has a different writing style and different styles they read better
like i personally like explicitly labelling left and right implications
at the end of the day you need to learn to be comfortable with all the common styles
cause you will encounter a whole lot more of these
yes
ok i think the brilliant.org writer is saying z = kd is a necessary condition for z = ax + by
mhm
then z = kd is a sufficient condition for z = ax + by
yep
All this discussion over bezoutโs identity... ._.
barzini's identity
Is it ok to define gcd(0,0) = 0, for the edge case ax + by = c when a=b=c=0. Then it is still true that c = k*gcd(a,b) since k * 0 = 0.
c is still a multiple of gcd(a,b)
I think this is about more than Bรฉzout's identity... It's about how to write good mathematics
And how it should be interpreted
Yes, similarly, gcd(0,n)=n for all natural numbers, extending to zero
gcd(a,b) is the unique nonnegative generator of the ideal generated by a and b in Z

assuming Z is pid
What have you tried
No
$\lfloor mx\rfloor\ne m\lfloor x\rfloor$ in general
Rijinaru:
so uh?
idk, looks like someone took a binomial expansion, fiddled around with it to arrange it into some kind of inequality, then they took the floor of it to make this seemingly random thing and now you just have to pray extra hard to guess the same stuff to try to undo the magic backdoor good luck
Yeah this seems like a comp math style question
Handle 2,3,4 individually. If n isnโt prime, then itโs enough to show that v_2((n-1)!)>v_2(n(n+1)) . In this case, itโs clear that only one of n,n+1 is even and that for n>4, 2(ceiling(n/2)|(n-1)! with even quotient because ceiling(n/2) is odd for n=5,6 and because there are at least three evens in (n-1)! for n>6 when multiplied out, including 2 and ceiling(n/2) (if it happens to be even).
It suffices to show the result for odd primes. Using Wilsonโs Theorem and CRT, one gets (n-1)!=-n-1 mod n(n+1). Then itโs enough to show that ((n-1)!+n+1)/(n(n+1)) is odd. But since n>4, the first result and the parity of n imply v_2((n-1)!+n+1)=v_2(n+1)=
v_2(n(n+1)), showing that the integer is odd.
would induction work somehow btw?
try it, see how far you can get
Does anyone else hate it when the professor says "It's easy to see that..." and "from here, solution is trivial" etc? ๐
it ain't easy to see! show us! t_t
Trying to work out the "missing" step can often be pretty illuminating
and also, it usually is pretty simple; if you need help, just ask later, or a friend
Quote " Does anyone else hate it when the professor says 'its easy to see that' " yes thats my pet peeve. Sometimes its obvious, sometimes it takes a bit of work to 'see that'. Also the teacher may derive the 'obvious step' in a different way than you did, whilst you took a circuitous route.
I love to hate it so good
I think math gives enjoyment to people who enjoy problem solving. Though i would qualify that "enjoying problem solving" is a necessary but not sufficient condition to enjoy math. There are people who enjoy solving crossword problems or chess puzzles and yet don't enjoy math much.
why did you edit the message I replied to? cringe
not an epic gamer moment
How can you be sure that you have found the correct gcd, without using Euclid's algorithm.
Using just the definition of gcd. For example I claim that gcd(18,24) = 6 , and I want to show this is true using only the definition of gcd.
It is true that 6|18 and 6 |24 . Then the definition says, if there is another common divisor of 18 and 24, then it will divide 6.
No. I get what youโre trying to say, but it isnโt true the way you word it 2 | 8 and 2 | 12, but gcd(8,12)=4 and 4 does not divide 2
how do i solve 11x^2 congruent modulo 13 to 7
Actually, this wonโt work, my bad
There's really no better method here than just guessing and checking
yea i can use my computer (maple) for the guessing and checking part
but first i gotta get it to the form x^2 = some number b
I mean, you can do it by hand, there are only 13 possibilities
Ah, so you're meant to do it in maple
yup
So what you're looking for is a number n so that 11n = 1 (mod 13)
since then you can multiply both sides by n to reduce down the equation like you want
hang on im thinking
how does multiplying both sides by n 'reduce down' the equation though
like, u'd get 11n^2 = n (mod 13)
that'd get me (11n) x^2 = 7 n (mod 13)
i still dont see how its gotten to the form x^2 = a
n is s.t. 11 n = 1 mod 13
so what happens to the equation
ya i think i know what ur saying
(11n) x^2 = 7 n (mod 13)
would become x^2 = 7n (mod 13) ?
what law is that?
don't think there's really a name for it
just that mod is a nice operation with respect to multiplication
if a = b (mod p) and c = d (mod p), then ac = bd (mod p)
how are you using that law? what is the a,b,c,d in this case?
Think about it for a bit, see if you can spot it
hmm..
It's not super obvious
Focus just on the left hand side though
What you're trying to show is that (11n) x^2 = x^2 (mod 13)
yea so i can start with 11n = 1, multiply both sides by x^2 to get (11n) x^2 = x^2
thats a different law tho (multiplication by scalar)
yea and because congruency is transitive it proves that (11n) x^2 = 7n (mod 13) => x^2 = 7n (mod 13)
cool, thanks so much!
That's basically what happening here yeah
i need to write a single congruence that encapsulates the following 2
x = 3 mod 7 and x = 3 mod 5
i wrote x = 3 mod 35, is that correct?
yes
im writing out numbers and coming up with it @light flicker , is there a general way to do it?
This is called the Chinese Remainder Theorem
oh okay thanks, ill look into it
chinese remainder theorem seems to give the remainder
it doesn't tell us under what mod
actually it does, i looked up bad resource
Do you mean getting 35 from 5 and 7?
depends
The chinese remainder theorem does tell you this
It'll be the product if all of the things you started with are pairwise coprime
got it
for x is odd and x is divisible by 7 its trivially 7x=1 mod 2 right?
just trying to verify that my solution is correct
so x=7 mod 2?
why wouldnt 7x=1 mod 2 work
it says the left side is divisible by 7 and its odd since its 1 mod 2
what do you mean why wouldnt it work
x=7 mod 14
is the answer right
hmm
i think i got it, thanks @light flicker
i skipped CRT in my book
ill read it up, but really the easiest way i found to solve these problems is
by listing first few numbers
in this case it is
7 21 35 49 63 77 91
and then it is easy to see that we are doing x = 7 mod 14
every number is incremented by 14 and it starts by 7
i think CRT might be tangent to this
I mean, this is exactly the problem that CRT allows you to solve
Doing your method isn't really viable if you are trying to combine four or more equations
or if the numbers are big
yeah just gotta do the readings
we didnt go through it in lectures
by the way whats the difference between elementary number theory and advanced number theory here?
aside the obvious lol
from what point does it stop being elementary and starts being advanced?
I mean, its not a super clear line
Maybe what I'd say is that
When you start using higher math ideas like analysis or algebra to do number theory, it becomes advanced number theory
actually it becomes advanced when it stops being intermediate
How is 2^(-1) = (p + 1)/2 (mod p) where p is a prime number
multiply both sides by 2
I can only get 2^(-1) = 2^(p - 2) (mod p) using Fermat's little theorem
thanks ๐
got it
uh so im having some trouble proving a corollary that theres an infinite number of primes that are in the form 3q+2, q in Z
im not sure where to go after i get 6k+5, k in N
ive tried using gcd(6k, 5)=1 but not really sure
i feel like im missing smth obv
the one with assuming a largest p, then show contradiction with p|1?
The one with p1*...pn+1 asduming largest prime
Yeah. But tweak it ofc
alright, thx
when do we use divison algorithm?
when you wanna divide
Can someone help me solve the following proof?
If a divides bc, then a divides c so long as gcd(a,b)=1
What have you tried
Iโm gonna be honest, the only things I know from the given information is that a times an integer x = bc and a times an integer y =c and that a and b are relatively prime
Kinda struggling in this number theory class. The prof thinks weโve taken Real Analysis so rip
Since gcd(a,b) = 1 , Bezout's theorem guarantees the existence of integers x,y such that ax + by = 1
Multiply through by c. acx + bcy = c. Since a | acx and a | bcy , then a divides their sum. Thus a | acd + bcy , which implies a | c.
Oh, okay, I was going through my notes and found something about Bezoutโs Identity
nice ;o
States that ax+by=gcd(a,b) is an instance of his identity
Can I use this all the time or only when a and b are relatively prime
You can use that all the time, there always exist integer solutions
to the equation ax + by =c when c is a multiple of gcd(a,b) .
More explicitly, given integers a,b not both zero,
the equation ax + by = k*gcd(a,b) always has an integer solution x,y for any integer k.
In particular we can use this with k=1 and gcd(a,b) = 1.
a,b don't necessarily have to be prime, only in the case the right side is equal to 1.
But if you are given gcd(a,b) = 1, then you can go backwards and say there exists integers x,y to the equation ax + by = 1.
Sure.
Prove that gcd(a,a+2)=1 if a is odd and gcd(a,a+2)=2 if a is even.
In the first case, gcd(2n+1,2n+3)=1
Is there a way to apply Bezoutโs theorem again?
Or is this something else?
Just use some properties of gcd
Not sure which ones
If gcd(a,b)=d, then d is the largest number such that d divides a and d divides b
gcd(a, b) = gcd(a , b - a)
Could I use the one I stated above to prove the second case?
That's just the definition
That's not any property
I mean, you can, but you'll basically end up using the property I stated
Cause in case 2 I could say let a=2n, so if a/d=2n/2, then d divides a?
Iโm not even sure what Iโm saying lmao
yeah that doesn't make sense
How could I use the property you listed to prove it?
Try it
Ok, Iโll try it
Like this?
Probably should have said gcd(a,a+2) in the last line, my bad
It would probably have been useful if my professor actually taught us this property :/
I didnโt know this existed
That's how proofs work?
You can't just use something if you don't know if its true or not
Well how do I prove it?
Use the definition of gcd
Is it because of the division algorithm?
That's one way to do it
So I need to establish a>b and then apply the division algorithm to a and b?
Or actually in this case, b>a*
Either way, I mean gcd(a,b) = gcd(b,a)
so it doesn't really matter which one is bigger
Could I also say that since d divides a and d divides b, then d divides their sum and their difference?
And that because of that, gcd(a,b)=gcd(a,b-a)?
? @light flicker
Can anyone answer this?^
Just need confirmation so I can write the proof correctly.
Why must d divide the sum or difference?
Isnโt that the definition according to the Euclidean algorithm?
you dont really need euclidean algorithim to prove this
well u really dont
cause this is the euclidean algo lol
but basically proof the following:
well just show that gcd(a,b) is the biggest common divisor of a,b-a
||try showing bigger factor will lead to contradiction||
I understand most of what is on my homework conceptually, but we have not covered proofs or anything. Are there ways of going about this aside from formal proofs?
you can draw a venn diagram with A and B to see their intersection informally
I'd probably draw the right thing on top of it in a different color maybe
at least this makes it kind of obvious the section is A when you take the union of A with A intersect B
Yeah. I am mainly just unsure of what is really expected of me, which I know you can't definitively know. But thank you.
I'm not in your class I can't answer that, but it can't hurt to do a little doodle like this as a sanity check or help you plan out your more formal proof
Yeah, I have been losing my mind over these. Not because I don't understand it, like I knew that A U (A n B) = A, but the venn diagrams do not feel adequate and we have no covered proofs. I don't know. Thanks again.
no covered proofs? hmm well good luck, you're welcome
have not*
If gcd(a,b)=d and k>0 is an integer, prove a formula for gcd(ka,kb).
In this problem, would scaling the gcd of a and b result in scaling d?
As in, gcd(ka,kb)=kd?
prove it
How can I prove it?
Writing the gcd as a linear combination and scaling it?
So using Bezoutโs identity and then scaling it is proof of gcd(a,b)=d being scalable
Not really
I have no idea what to do then
Yes, the distributive property can be proved by Bezout @limber charm
d = na + zb for n, z in Z <=> dx | ax, bx and so dx = nax + zbx <=> dx = gcd(bx, ax)
Hi, so im not one of those calculus 3 person (in fact im a high school student), but this have been going through my mind lately. So the inverse operation of addition is subtraction and the derivative is a integral, vice versa. So I have two questions. 1. whats the inverse of modulo? and 2. can I solve this algebraically?
assume "??" is a variable like x
That sounds like a nonsense question
i think he's trying to say modular multiplicative inverse
Gtfo
yes, but how would I solve it algebraically?

@formal carbon doesnt belong in this channel, you can use one of the questions channels or #prealg-and-algebra
@river socket so when you try to find the multiplicative inverse of something, theres a few steps
What do you mean algebraically?
let's say you're trying to find the inverse, x, of a such that ax = 1 (mod m). Then the inverse exists iff gcd(a,m)=1. if it does exist, then you can find x using the euclidean algorithm
Oh right
yeah specifically you want to solve the linear diophantine equation ax - my = 1
gcd(a,m) = 1 => xa +ym = =1 for some integers x, y.
Then mod m, we get xa =1
You can actually apply the Euclidean Algorithm, as @stuck lintel said, to find what x and y are
@stuck lintel wait till i pull out my calculus worksheet
Apart from having an inverse, is there a property that elements in a finite field have that zero does not have?
MB like an equation that holds for all elements except zero
i mean not anything really useful but like
if the order of the field is q
then $x^{q-1}=1$ for all non zero element
JohnDoeSmith:
if you really want an eqn not for zero lol
Is this FLT ?
this is lagrange
btw finite fields usually write $x^q=x$
JohnDoeSmith:
cause all elements including 0 satisfy it
Interesting property
5xโก18 (mod 63),7xโก5 (mod 8)
how can i solve these two congruences into one with chinese remainder theorem?
i cant reduce the first equation by finding inverse
because inverse 5 mod 63 doesnt exist
therefore i cant bring these two in the standard form to apply chinese remainder theorem
Yes it does exist
i pasted wrong
it should have been
15xโก18 (mod 63),7xโก5 (mod 8)
inverse 15 mod 63 doesnt exist
their gcd is 3
I mean, just divide that first equation by 3
I.e. 15x = 18 (mod 63) if and only if 5x = 6 (mod 21)
Np
You should confirm what I said is actually true
And probably prove the general idea
๐ก
for tonights last problem i need to prove that theres no m that makes Phi(m)=14
ive tried doing this algebraically
disproving m*Prod(1-1/p) = 14
this doesn't really simplify it though
i've also had an idea to break it up in two using multiplicativity Phi(a)Phi(b)=2*7
id appreciate a hint in right direction, spent an hour thinking about it to no avail
I think you could also say that theres no such m that makes Phi(m)=7
multiplicativity means that you can pretty easily see the smallest value it will take
Well then, isn't it practically proved?
for a given prime
There is no m for Phi(m) = 7
how do you know that?
Wait wasn't it you who said so
But ye, 7 is prime and 7+1 = 8.. so
It's not gonna be in region of phi
i suggested but i wasnt surei
im not sure how to go about proving no m satisfies phi(m)=7
where does 7+1 come from in your argument?
you're over thinking it
once you know that for a prime p it's at least p-1 then you don't have to check primes that are very large, then brute force check
You can't at least decompose 7 further right
yeah 7 cant be decomposed further
Phi(p^k) = p^(k-1) * (p-1)
There is no such prime p and number k here
Which should be obvious after some try
its p^k-p^(k-1) right
Phi(p^k) = p^k-p^(k-1)
yea thats what you wrote
damn its still not clicking to me
well theres none, only 1 and 7
i see why theres no such p and k that satisfy that
but i miss the transitioning step to that
i also know that Phi(p^k) = p^(k-1) * (p-1)
Transitioning step? Wdym
but why is the next step writing 7 = p^(k-1) * (p-1)
Well you wanted to know if there is m satisfying phi(m) = 7
yea and how do we know if
Since 7 is prime it can't be further decomposed
If m = ab where a and b are coprime
Phi(m) = Phi(a) Phi(b)
So such a and b couldn't exist
Oh
Yeah ik Euler totient
And there's no a > 2 s.t. Phi(a) = 1
Well, a = 1 doesn't make sense since that means m = b, you get this?
i think i got it
Yep, m is factored
yea totally
absolutely
i get this
but
what were you saying initially
with Phi(p^k) = p^(k-1) * (p-1)?
i understand this argument
So, when Phi(m) = 7, m can't be factorized into two coprime numbers
Now let's say more than two primes divide m
Considering prime factorizarion of m, (p^k) and (m/p^k) is coprime
It's about prime factorization
Actually this is one of the important theorems in number theory, but I don't recall the fundamental proof for this
its okay, thank you, i got through it
yep
so trivially there exist no n such that phi(n)=7
What are you allowed to assume
Maybe up to prime factorization thm
If you get to assume that phi is multiplicative and how phi behaves for prime power arguments then its pretty clear
But probably the easiest way is just to look at the size of the multiplicative group of Z/nZ
$\varphi(p^{k+1})=p^k(p-1)$ is pretty trivially even
Pappa:
what do you mean?
Just let $n=mp^k$ where $(m, k) =1$, p is some prime, and now $\varphi(n) =\varphi(m)\varphi(p^k)$ which is clearly even
Pappa:
when n isnt 2
How do you know existence of such m
..oh god why I didn't get this immediately
Actually I guess I was thinking of n = 1
.>
why is it asking to prove p exactly divides m and n, isnt the proof the same? like is it only relevant for part c?
I mean, you're not doing each part separately
You need to find m,n so that all three parts are satisfied at the same time
oh wait, yeah i read that wrong my b
uh so im having a bit of trouble
proving it directly, would contradiction be better in this case, since i cant get a relation ship between all thrree
no you can explicitly just write down m,n
yes, i did that and their ppfs, and establish wlog p = q_1 ^x1 = q_1 ^y1