#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 53 of 1
k
@craggy solstice Can you please help ?
n(1-1/p1)(1-1/p2)..........(1-1/on) ?
yes
Yea sorry
you could rewrite it as
$$\varphi(n) = n \cdot \left(\frac{p_1 - 1}{p_1}\right) \cdots \left(\frac{p_k - 1}{p_k}\right)$$
EvilRobotOverlord:
now notice
when p1 is 2
you have 1/2 in that bracket
if it's any prime other than 2, you have an even number in the numerator
so well you can consider the case when n has a prime factor other than 2
phi(n) has to be a prime raised to 2016
okay so let's say that the prime p isn't 2
let's say it's some prime m. notice that if you want no prime other than m in phi(n), that means the power of every prime other than m in n is at most 1
does this make sense to you?
Yes
okay good
now if you examine this closely, you see that each term over there has an even numerator (unless the prime is 2)
since we assumed that the prime p isn't 2, that means all those 2s have to cancel off
somehow
but there can be at most 1 two in the denominator
right?
Yes . So by contradiction , there's only one solution
yeah
the 2 in the denominator occurs only when 2 is a factor of n
and if it is a factor of n, it has to get cancelled off from n in that expression
the single 2 in the denominator can't cancel off both the 2 in the n and the 2s in the other primes
So we can have only 2 as a prime .
yup
yes
@sacred junco thanks dude
np
@cobalt sparrow do you know the formula for the phi function
nvm he already explained
mb
Is this true
All common multiples of a, b are of the form $k \cdot lcm(a, b); k \in \mathbb{Z}$
ratsella:
What do you think?
What have you tried
I tried a proof by contradiction
I said
Let $\ell = lcm(a, b)$. Let there be $\lambda = as = bt$ and $\lambda \nmid lcm(a, b)$. Then for some $\omega \in \mathbb{Z}$, $\omega \ell < \lambda < (\omega + 1) \ell$
ratsella:
But when I plugged back in $\lambda = as$
ratsella:
It seems like such an s exists
I guess i could try using $\ell = ak_1$ for the lower bound and $\ell = bk_2$ for the upper bound
ratsella:
Yeah I don't think contradiction is the best way here
Just doing it directly should work
there is an alternative way to do it by contradictino
suppose that not all common multiples of a,b are of the form k * lcm(a, b)
then for some consecutive integers i, i+1, there must exist i * lcm(a, b)< j *a * b < (i+1)*lcm(a, b)
@open cliff thats how i would do it by contradiction
@light flicker actually doing it by contradiction this way is kinda a 2 line proof
what's the rest of the proof
@light flicker oh right you just subtract i* lcm(ab) from all 3 sides to get 0< jab - i lcm(a, b)<lcm(a, b)
this implies that there exists some k which is a multiple of ab such that 0<k< lcm(a, b)
contradiction
why did he substitute m*k for m' (m prime) here
The line above says m' = mk
oops
anyone here?

32/5 is not a valid number mod 29
Because you don't know that 5b equal 32
Sure
Still makes no sense
You're still not seeing what's wrong with going from the fourth line to the fifth
Because you don't know why it's wrong
No, you can figure it out
Think carefully
Depends what you mean by not unique
You should probably understand what it means for two numbers to be equal mod 29
Kind of
@light flicker @supple furnace remember that problem about quadratics with rational roots we were talking about? found another solution
Yes, this is very similar to the construction I gave before
I worry that tree3 judges everything I say in here
But do you guys know anything at all about complex analysis
Or just complex contour integrals
@light flicker I came here to hear the rambling,and maybe to ask questions about the ramblings
same
okay how much do you know about complex contour integrals
I mean, I know sto knows
only residue theorem
Okay so
Why is Zeta function important
Or at least, why is zeta function so important in number theory
The first, kinda dumb answer you get
Is the Euler product
tell us what is the zeta function in your own words first
i dont even know what the zeta function actually is 
something something extend dirichlet series?
Zopherus:
i mean u just extend by func eqn for Re<0 , and use the alterneting for betweer 0 and 1
k
yes i have see that
$\sum_{n = 1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^s} = \prod_{p\ prime} \frac{1}{1 - p^{-s}}$
nice
pp
Zopherus:
-pp
And this formula isn't really too hard to verify
Just by using the fundamental theorem of arithmetic
should we clap now
No I'm not even close to done
Anyways, the euler product isn't super useful
And it doesn't really show at all why we care about the zeroes of the Zeta function
Like why is the Riemann hypothesis so important
And one answer is that
So the prime number theorem says that
if $\pi(x) = #$ of primes less than x
Zopherus:
just say prime counting function

$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{\pi(x)}{\left(\frac{x}{\ln(x)}\right)} = 1$
@sacred junco let the mans speak
it means the real part i think
its real part
Okay
its like .2 away from 96
let him speak
this isnt chill
So
i got a 102 on the first test
Uh
it was b a d
Can I talk about the zeta function
idk can u
Okay
now show me zeta zoph
i loveo u ll
Anyways the point is that
loveo u ll
Zopherus:
prime counting function
The prime number theorem says that $\pi(x) \approx \frac{x}{\ln(x)}$
where does the zets fkition come in that limit
Zopherus:
But doesn't say anything about the error
of primes less than x
number of primes less than equal x
cus pi is acool number
less than equals
E.g., can we bound the difference $\pi(x) - \frac{x}{\ln(x)}$ by some function of x
Zopherus:
cause it's greek letter p and p is first letter of prime @sacred junco
E.g., can we say that $\pi(x) - \frac{x}{\ln(x)} = O(1/x)$ or something
@sacred junco hes getting to that silly
Zopherus:
@sacred junco quiet
wot is big O
@empty nymph asymptotically like
whut
zoph is dead
I'm here
same thing
whats with the side convos
The von Margoldt function
yep
how do I spell this
$\Lambda(n)$
JohnDoeSmith:
Wolfram Alpha doesn't understand your query!
Perhaps try rephrasing your question?
Display results online and refine query
$\Lambda(n) = \log p$ if $n = p^k$ for some integer $k$, and $0$ otherwise
Zopherus:
In mathematics, the von Mangoldt function is an arithmetic function named after German mathematician Hans von Mangoldt. It is an example of an important arithmetic function that is neither multiplicative nor additive.
p is prime sorry
prime+
FFFF
smh its nt
Anyways
p means prime
So if you consider
e
its natural log
doesnt matter
Zopherus:
archsys stfu already
umm deravitive of prime zeta right?
okay let me check some facts
actually no nvm im dumb
Oh yeah sorry
$\sum_{n = 1}^\infty \frac{\Lambda(n)}{n^s} = - \frac{\zeta'(s)}{\zeta(s)}$
two $ at the start
Oh yeah whoops, anyways you hve this
Zopherus:
yep
so $\frac{\zeta'(s)}{\zeta(s)}$ bounds the error?
hegel:
Okay, well equivalently, the prime number theorem says that
that seems kinda odd tho cause then dont the zeroes of the zeta function cause ur error to blow up?
$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{\sum_{n \leq x} \Lambda(n)}{x} = 1$
hmm
Zopherus:
my latex skills are trolling me today
Here, the idea is that we can use something called Perron's formula
And the statement is going to say that
what kind of problems can the zeta function help us solve ?
binding the error for number of primes
if thats true then
$\sum_{n = 1}^\infty \Lambda(n) = -\frac{1}{2\pi i} \int_{\sigma -iT}^{\sigma+iT} \frac{\zeta'(s)}{\zeta(s)} \cdot \frac{x^s}{s} ds + O(\frac{x\log^2(x)}{T})$
wat
with $\sigma, T \in \mathbb{R}$, $\sigma > 1$
Zopherus:
whats x
Zopherus:
oh ok
Sorry, $\sigma =1 + 1/\log(x)$
Zopherus:
so the integral representation works for each sigma?
ya
ok am i missing something
the difference is then 1/x
ok that makes more sense
We have a complex integral now that we want to bound
And so we can use residue theorem
But we want to avoid the zeroes of the Zeta function
Since otherwise we'd pick up those residues and our estimate would be off
ya
But of course, we don't know where the zeroes of the Zeta function are
So we can't shift our contour too far to the left
There are some zero free regions that we do know
And this allows us to get bounds such as
$\pi(x) = \frac{x}{\log x} + O\left(\frac{x}{\log^2 x}\right)$
Zopherus:
But knowing that the Riemann hypothesis is true would allow us to have bounds such as
No sorry I'm looking it up, forgot what exactly it was
hahaha
I think it's just $O(\sqrt{x})$
Zopherus:
rip
Yeah I don't remember it
The point is that the Riemann hypothesis allows us to get a better bound because of contour integrals
probably
And how we can shift them
I would like to see this solve a permutable prime problem
Uh what?
A permutable prime is a number which remains prime on every rearrangement (permutation) of the digits. For example, 337 is a permutable because each of 337, 373 and 733 are prime.
Uh okay?
it seems like a good way to put the zeta function into a practical example
I mean
- I doubt the zeta function can be used for that
- people don't really care about those types of problems
Problems that depend on something arbitrary, in this case, the choice of the base 10 representation of the number, aren't really super deep
And also, I don't think the prime number theorem is really not-practical
It tells you how many primes there are less than some number, or in another way
It tells you approximately what the nth prime is
How do I compute phi(phi(n^n)) where n isn't a prime ?
phi is multiplicative, so you break it up into the powers of primes and evaluate those and multiply the results
I don't think there's some nice formula
It’s quite messy in general, however
phi(n^n)=n^(n-1)phi(n) is the best trick I can think of here, and it doesn’t really help
The problem is to phi(phi(2019^2019))
you should have just asked that
Can you explain how you came to that ? I am studying from Burton I don't see it anywhere neither could I think of it :/
Think about the formula for phi(k)/k
understand that, that's all it is
p is prime a is an exponent
phi(k)/k=prod p|k (1-1/p), so phi(n^n)/n^n=phi(n)/n
@supple furnace no I didn't know of this
You’ve never seen the formula for phi in terms of prime factorization?
Can you recommend me a good book to understand elementary number theory ? I am using Burton , and I am lost .
@supple furnace I have seen the phi(n)=prod {k=1 to n }n(1-1/pk)
That’s all I’m using above
phi(phi(2019^2019))=
phi(2019^2018(1344))=
phi(3^2019)phi(2^6)phi(7)
phi(673^2018)=(2)(3^2018)(2^5)(6)(673^2017)(2^5)(3)(7)=(2^12)(3^2020)(7)(673^2017).
@cobalt sparrow there are quite a lot of good number theory online books online for Olympiads
Most range to a pretty complex level
Problems from elementary number theory is quite a good run through
By serpinski ? @silent lantern
@cobalt sparrow the number theory section
Most of them can be found online in some form
@silent lantern thanks man
]
how do we know this
where p is a prime number
and a is a natural number
sorry it should say p^a
Need more context
The full sentence should be
There are p^(a-1) multiples of p less than or equal to p^a
Since that's what you're concerned with when you're trying to calculate phi(n)
@astral fiber
okay but how do we know that
Think about it
You can figure it out
Substitute some actual numbers
How many multiples of 2 are there less than or equal to 2^5
examples don’t constitute proof but it’s worth trying a few to see what works/what doesn’t.
@astral fiber right i think u're overcomplicating things
consider an integer 100, how many multiples of 10 are there ≤ 100
just 10
for the same reason, given an integer n= ab, how many multiples of b are ≤n
it would be a multiples
@light flicker
How to factor x^2 + x + 2 in Z5[x]
Check for zeroes, you only have 5 options
Not factorable
then x^2 - 4x + 12 is also the same?
which is (x-6)(x+2) , but apparently not, and so i am confused
@swift shard am i stupid or like what is wrong ;-:
No it's not? Check your factoring
waitttttttttttttttttt im actually dumb
Either way I don't doubt you could actually get a factorable polynomial this way
But like you said, there's no zeroes so the polynomial is irreducible over Z5[x]
For any 13 integers, there are seven of them that sum up to a multiple of 7
My friend gave me this, haven't thought about it much
i think mod 91 and some pigeonhole is th best way
Anyone know anything about Mobius inversion theorem
Yes
@light flicker the above problem is a special case of Erdos Ginzburg Ziv
Yeah, my friends told me about Cauchy Davenport after they gave me this question
god bless
been trying to wrap my head around how to do this question
any hints on how to approach
I've tried expanding the f(x) summation and also tried apply the mobius inversion theorem to g(x) but couldnt get too far both times
<@&286206848099549185> pls halp thank u!
now that i look closer i dont think i can apply the mobius inversion theorem
since the sum is from 1 to x and not over the divisors of x
Prove that if 2xy+y^2-1|x^2 then 2x|y^2-1
@rugged loom When we sum up the gs, we’re effectively summing up terms in the form f(x/(ab)). Now add in the Mobius function. Fixing ab=n, we see that mobius(a)f(x/n) appears iff a|n, and the term associated with the sum of f(x/n) terms is f(x/n)(sum a|n mobius(a)). These terms evaluate to, by Mobius inversion for example, f(x/n)e(n), which is 0 unless n=1. Hence we get just f(x).
thanks
Nothing important. Quick a quick theorem for thought:
Show for each odd n > 2, there are infinitely many relatively prime integers a,b,c > 2 where a^2 + b^n = c^2.
Enjoy!
Just* a quick theorem ...
^can just solve it directly
It can be solved with some very low level tools / thoughts if that is what you mean?
just factorise
b^n=(c+a)(c-a)
so c+a=b^j and c-a=b^ n-j
and that is a generating algorithm
for infinite sets
im assuming j>n-j here
in other words, pick n, fix b (get some a and c)
fix another b, get corresponding a and c
Ah. I had ... Let b be any odd > 2 as also is b^n. Every odd is a difference of consecutive squares so. c^2 - a^2 suffices.
hmm fair enough
There are many proofs I'm guessing.
probably
whenever i see perfect power = difference of powers, i always jump to factorisation
(excluding fermat's last theorem) but yes
it's been an honor to provide a bit of mathy entertainment but it's 5am here. I must go. Thanks, @silent lantern
@sacred junco I attempted that problem with someone else, and he came up with the proof. I can send it to you if you want.
@proud drift Why is y^2-1=2xk
You begin with the statement that its 2xl
Afterwards it changes into 2xk
You can ignore 2xl. That was part of my first attempt
Ahh so why is it equal to 2xk?
Y^2-1=2xk because that is the way one would rewrite 2x|y^2-1
k in this case is some integer
Yeah
But it isn't the same k
(y^2-1+2xy)k=x^2
and k2x=y^2-1 are not equivalent
You cannot have such a statement
At the very least it's wrong
@sacred junco Are the x and y integers? I forgot to ask this.
Okay. I will take some time to figure it out this week, and I will ping you if I think I have a solution.
@sacred junco
continuing from #math-discussion, i have next to no idea what i'm doing when it comes to the euclidean algorithm
my lecturers have been really unhelpful
Well, what do you understand and what are you confused about
I kinda understand what it's trying to accomplish
I have no idea how to apply it
The thing I'm currently trying to do is find the modular inverse of a number
apparently I have to use the euclidean algorithm for that
Well okay, explain to me what it's trying to accomplish
Finding the greatest common divisor of two numbers?
Can't say I've heard of it
It basically says that
if you take two integers a,b
then you can find two other integers x,y such that ax + by = gcd(a,b)
Like take a = 8 and b = 18
then gcd(8,18) = 2
and so the lemma tells us that we can find integers x and y so that
8x + 18y = 2
yeah, and you use the algorithm to solve that equation?
Right
This statement, bezout's lemma
Just tells us that x,y exist, but don't tell us actually how to get them
we get them through the use of the euclidean algorithm
right
so how would I use that to solve an equation? when i see someone do it it just feels like they pull numbers out of nowhere
I mean, first understand how the euclidean algorithm works
Then try to think about how you could get these coefficients x,y out of the algorithm
@unkempt nova ok quick refresher: what is the condition for a multiplicative inverse to exist
|| a has a modular inverse mod m, IFF gcd(a, m)=1||
in the context of a modulus?
yes
that there's a number a^-1 such that a*a^-1 = 1?
thats the definition of a multiplicative inverse
yes
question, does 2 have a multiplicative inverse mod 10
no right?
does 7 have a multiplicative inverse mod 10?
hint (7*3=21=1 mod 10)
exactly
so integer a has a mulitplicative inverse mod m IFF gcd(a, m)=1
Yeah idk this explanation is bad. Giving no motivation for why that fact is true is
kinda
yeah well im tryna get to the final answer lOL
Then, think about what this means regarding bezout's lemma, in this case: gcd(a, m)=1, so by bezout's lemma, there exists ax + my=1
since my=0 mod (m), so ax=1 (mod m)
I mean, you have all the time in the world, there's no rush
okay, so I want to solve ax+my=1 using the algorithm?
yes
now the big question is
what the HECK am i doing
so what do you think the euclidean algorithm is
/ do you have any examples you could work off?
an algorithm for solving that equation?
not really
all I really have on hand is this affine cipher exercise i gotta do
ok
So you want some numbers x,y such that
5x + 26y = 1
Very nice, Lacer has it in no time
i think that may have been more confusing to say
i am so confused, i'm sorry
ok so quickrun through of theory
So Euclidean algorithm is about integer division
and remainders
We know that if $a, b \in \mathbb{N}$, we can write $\frac{a}{b}= q + \frac{r}{b}$, where r is some remainder and q is the quotient
LacerNoMore:
this is just basic integer division
Now, we can multiply both sides of the equation by $b$ to obtain $a=qb + r$
LacerNoMore:
We really do know that this last equation is possible: starting with (b * 0), then (b * 1)etc. we may subtract increasing multiples of b from a until what remains is a non-negative number less than b
this is synonymous with saying a=a-b=a-2b=a-3b...=a-nb (mod b) for all integers n
The euclidean algorithm takes this concept of integer division, and helps us find the gcd of (a, b) by a repeated application of the above division algorithm
so if i wanted to find the gcd(15, 10), I would do:
15=(10)(1) + 5
10=5(2) + 0
but we are done here because the next iteration gives 5=0 + 5
so the gcd would be 5
similarly, to find the gcd of (5, 26), i would do:
26=5*5 + 1
5=1*5 + 0
so the gcd would be 1 in this case
but due to ways in which multiplication and addition in mods are done in the same manner as integer, we can do 26=5*5 + 1
1 (mod 26) =26 (mod 26) - 5*5 (mod 26)
1 = 26 + (26-5)(5) (mod 26)
I have essentially added 26*5 to both sides mod 25 which doesnt change the value of either side, but allows us to turn the -5 into a 21, which will be the inverse of 5
@unkempt nova sorry for the wall of text
i'm a little confused about how you get -5 from that
@unkempt nova oh right -5=21 mod 26 ?
like, i understand it's from 26-5*5
right from our algirthm, we had 26 + (-5)*5 = 1
if that makes it clearer
and so we reduce it mod 26, which gives 0 + (-5)(5)=1 mod 26
but -5 is just 21 mod 6
so because it's all mod 26, 26 just becomes 0?
@astral fiber ok so m|(a-b) and n|(a-b)
agree?
can you see how this implies that mn|(a-b) and so a=b (mod mn)
think about if p|x and q|x, then pq|x where p, q are primes
ahhh thanks
so for an affine cipher i have an enciphering key of [5,7] and i found the deciphering key to be [21, 9]
does that sound right?
so i've got x≡21(y-7) mod 26
but that isn't the same as x≡21y+9 mod 26?
do i need to simplify it?
7y+3 mod 26?
How does an affine cypher work? Sounds cool. What's the source?
It's something I have to learn for my applied maths class
it's boring
Basically, assign each letter in the alphabet a number
then the cipher is ax+b mod 26 where x is the letter
Oh IC. [a,b] = [5,7] in this case?
So you start with the letters
a = 1, b = 2, c = 3, d = 4...?
Oop yeah that makes sense
but yeah, that's how it goes
So you have
5x + 7 = y (mod 26)
mhm
I can explain it in pieces
y = 105y (mod 26)
Simply because 1 = 105 (mod 26)
I can replace that 1 with a 105 anywhere I see it
@sacred junco Hello! I need to know if the statement you want the proof for was from a textbook?
No
.
How can I prove that sqrt(a^2 + 1) is not an integer when a is a positive integer?
Hmm, try a proof by contradiction?
Let a be any natural number and let there exist a natural number b such that b^2 = a^2 + 1
Thanks
Im stuck. Do I have to work with prime factorization?
Well okay.
b^2 -a^2 = 1
(b-a)(b+a) = 1. Since b is a natural number & a is a natural number, what can be said about the two factors?
Well, if a is a positive integer, then it's a natural number, with the possibility of it being 0.
Well, (1)(1) = (-1)(-1) = 1
So both factors have to be 1 or -1
Right?
Yes
Then what can be said further about a & b?
If both are natural then they can be only be 1 but b^2-a^2=1 with a and b being 1 means that 0=1
a + b = 1
b -a = 1
Hence, 2b = 2 & b = 1. Hence, a = 0. Hence, you have derived specific values of a& b where it's true. Since, you assumed that a was an arbitrary number, it means that any attempt at deriving a & b (generally) such that the conditions you want hold is going to yield a very specific solution.
In other words, there are no other solutions.
How do I get to
2b = 2?
They're linear equations. Add them.
🙂
Is there an easy way to prove that the square root of 2 ^ x + 1 where x is a natural number is not an integer?
No. Let x =3
Is there a number that can replace 2 so that it won’t work?
1
will there be a solution for every number except 1?
Huh? Okay, you have to phrase your statement in a better way. What exactly is it that you're asking?
is there a number for a in sqrt(a^x+1) where for every x (natural number) the solution is not an integer? a =! 1
does anyone know a good book on really basis number theory
like dividing stuff and modular arithmatic
and gcd and lcm, euclidean algorithm
104 number theory problems by titu andreescu is pretty nice
thanks 🙂
Throwing out another problem if anyone is interested. Let c be exactly one googol. Let a,b both be positive whole numbers where ac and c/b are perfect cubes. What is the LEAST number of cubes from c/b to ac inclusive?
Uh, is this even doable? Like it's easy to figure out what a and b should be, but to count the number of cubes in that interval?
oh I'm dumb, of course
No. I'm dumb. And I hehe.
But seriously I often make up problems with mistakes. It happens.
What’s wrong with titu andreescu ?_?
He has a cold
not really understanding this proof for why there are no such integers such that ϕ(n)=n/4
What are you confused about
how can i prove (c)?
the book says that these are basic properties
from the definition
i dont think any of these are basic besides the first one
2nd is simple
Think about it like this
If we take out the gcd, then the residue factors are coprime/have gcd = 1
what is residue?
Leftover, kinda bad wording there
Try an example
Like 27 and 18 are m and n
gcd is 3^2
27 = 9 x 3 and 18 = 9 x 2
3 and 2 are coprime
i see that but how would i prove it in general?
i used contradiction but i think its too complicated
Nope, contradiction is the proper way to go
oh
Basically, if m' and n' are NOT coprime, then you could've taken out another factor in m and n
is (c) also by contradiction?
This is roughly equivalent to Bezout’s Theorem
This is where unique factorization becomes so powerful by the way. You basically have to get to unique factorization to prove this result.
Really nice how the simple things that people take for granted as "obvious" can be so powerful
how do i prove this?
s' = m/s and t' = m/t
gcd(s', t') = gcd(m/s, m/t)
because we are taking numbers out of the lcm they will share no other divisors so it must be 1?
does this work? it is kind of informal
what is wrong with my proof
of
if n in Z and m | s, then lcm(m,n) | s
say lcm(m,n) = e. Then m = ek for some integer k. Since m | s, ek | s so e | s
but this isnt true so my proof must be wrong right?
wait
i think im confusing gcd and lcm
Let me look
What are you proving
if n in Z and m | s, then lcm(m,n) | s
is false taken at face value
im stuck on this
say e = lcm(m,n)
then m | e and n | e
but i dont know how to connect e and s
Hint: $e$ is the \emph{least} common multiple of $m$ and $n$
Icy001:
T/F Quick one: Only [1]
<@&286206848099549185>
@sacred junco the lcm of m and n is divisible by both m and n
You could just test each element of $\bZ_6$ manually
Icy001:
i have s = mm' and s = nn' as m|s and n|s
since m|e and n|e, e=mm'' and e=nn''
so m=e/m'' then s=e/m'' m' so e|s
but i think this is wrong because i didnt even use the n
$\frac e{m''}m'$ isn't necessarily divisible by $e$
m (mod n) has a multiplicative inverse if m and n are coprime
Icy001:
oh
I have a simple proof which is definitely not what your professor expects
I'll give it and then you see how you can modify it
okay
We have $e\leq s$ since $e$ is the least common multiple of $m$ and $n$ while $s$ is a common multiple of $s$ and $n$. Now if $e\nmid s$, then $\gcd(e,s)$ has the following properties:
\begin{itemize}
\item $\gcd(e,s)<e$ and $\gcd(e,s)<s$
\item $m\mid \gcd(e,s)$ and $n\mid \gcd(e,s)$
\end{itemize}
Hence $\gcd(e,s)$ is a common multiple of $m$ and $n$ which is smaller than $e$, contradicting the minimality of $e$
Icy001:
is there a direct proof? this is kind of confusing
Yes I was about to say
Let $e'=\gcd(e,s)$. Then $m\mid e'$ and $n\mid e'$, so $e'\geq \operatorname{lcm}(m,n)=e$. The only way this is possible is if $e'=e$, hence $e\mid s$.
Icy001:
I'm confused, what'd you do?
why is e' >= lcm(m,n)?
oh i see
basically I used the definition $\text{lcm}(m,n):=\min{x\in\bN:m\mid x\text{ and }n\mid x}$
Icy001:
im confused about the e'=e part
So $e'$ was $\gcd(e,s)$. And we have $e'\geq e$, in other words, $\gcd(e,s)\geq e$. How can the greatest common divisor of a two numbers be greater than or equal to one of the numbers?
Icy001:
ohh i see
how do i get the remainder of 8^(9^7) divided by 11
<@&286206848099549185> can you give me the first step?
Modular exponentiation is a type of exponentiation performed over a modulus. It is useful in computer science, especially in the field of public-key cryptography.
The operation of modular exponentiation calculates the remainder when an integer b (the base) raised to the eth p...
First step is to determine the order of 8 in $(\bZ/11\bZ)^\times$
Icy001:
This language isn't elementary so I'll say it another way; Determine $\min{n\in\bZ^+\colon 8^n\equiv 1\pmod{11}}$
Icy001:
kinda still confused
could someone pls help me understand how to get the even part for this, the odd was sort of straightforward but having trouble with the even
is n = 10 by Fermat's little theorem @serene socket
@serene socket a more intuitive approach is the following: let s be the lcm (minimal) and let r be another multiple not divisible by s. Then k=r mod s is nonzero and less than s. Since m,n|k, we’re done.
$r\mod s$ when they haven't gone over modular arithmetic yet
Icy001:
Call it the remainder then
The fact that there exists a representative of the equivalence class of r mod s that's between 1 and s-1 is surely not covered at this point though
It's because the remainders of $8^n$ when divided by 11 form a periodic sequence
Icy001:
and the period is the first positive integer $n$ for which $8^n$ has a remainder of 1
Icy001:
I mean the proof uses nothing fancy
Division with remainder is fancy from the point of view of a grounds-up number theory class
like
Most of the stuff at this point is well ordering
That's how you ultimately relate the two notions of gcd
And I think he's just working with one of them for now
The first nontrivial result is Bezout
Which is fancy well-ordering (ideals)
But yeah, I shouldn’t be assuming too much I guess
The result r|a,b implies r|gcd(a,b) is an interesting corollary
If you count the first as 0, then you can call the period the second
@rugged loom Partition the sum into sub-sums by the largest odd divisor. Then you just have to show that totient(2^rk)-totient(2^(r-1)k)-...-totient(k)=0 (n is assumed to be at least 1), but totient is multiplicative and k is odd, so this simplifies to (2^(r-1)-...-1)totient(k)=0.
Ok you don't need to find the period @quartz gate
It turns out the period is the maximum it can be anyway, which is 10
You know that $8^{10}\equiv 1\pmod {11}$ by Fermat's not last theorem
Icy001:
Therefore, $8^{10a+b}\equiv 8^b\pmod{11}$ for any $a,b\in\bN$
Icy001:
@serene socket wait have you seen the well-ordering proof for Bezout? It’s pretty nice
why is that
oh ok i get it now, the a is just 1^a, and the b is 8^b
All proofs use well-ordering and the non-trivial aspect is that $\bZ$ is a Euclidean domain isn't it?
Icy001:
Yes
But that’s fine here
Also, there is a way to revamp things for proving the general fact for gcd ideals in Bezout Domains.
Well I can say this is the first time I've heard of a Bezout domain
@supple furnace thanks for the response but kind of confused, why 2^n and not something like 2^n/k
Well all the numbers that have largest odd divisor k are in the form 2^nk
tru tru, had to check back and confirm but ye it works, thanks for the help
i would defo not be able to come up with that on a test tho
also having trouble with this if anyone could chip in would appreciate it
v = ?
my approach for these questions were just to split them up into the prime factors and work from there but not sure that works here
Make an injective map that sends a divisor of $n$ to a divisor of $2^n - 1$
Icy001:
you have to figure out what the map is
hmm ic, i'll try that out
if ax = b (mod m)
and the gcd(a,m) = 1
then there is only one solution of x, right?
yes (mod m)
is there some propert of 2^n - 1 i can utilize to get an idea of what the divisors would look like
Try to factor it in more than one way
x^(p-1) = 1 mod p
okay so, in this case what's p-1?
6
so x^6 = 1
ye
because x^6 is 1
ohhhhhhhhh okokok
then
x^26 can become
uh
x^2
because 6*4 = 24
so we have 40x^2 + x + 1 = 0 mod 7
then i can sub in 0 to 6, and check if 0
0 is false, 1 is true, 2 is true, 3 is true, 4 is ... is there a faster way of doing this
@stuck lintel
in this case x = 2 no, does that help much
o
Progress?
not really
2^d - 1| 2^dr-1 ?
n/d?
Yes
Since it’s an injection, we get one divisor of 2^n-1 for each divisor of n.
Hence v(2^n-1)>=v(n)
You can prove much better bounds using cyclotomic polynomials (totient function comes up here).
ahhhh i see, makes sense i guess, its been long since ive seen a proof using injections but gotta make sure to take note of the method
thanks guys
Keep posting if you need help
💯
i think this is really basic but im not sure how to actually prove it
prove that s | lcm(ns, nt)
wait it this right?
s | ns and ns | lcm(ns,nt) so by transitivity s | lcm(ns,nt)?
seems correct to me
thanks 🙂
how would i use the chinese remainder theorem to solve c)
so far i split it into 3 equations, 46mod3, mod 5 and mod 7
then i have x^2=1mod3
x^2=1mod5
x^2=4mod7
how do i apply CRT from here
How do you usually apply CRT and how is it different with 3 primes
3 primes i guess we expect 2 or no incongruent quadratic residues for each prime
nah thats not what u mean im guessing
i mean from that point in the CRT, regularly we would find M1, M2, and M3, and then do M1=1mod3, M2=1mod5, M3=1mod7 to find x1,x2,x3
and then use those to get the final answer as
x=M1x1b1+M2x2b2+M3x3b3mod M
not sure what changes with quadratic residues though
Nothing should change
felt like i went in a circle tho, the final x i obtained was 151mod105 which is the same as 46mod105
how do i get the residues from this process
how did you obtain 151 exactly
this number M1x1b1+M2x2b2+M3x3b3
what's M1, x1, and b1?
in this case, M1 is 35, x1 is 2, b1 is 1, M2 is 21, x2 is 1, b2 is 1, M3 is 15, x3 is 1, b3 is 4
oh there for computing the unique solution modulo M for the system of equations
Yes and what is M1, what is x1, and what is b1
what are their roles
Alright let me help you here
ye lol im lost
CRT is the theorem that the canonical map $\phi\colon \bZ/(pqr\bZ)\to (\bZ/p\bZ)\times(\bZ/q\bZ)\times(\bZ/r\bZ)$ is a ring isomorphism, where $p,q,r$ are distinct primes in our case
Icy001:
$\phi$ being defined as $x\mapsto (x\mod p,x\mod q,x\mod r)$
Icy001:
The inverse of this map $\phi$ is what you want to construct, and it requires manually computing $\phi^{-1}$ of some basis of $(\bZ/p\bZ)\times(\bZ/q\bZ)\times(\bZ/r\bZ)$. Usually the basis chosen is $(1,0,0),(0,1,0),(0,0,1)$. So define $x_1:=\phi^{-1}(1,0,0),x_2:=\phi^{-1}(0,1,0),x_3:=\phi^{-1}(0,0,1)$
Icy001:
The solution would be $\phi^{-1}(a,b,c)=x_1a+x_2b+x_3c$ where you can choose any arbitrary lifts of $a,b,c$ to $\bZ/(pqr\bZ)$
Icy001:
i dont fully understand all the concepts but the concept of computing the inverse kind of makes sense i guess
given when i did the CRT outright i just got back to where i started from
well let's see
$\phi^{-1}(1,0,0)$ is the number $x$ in $\bZ/(pqr\bZ)$ such that x is 1 mod p, 0 mod q, and 0 mod r
Icy001:
So It should be (inverse of qr mod p) times qr
Ah so that's probably your mistake
You have to take the product of the rest of the primes
instead of just one of them
so if my 3 primes are 3,5,7
the solution to a mod 3, b mod 5, c mod 7 would be
a * (inverse of 35 mod 3) * 35 + b * (inverse of 21 mod 5) * 21 + c * (inverse of 15 mod 7) * 15
rather than
well whatever you did
Hm
in this case, M1 is 35, x1 is 2, b1 is 1, M2 is 21, x2 is 1, b2 is 1, M3 is 15, x3 is 1, b3 is 4
I think you did it right actually
M1 would be the product of the primes, x1 is the inverse of that mod the remaining prime
Your mistake is that you took the squares for the bi rather than the square roots
Hehe...
like your b3 was 4
it should've been +/- 2
and b1 should've been +/-1
and b2 should've been +/-1
ahhh ic
so for each combination of those id get a unique solution, for a total of 6 which i should have
you mean 8
8?
No problem, even though I re-derived all of CRT while trying to help
loooool, it was pretty nice seeing the derivation since we never really did that in class, prof only gave us a proof of the theorem and algorithm
Did he explain that the xi's are the multiplicative inverse of the Mi's mod the unused prime?
how'd he explain it
it was kind of long, but basically he started by obtaining Mi =M/mi (M is the product of all the primes) , then he showed that (Mi,mi) = 1 (since all the mi's are relatively prime) then he claims the equation Mix=1modmi has a solution xi = b1M1x1+...., and he shows this is true cause for example each Mimodm1=0modm1 except for M1xmodm1 which is = 1modm1, subbing into the equation x=bi*1+0+0...modmi for each of em, so satisfies the equations
really bad explanation on my part lol
the proof was kind of informal tho, lots of visuals since its an intro course
That's pretty accurate
ahh ok my prof knows his stuff then lol
last question, if one of my bi's were not perfect squares how would i go about doing this, do i just say theres no quadratic residues?
Yep
Bezout leads to quick proof of CRT
Plus it explains why the formula is what it is
Hm a simple proof of CRT is to show that $\phi$ is a ring homomorphism, that it's injective and that both sides have the same cardinality
Icy001:
Like, CRT is just the statement that $\phi$ is a ring isomorphism
Icy001:
i have no idea what those mean lol

