#elementary-number-theory
1 messages ¡ Page 51 of 1
hensel's lemma
Lol
Ok
I can prove it by just working out the proof directly on it though by induction and so I wouldn't be "using" the lemma
Elementary
lmao
@light flicker I didnât use your second property
the p=2 case is the annoying one

And also use the fact that (x + y)^p = x^p + y^p (mod p)
@light flicker how did you use this fact? Btw thanks for the hint!!!
I'll try to do it a different way I don't wanna be lame
Lol
How about this, there's a solution that doesn't use the fact that x^2 = a (mod p) has at most two solutions
Okay that's also trivial jk
Well I donât know a lot about quadratic residue and polynomial in mod n
:/
Canât really work this out
You don't need to really
use the fact that the p-adic numbers are a field and so x^2=a has at most 2 solutions
and then just round it off to the nth digit
Mfw p-adic
Yeah I found this exercise in a p-adics textbook
But there are elementary solutions
You could definitely do this question whoever
đ¤
yeah, I feel like that way I just described is just the same hensel lemma way just obfuscated lol
Yeah, doesn't the fact that p-adics are a field use hensel's lemma
Maybe I'm misremembering
no, hensel's lemma gives you a way to lift solutions to equations from the residue field to the p-adics
Ok Iâm gonna keep reading analysis I keep getting distracted by other interesting problems 
but you can make the p-adics by cauchy completions or inverse limits
Yeah okay jk
hensel's lemma is actually Newton's method
but just looks slightly different when presented but does truly become the algorithm,
$x_{n+1} = x_n - \frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$
Merosity:
@fervent crest forget analysis go study algebra
when you find some $|f(x_0)|<|f'(x_0)|^2$
Merosity:
^p adic absolute value
Right
But I like analysis 
learn p-adic analysis
you'll like algebra better
the algebraic closure of the p-adics requires infinitely many field extensions
that's like, infinitely many algebra
lmao
Btw @light flicker whatâs your most recommended (elementary) number theory textbook?
you didn't ask me but the george andrews number theory book from dover is good
Depends how much algebra you know
@woven phoenix
You literally asked me about intermediate number theory the other day
Why do you think I don't know this guy's level
You said "so not exactly the same"
Which does imply that
I've never heard of that
So probably not
I know left-to-right multiplication is very fast and easy to learn
Well - easier?
Possible, but I wouldn't want to
@light flicker What book would you recommend to someone with an undergrad abstract algebra level knowledge?
@tender cypress Classical introduction to modern number theory by Ireland and Rosen
This book is honestly amazing
@light flicker Thanks! đ
Read that book and confused because i donât have a solid understanding of abstract algebra
Wow it's almost like you chose to study analysis instead
It doesn't really use too much algebra
Only what a group is and some ideas about cyclic groups
@sacred junco @weary basalt thanks for the recommendation, will check it out!
@light flicker not yet proficient in algebra (iâm kinda reading about group theory on and off to know the scope broadly)

I mean
I scanned over the whole freilegnâs book
By scanned I meant I didnât do ahy exercises but just read over theorems and proofs
Yeah that's not really learning anything
well just like a > b is used for "a is larger than b" and we can flip it to < to say "smaller than", I propose we flip "|" (divides) to say "multiple of"
1 | 1 (1 divides 1), and if we flip
1 | 1 (1 is a multiple of 1). seems to work

lol i think he means b=ak
oh oh ... Pick any four integers a, b, c, d > 0 and where also gcd(ab, cd) = 1. Show that there are infinitely many ABC-triples (google please) of the form (ab^n, cd^m-ab^n, cd^m) where n, m > 1 and n and m are whole numbers. You have 3 written pages (front and back) ... to figure out the proof or if I'm joking. đ hehe
(ab)^n or a*b^n
a*(b)^n
that feeling when it took 4 hours to solve a textbook problem
share
(and 18 pages of scribbling)
ok start your timer
"Show that if a has order 3 (mod p), then a + 1 has order 6 (mod p)"
sorry yeah p | a^3 - 1
We note that the prime can't be 2 or 3 since no elements have order 3
god dammit you're damn right that "p | a^3 - 1" (it's crucial for the proof and I derived it in a roundabout way)
I also assume you mean order in the strict sense
a^2 != 1, and a^1 != 1 if that's what you mean by strict
||I suppose it would be enough to prove that (a+1)^3 = -1 mod p. Expanding (a+1)^3 gives us:||
|| (a+1)^3 = a^3 + 3a^2 + 3a + 1 = 2 + 3(a^2 + a) = -1 + 3(a^2 + a + 1) = -1 mod p ||
|| This shows that (a+1)^6 = 1, expanding (a+1)^2 similarly will show that it is not 1 mod p||
So now a + 1 can't have order 1 since otherwise a = 0
Similarly, (a+1)^2 = a^2 + 2a + 1 = a, so a + 1 can't have order 2 since a is not 1
nice, I also first proved that a + 1 can't have order 1 nor 2
Now, (a + 1)^3 = a^3 + 3a^2 + 3a + 1 = 3a^2 + 3a + 2
So this is equivalent to -1 mod p, so a + 1 can't have order 3
Then squaring this gives that (a+1)^6 = 1 so it has smallest order 6
fast!
eh I just looked at Kan's answer, looks like he got it faster
Could you please roll back and tell me how you claimed "then we know that: p | a^2 + a + 1"
An important property of primes is that
a^2 + a + 1 = (a^3 - 1)/(a-1)
if p | ab, then either p | a or p | b
since p | a^3 - 1 = (a-1)(a^2 + a + 1)
And as we noted, we can't have that p | a - 1, since this would mean that a = 1 (mod p)
great, so exactly the same way I found it (only took much longer!)
oh, kan's spoiler post also has the solution. You all are so fast!
You also said that you realized p | a^3 - 1 after a lot of work, so was that a brainfart or you haven't grokked modular arithmetic? 
brainfart. it follows from the definition đ
(a + 1)^3 = đ mod p
Yeah it happens sometimes that you keep going down a road that either takes a long time to give the right proof or no proof at all
Oh well
yeah haha
gcd(2n^2+2n,n-1) = gcd(n-1, 4n) = gcd(n-1, 4) = 4
Least nonnegative residue. Does this make sense on how to find it?
Yea letâs say if we have 282771 (mod 6) we will use EA first. 282771=6 and.....
Once we get the GCD from EA we can determine a. The GCD is a
6*47128+3
The least nonnegative residue of 282771(mod 6) is 3
Guess this is confusing to @broken igloo
EA gives you GCD
a method of computing the greatest common divisor (GCD) of two integers
yeah
it seems that you just want the remainder when you divide by m
that's what you call "least nonnegative residue"
ALright. thanks so does my steps or say"guideline" make sense?
it is overcomplicated
I think just divide by m and find the remainder
that's all you need to do
Alright. Thanks @broken igloo
Theyâre all the same number
You donât say there are an infinite number of 1s because 1 = 1^n ._.
^
...
why... why would you
like
it's just 1
why would you count 1^2, 1^3, etc as if they were distinct from 1
when they're
not
This is a defamation of my namesake channel 
Also I donât know whether youâre being serious or trolling Euler
bUt HoW cAn $1 = 1^n~(n\in\bbZ)$ WhEn $2^2\neq 2^n~(n\in\bbZ\setminus{2})$
Whoever:
what
$2^2\neq2^3$ then clearly $1^2\neq1^3$
Whoever:
@jade sentinel idk what youâre not understanding smh
sorry ann
lmao
Hello, can someone help me with this: I want to prove that the sum of the squares from 1 to n with n>1 is a perfect square only if n = 24
There's a formula for the sum of squares from 1 to n that might be helfpul
I know
n(n+1) need to be divisible by an odd power of 2
Etc
I have some "mid results"
But I don't know where to go
There is no n >1 such as 3n+1, 4n+1 and 6n+1 are perfect squares and no n different of 24 such as n, 6n+1 et 12n + 1 are perfect squares
I've tried to look at the nearest other perfect squares
But it's actually really difficult for me
The first thing you probably want to think about is why this fraction is always an integer
It's the sum of the squares
I know it's an integer
I want to prove that for n>1, it's a perfect square only if n = 24
He probably meant for you to think in terms of divisors
And yes we all know the formula is the sun of squares therefore an integer
But if youâre just given the formula itâs not that obvious (but can be easily seen) that the formula always produces a natural number
I got my previous results by thinking about the prime factors
I know that n(n+1)(2n+1) needs to be an odd power of 6 times other prime factors
I found that there is no n >1 such as 3n+1, 4n+1 and 6n+1 are perfect squares and no n different of 24 such as n, 6n+1 et 12n + 1 are perfect squares
Why exactly are you looking at those numbers
You know that to be a square, n(n+1)(2n+1) must be 0 mod 4
Yes
So what does n mod 4 have to be
0
Okay
So n mod 8 = 0
Why
Because n needs to have an odd power of two in its prime factors
Right
But I have no clue to prove it's true only when n = 24
Merosity:
any prime that divides n must divide m, as the other two terms are relatively prime to n
so you can write
$n=Q^2 2^a3^b \ m = Q 2^x 3^y$
Merosity:
and remove all the factors of n that aren't 2 and 3
$2^a3^b(n+1)(2n+1) = 2^{2x+1}3^{2y+1}$
Merosity:
from there, I suppose you can start doing case work on whether 2 and 3 does or doesn't divide n
Going my way, when is n(n+1)(2n+1) equal to mod 8 true
When any of the factors equal to 0 mod 8 ? If you mean 0 mod 8
And we already know it's n
(Sorry about my wifi)
No because if n is even, then n+1 and 2n+1 are not
So n is the only one divisible by 4
And it needs to have an odd power
Of 2
So we already know 8 divides n
I mean yeah, that's the other way of figuring that out
And I'm stuck exactly at this point
For 2 days now
I really don't see how to make any progress and I'm honestly trying
I'm not sure there's a super easy solution
I don't think there is a super easy solution
Like, I know I suck at math but this, is really hard for me
fun problem, I'll try to think about it more seriously
ok, actually it's a "known" problem, and I didn't have the knowledge to do it
(cannonball problem)
so I'll have to learn how to solve it without internet, thanks for your help !
(side note: the proof can be found on different websites, and it's not that easy)
Yeah that's why I asked
I didn't know until I searched for it on google
How to solve a problem, just follow a 3 step procedure:
- Formulate the problem using the simplest terms
- Stick it in google
- Copy the first stackoverflow answer
Even if it is an irl problem, search stackoverflow
don't forget the best step,
4. Never gain self reliance
@last parcel MĂLOOOOOOOOOOOOOO
don't me ping me here for nothing, you can dm me Inès : )
Hmm ... I need a girlfriend.
1). I need to look good. I need to smell good.
- Sticking in Google
4 Ways to Look Good - wikiHow
Yadda Yadda
Here are our 18 tips for smelling good all day.
Drink Plenty of Water. ...
Yadda Yadda
Hmm. No StackOverFlow answer. Property not found for top 10 Googled results. Process Abort.
Math is simple. Dating is not đ
What the actual fuck
I like how he put 1). instead of 1.) but after that no further )
well, almost as much as 3.
I never thought about looking or smelling good when I got my girlfriends in the past, I think caring about what a girl thinks about you is probably the first wrong step towards not getting a girlfriend
I mean, it's a valid reason to worry
It's just more that girls like guys who are super motivated and super interested in things
As in, guys who are motivated to become better people
If a positive integer, n, has a prime number of factors, how can I prove that all of its factors are in the form of p^(k-1) for some prime number p?
That is what I am trying to proveâthat its prime factorization would be in the form of p^(k-1).
Wait, what's k?
I know
k would be a prime number
Yes.
I don't know which definition I should cite.
I don't follow your train of thought. Can you expand on how the statement immediately follows after factorizing n?
yes
once you decompose it into primes, you can write an expression for how many divisors n has
by inspecting the expression, you immediately see that the number of distinct primes dividing n is 1
Is there a way to express the latter statement more formally?
of course
you don't think I'm talking gibberish do you?
I'm giving you the outline of an actual proof
or do you want me to write it out explicitly for you
and solve it for you
I'm sorry, I'll be fine.
đ
If a is relatively prime to some prime p, then show that x^2 = a (mod p^n) has at most two solutions for all positive integers n.
@light flicker that's not true
1^2 = 3^1 = 7^2 = 1 mod 8
but for p>2 that IS true
do you want me to show you why?
brb
x^2 = 1 mod p^n has only two solutions
because p only divides one of the factors (x-1) or (x+1)
so p^n only divides one of them
this is because p>2
now a is invertible mod p^n by bezout
hence x is a unit
if x^2 = y^2 = a, then (xy^-1)^2 = 1, hence from what we found before
xy^-1 = +- 1
and we're done
2 isn't a prime

also why was this in a p adic book?
or is there a nice solution using p-adic numbers?
2 isn't a prime
2 is just small so it has some issues
If 2 was a prime why would half the theorems exclude 2
Imagine even numbers being prime lmao
but the same issues emerge when you start rammifying the other p-adic fields
and primes at infinity
for quite a few number theory problems, they both cause about the same amount of issues
By definition, a prime number is an integer greater than 1 that cannot be formed by multiplying two distinct integers other than 1 and itself. From that definition, 2 must be prime.
hi
let's use prime|| ideal||s
can someone help
prove that x^2+y^2+z^2 = 2xyz has only 1 solution
x y and z are integers
i found out that x y and z must be even
but idk what to do next
-1 is a prime according to your definition @sacred junco
2xyz is a even (multiple of 2)
in my world
so x^2+y^2+z^2 is even
a b and c are all integers
so a b and c have to be even
so now, what do we do?
write a=2m b=2n c=2k
âŹ
4m^2+4n^2+4k^2=32mnk
hmm
@torn escarp "greater than 1"?
well, it just keeps going
so x y and z have to be infinitely divisible by 2
so the idea is?
okay, let's use a technique to do that properly
2^â
k+k+k+k...
ok
no
plug in to the diophantine
then find out properties of y and z
the number of times 2 divides them
ok
If there is a positive integer m with exactly four positive factors, such that the sum of all 4 factors is equal to n, how many such n exist in the set {2010, 2011, 2012, ..., 2019}. I thought about splitting it into cases, where I look for integers in the form of 2010 <= ab + a + b + 1 <= 2019 where a, b are prime numbers, but I didn't get far. Advice appreciated.
The cases would be: a nor b NOT = 2, and a or b = 2.
You can factorize it into (a+1)(b+1) and looking at each of their prime factorizations, see whether they can be put in that form or not
@stuck lintel Yes. I am now at (3+1)(503+1) = 2016, but I am not making much progress.
ayee
how to prove every prime AP that is formed for primes >=3
the common difference is 6
What's prime AP?
AP = arithmetic progression?
@craggy solstice are you sure you aren't asked to prove the common difference is a MULTIPLE of 6
i can give you an example of an arithmetic progression of three primes with a common difference that is not equal to 6
then consider your progression modulo 6
@stuck lintel There's also the a^3 factorisation
no, this is extremely elementary...
ok OK
phi(p^k)= p^(k-1)(p-1)
lol
try proving that phi(ab)=phi(a)phi(b) for a, b relatively prime
but it's elementary
Merosity:
||mobius inversion formula ||
Hello. Is there an intuitive explanation for the formula of the product of the divisors of some integer?
Yes, think about the prime factorization
Care to expand on that?
They are all prime numbers raised to some power.
It depends on the integer. I need to correct that not all divisors are prime, as our integer is not necessarily prime.
Think about what the prime factorization of a number
It's primes raised to some powers
What do the prime factorization of the divisors of this number look like
If you have that $n = p_1^{m_1} p_2^{m_2} \cdots p_k^{m_k}$, what do the divisors of this number look like
Zopherus:
ok is he asking about the number of div isors of the number?
I apologize, I am back now. @light flicker each divisor is in the form of p_1^n*p_2^k*p_3^j... and so on, where n, k, j can each be any nonnegative integer up to the exponent of the prime in the prime factorization of the integer.
That's the fuzzy part.
Think about the case when $n = p^k$
Zopherus:
Assuming p is a prime number, then n should have k+1 divisors, to account for k = 0.
So the product of each of the divisors would be p^0*p^1*p^2*...*p^k.
Yep, and what's that?
??
Perhaps p^(2k) I meant to say.
let's see if you are right
let's try some cases
p^4 let's go
p^0*p^1*p^2*p^3*p^4=?
Check p^3
So it seems both of the answers only work in certain cases, and neither were the general case formula.
Element118:
It would be 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + ... + 0 n times?
Okay.
whats the sum of the AP
actually I don't think this is a great method, try this instead
Suppose I have a number n and I tell you that a is a factor of n. What other factors of n do you know?
@sacred junco
I only know a^0,a^1,a^2,...,a^k, where k is the highest possible power of a, where a is a prime number.
So, say I have the number
n = 696,498,447,002,239,121,371,797,248,947,864,146,020,879,995,870,198,065,801,366,806,408,633,811,483,757,917,176,532,107,342,550,394,104,778,117,564,019,271,634,707,451,191,410,894,679,642,753,940,888,217,163,255,877,346,160,368,489,287,646,500,144,333,426,167,611,569,479,616,878,356,276,398,762,087,787,207
and I say
a = 25,966,579,129,585,375,179,420,807,630,527,191,860,794,510,244,741,759,058,306,632,613,552,047,090,404,018,620,438,112,185,763,930,657,747,650,794,363,289
Can you find another nontrivial factor of n? (as in, not 1, not n)
I could divide n by a.
Unfortunately, I don't think I get it.
okay, let me be a bit more blatant
if we have a factor a of n, we can find the factor n/a, and it turns out that a*(n/a)=?
so, the square of the product of all factors can be written as?
I'm sorry, what? Why are you multiplying a*(n/a)? That will just be n.
That's why
a and n/a are two factors of n
that's why we are multiplying them together
because no matter what factor a you pick, the result is n
Okay.
think about it as pairing up factors
Ah, I think I got it now
To calculate the product of all the divisors of some positive integer n, we have n^(divisors(n)/2)
can you show that?
I thought about forming two sequences on numbers, one where each of the divisors are increasing, and one where they are decreasing from greatest to smallest.
yeah that works
When I multiply both sequences together, I paired them off in pairs, but overcounted by exactly 2, so that's where the division comes in.
Thank you for your help.
Is there any method to determine if a polynomial has no solutions modulo some prime p?
If there are any integer factors, they will still be a factor mod p
@daring ice
Have an example we could do?
x^3+x^2-4=0 mod 10007.
I should say this is an example I made up. This polynomial has no roots mod 7. Which I determined by hand.
"rational" "mod" nani?
@gilded quest hello
i need to leave soon but
so
Things like
i know some basic group theory
and i really like just wanna know
how can u use these htings
in other fields
the most field that anybody knows about is NT ig
so like whats up with algebriac NT
Algebraic NT
Things like
Showing that the group (Z/pZ) has is cyclic
makes solving linear equations mod p straightforward
Because you can write things in terms of the generator and from there it's easy to solve
No
why need this stuff then
Because we can use the fact we have a generator
I have to go, you should just pick up Ireland and Rosen's book called a classical introduction to number theory and read it
i was thinking david bourton
wdu thinnk?
i am interested inNT tbh
but i heared there are many fields
'analytical NT' , algebraic
whats the david bourton
NT?
basic NT? XD
I've never heard of that book
XD
Are there infinitely many primes such that they're made from only 1s (Like 11)? (Other variants: only 3s,7s or 9s.)
,w is (10^(23)-1)/9 prime
unknown problem
at the very least, if the exponent is not prime, then the number can't be prime
if we could solve problems like this then we'd know that there are infinitely many Mersenne primes
Ahh ok, so nothing changed
there shouldn't be any primes greater than 10 made up of only 3's,5's ,7's and 9's... since they will always be a multiple of a number made up of only 1's.
True, also the ones ending with 5 will be divided by 5 đ
why does the quotient remainder theorem (a = bq + r) require that b is positive? dont q and r still exist if it is negative
It asserts that q and r exist and be unique
You're right that there's likely another solution if you allow b to be negative, or larger. But that's exactly what we don't want
yo i need a tiny bit of help
i've been looking at the sequence of numbers in the form of n^2 + 1
and was wondering how to check if in that sequence there would be a multiple of m
so i've kinda done that though it gets quite long winded to prove it for larger m
but looking at the possible multiples you end up with a weird sequence
2,5,10,13,17,25,26,29,34,37,41,50,53,58,61,65,73,74,82,85,89,97, ...
and it looked as if say if you had a multiple of a and b then there would also be a multiple of ab
for example 2 works and 5 works, 2*5=10 and 10 works too
but it doesn't quite work for all cases
say 2 and 10
but it works for lots of others
anyway just wondering if someone could shed some insight into this
If n^2 + 1 is a multiple of m
Then n^2 +1 is 0 mod m
Which means that n^2 is -1 mod m
So now the only question is if there's a square that's -1 mod m
Question: can the set of all roots of all cyclotomic polynomials be mapped subjectively to the set of all points on the unit circle?
What does subjectively mean
Are we missing some transcendental points in that mapping, then?
Basically yes
And those holes are not filled in when you get to a "polynomial" of "infinite degree"?
That makes no sense
Polynomials have finite degree by definition
We can arbitrarily approximate any number on the unit circle using roots of unity
If you consider power series
Yeah, but if you're summing the roots of $x^n-1$ for all n?
Jythro:
All integer n, from 0 to infinity
Would we say, in a sense, that we are converging on the unit circle?
Eh
Yes in some senses no in others
There are only countably many roots of unity
There are uncountably many points on the unit circle
Ah, there's the kicker...
Would you happen to know if there are cyclotomic polynomial equivalents for other shapes? Is that even an area of study?
Like, say for a square of side length 1, or perhaps some polar curves like a limacon?
Is there any theory on solving modular equations like n^n=a (mod p) for a prime p?
I don't know of anyone
It seems a lot harder and I'm not sure there would be a nice pattern for things like that
@chilly zodiac there's an n such that m | n^2 + 1 iff m - 1 is congruent to n^2 mod m iff m - 1 is a quadratic residue of m. To check whether m - 1 is a quadratic residue of m (aka if there's any solution for n) you only need to check each congruence class mod m once (aka you only need to check 1 n of each remainder by division by m). One way you could do that, for example, is only checking the numbers below m.
Furthermore, the list of squares modulo m is symmetrical around n/2 because (x + m/2)^2 = x^2 + xm + m^2 = x^2 + (x + m)m congruent to x^2. This means you only need to check half. (when n is odd, this might complicate things a little bit, but i think there's still an analegous way to shorten the path)
Yh you only need to check up to floor(m/2) right
yeah im writing a computer program to do that rn
im really trying to get better results on this
this problem really interests me for some reason
I wrote a little bit of code to spit out the possible multiples under a given number
But im about to sleep lol
good night
I was thinking of a way to prove a weaker case where if you have some multiple you know works, and multiply it by 5 then that should work
Or at least on all the ones i checked it worked
But i have no idea how to begin proving it
Food for thought
Good night
I'll think about it, if it's true I don't think it'll be too hard to prove.
Yh im just not in any way familiar with working with congruences
So i could have easily missed something
@whole sigil @chilly zodiac wait there's an easier way to check if -1 is a quadratic residue mod m
How?
oh lmao whoops
Yh sorry im tired too lol
Anyways
You start with the case of figuring out if -1 is a quadratic residue mod p for some prime p
How do you do that?
If you know the legendre symbol
Youre trying to find (-1 /p)
It's a well known fact that $a^{(p-1)/2} \equiv \left( \frac{a}{p} \right)\pmod p$
Zopherus:
so if you let $a = -1$, you get that $\left( \frac{-1}{p} \right) = (-1)^{(p-1)/2}$. And since every prime is $1,3 \bmod 4$, we get that $\left( \frac{-1}{p} \right) = 1$ if and only if $p \equiv 1 \pmod 4$
Zopherus:
this is helpful, i've heard about the legendre symbol once before, maybe if i'll study a bit more results about it, i'll be able to figure this out
Yeah maybe I won't give the rest away then
There are nice properties of this so that you can extend this to all integers m
In a very nice way, just by using the results for primes
oh, i see, according to wikipedia it's completely multiplicative on the top half, which would allow us to generalize this for non-primes
and 2 is a special case that we can handle trivially
but is computing the prime decomposition of a number, and then computing the legendre symbol for each of the primes that have an odd power in the decomposition, and then multiplying that really more efficient than just checking half of the numbers until m?
though now that i think of it, i don't really care about efficiency here
i'm not trying to compute as much of this sequence as possible
i'm trying to understand the sequence
and this does give us more understanding
in fact, im pretty sure this solves the problem with just a bit of checking some things
Computing the legendre symbol for primes is super straightforward, just check if its 1 mod 4 or not
yeah
And multiplying is easy, you're multiplying 1's and -1's
Just count how many -1's you have if you want efficiency I guess
if you're doing it by hand, it's way easier of course
but prime decomposition is way harder for a computer than just iterating over a few numbers
I'm not convinced that's true
For the majority of numbers, prime factorization is pretty fast
If you take m = 10^10, you're squaring numbers up to five hundred billion
prime decomposition is not that hard for a computer
And calculating their remainder mod m
No known algorithm can factor all integers in polynomial time.
and
That really doesn't mean a problem is hard in the real world
And iterating over n/2 numbers is better than polynomial time.
literally exponential
it means a problem is hard in the real world given sufficiently large numbers
I mean sure, but sufficiently large may mean 10^10^10^10
which is not a real world number
well, the difficulty of defactorization is used in RSA, so i bet it's real-world enough
if anything, semiprimes are friendlier to the defactorizer than most integers, provided that your purpose is to find a prime decomposition rather than just any factorization
That is not true
Finding a single prime means you can decrease the size of your number, making testing for divisors easier
actually, you might have a point there
anyway, i don't care about efficiency that much anyway, but i do want more understanding of the sequence
which your idea sure provides
if we generalized the legendre's symbol to allow p=2, would it still be completely multiplicative?
hi;
can someone rate my proof :
A number n is nonperfectsquare if the only perfect square that divides into n is 1.
Prove that for every positive integer, it can be represented as a product of a nonperfectsquare, and a perfect square.
whomstve did you pung zoph
proof :
let n be a nonperfectsquare.
we know that every positive integer could be represented as a product of primes.
so let n = p1p2p3*p4...pn.
We know that for each pi, the exponent = 1, since if exponent > 1,
we can divide pi^2 | n, and n will not be nonperfectsquare.
Let x be any positive intger.
There can be 2 cases :
(1)
x = p1p2p3...pn, where one (or more) pi's will have exponent > 1.
If this is the case, we can factor out these pi's so that they are perfect squares.
The remaining pi's that have exponent = 1 is clearly a nonperfectsquare.
So this is a product of a nonperfectsquare and a perfect square.
(2)
x = p1p2p3...pn where all pi's have exponent = 1.
This is simply the case where p1p2p3...pn is a nonperfectsquare.
Let 1^2 be the perfect square.
Then, x = 1^2 * p1p2p3..pn.
Or, it is the product of a nonperfectsquare and a perfect square.
<@&286206848099549185>
It's fine
ax âĄb mod m so if we already have a,b,m....then how can we find x quickly ?
oh i got it now
thanks anyway đ
I saw this one a couple years ago
And I remember I could never solve it so
Have at it @stuck lintel @winter bear @fervent crest


âElementaryâ number theory
Ok first of all
Itâs not even obvious to me that LHS is an integer
đ
It isnât
Oh right
So multiplicative inverse
Hmm
$\sum_{i=1}^{p-2}\frac{i^i(i+1)^{p-i-1}}{(i+1)^p}$
Whoever:
(i+1)^p is always i+1

the size of the multiplicative group of Z/pZ is p - 1
Whoever:
Maybe try binomial thm
Hm
Seems like it will get dirty
$\sum_{i=1}^{p-2}\sum_{n=0}^{p-i-2}\binom{p-i-2}{n}i^{n+i}$
Whoever:
Ok ew wtf is this
I mean I'm not even sure there's a nice solution
I found it on a facebook group and no one posted a solution
I confirmed that it is true for a couple small cases though
I will try this a bit later
the nt god comes to our rescue
Lmao
I haven't thought about it since a couple years ago either
Maybe I'll think about it some
@winter bear how does it feel to be a god?
Lol it feels like a mockery
Did you solve all those problems for usamts @winter bear ? I couldn't so I won't submit but I am interested in solutions
Do you think I should submit my 1 complete sol with 2 partials or not even worth it? @fervent crest
Idt I will submit; it seems in the rules they only want complete solutions
Oh well, it was good practice
I just feel that as an 11th grader, my math skills are lacking
I mean compared to the average 11th grader, you're obviously a billion times better
Like especially when I see these younger kids destroying me
There's always going to be someone better than you
It's best to get over that fact and help it motivate you rather than discourage
Yeah, I just gonna keep trying even if I might never be that good
Hard to say
You've just got to try harder than other people and eventually you'll be "good"
Winning is really not everything
This is coincidentally, the reason I really dislike math competitions
It fosters too much of a hyper competitive attitude in young children
Who only think about winning and are too emotionally attached to how well they do
Yeah, I noticed that in younger kids (asians/indians specficially due to parental pressure)
I think math competitions are great for generating interest, but learning should be the goal
There's a lot of great things about competitions, which is partially why I did them, but all that pressure isn't healthy for young children I think
Another thing is that how do you put mathematically related things on your college app for a math major without competitions? I guess research but that is pretty complex for high school
True and it's one of the hard things
Not necessarily research, but reading ahead like lots of people in here do
Even if you write that down, it's hard for people to believe your word
But how do you demonstrate "reading ahead" on a college app?
So you'd need to do it with a teacher or something which usually can't happen
oh you answered nvm
Yeah which is the unfortunate part
I think I am gonna try to take online courses soon - BYU or John Hopkins
Unfortunately, I'm not sure there's a great solution to this problem
Alright nice talk, cya zoph
The only partial solution is giving more resources to high schoolers to do that sort of thing
Which do happen, things like Canada/USA math camp
This got buried so let me repost
shot in the dark but, first step to try
$\frac{1}{2^2} + \sum_{k*k^{-1}=1} \frac{k^k}{(k+1)^{k+1}} + \frac{k^{-k^{-1}}}{(k^{-1}+1)^{k^{-1}+1}} $
remove the i=1 term then the rest are pairs that are multiplicative inverses
and so I sum over those pairs like this, looks pretty awful though so I probably will not go down this path immediately
Merosity:
alright forget that nonsense, alternative take
$a_i = i^i \ \sum_{i=1}^{p-2} \frac{a_i}{a_{i+1}} = -2 \mod p$
Merosity:
might be easier to learn something about the behavior of i^i then look at all the ratios together
I might have a rough path to the solution using it
I started looking at i^i and (p-2-i)^(p-2-i) being similar but inverses
juggling terms around I get:
$\frac{a_{\frac{p-1}{2}}}{a_{\frac{p+1}{2}}} + \sum_{i=1}^{\frac{p-2-1}{2}} \frac{a_i}{a_{i+1}} + \frac{a_{p-1-i}}{a_{p-i}}$
Merosity:
need to actually confirm now, but I believe the right sum is all 0, the middle term which I've pulled out on the left however is really:
$\frac{\left(\frac{p-1}{2}\right)^{\frac{p-1}{2}}}{ \left(\frac{p+1}{2}\right)^{\frac{p+1}{2}}} = -2$
Merosity:
As in each individual term is 0?
yeah, although I won't hold my breath I'm not sure that those terms in the sum are 0
I just pulled out the middle term and it seemed to pop out as -2 so maybe they should be reorganized in a different way to cancel out
don't mistake my handwavy brainstorming as some kind of rigorous statement of fact haha
at the very least, the middle term being -2 seems to be a good sign, idk I think I'll come back to this after I finish doing some important stuff before I can relax and poke around at this more
Right and it gives a symmetric split of the elements
What's an easy way to show -1 isn't a quadratic residue mod 20?
Someone asked on reddit how to show 20x^2 - 19y^2 = 2019 (the post got deleted)
If you look mod 20, you get y^2 = -1 mod 20, and wolfram alpha says that impossible
-1 mod 20 is -1 mod 4 and -1 isn't a qr modulo 4
Oof yeah lol
You kind of induct
Well it should be obvious that (a_1,...,a_n)|(a_1,a_2)
How to prove this: $e_j(r_1,...,r_n)\equiv 0$ mod (p) for elementary polynomials $1\leq j< n$ and $r_1,...,r_n$ are a reduced residue class mod p
Token:
Basically when you take elementary symmetric polynomials modulo a prime the additive inverses all cancel out.
how can I solve for x if x^107 is congruent to 11 modulo 900?
you use a computer
im not supposed to
Was this a homework problem you were given
kinda, its an example in the notes before the homework
The idea is that you have to use Chinese remainder theorem to break up the mod 900 into smaller problems
where the modulus is the power of a prime
I tried dividing in the prime factors and then using fermat little theorem I got x^3 is congruent to 11 mod 5
is that helpful in any way?
I'm not sure exactly what you mean by dividing in the prime factors
ill try to eplain. So the prime factorization of 900 is 2^2 x 3^2 x 5^2
so I just separated the 1st congruence in 3 where the modulos are the primes, like this :
x^107 congruent with 11 mod 2
x^107 congruent with 11 mod 3
x^107 congruent with 11 mod 5
im just not sure if I can do this
are the mods supposed to prime 2^2 ,3^2 and 5^2?
Yes it needs to be 2^2 etc
That's what the Chinese remainder theorem allows you to do
yeah the problem Im having is :
Lets say we have X congruent with 3 mod 11 and then the other mods, I usually say x=11k +3 and keep substituting in the other congruences, but with the exponents I dont know how to do that
Why can't you do the same?
because i would get x=4k+11 and then I would need to solve (4k+11)^107 congruent to 11 mod 9.
the problem is not the inside, its the fact it has an exponent, I dont know what to do. In the example I gave it was a linear(If I can call it that) case
Archsys:
or you can write 3 mod 4
@hollow bay use hensel lifting or Taylor expansion f(x+h)
terms with h²,h³,... will be 0 in modulo
f(x) is x^(107)-11
like for mod 4
you need f(1+2k)=0 mod 4
which is f(1)+2kf'(1)=0 mod 4
cos terms (2k)²,(2k)³, ... are 0 mod 4
-10+2k(107)=0 mod 4
,w solve -10+2k(107)=0 mod 4
-2+2k(3)=0 mod 4
2k=2 mod 4
k=1 mod 4
x=1+2k=1+2(1)=3 mod 4
so x=3 mod 4 is solution for
x^(107)=11 mod 4
,w 3^(107)=11 mod 4
and similarly you can do for x^(107)=11 mod9 ,mod 25
and use CRT
I got x=3 mod 4
x= 5 mod 9
x= 6 mod 25
,w x=3 (mod 4); x= 5 ( mod 9); x=6 (mod 25)
,w solve x=3 (mod 4); x= 5 ( mod 9); x=6 (mod 25)
đź
,w 131=3 (mod 4); 131= 5 ( mod 9); 131=6 (mod 25)
,w 131=3 mod 4
,w 131=5 mod 9
,w 131=6 mod 25
Hey. Are there any applications of the Prime Number Theorem? Like for example, another proof that was solved with the Prime Number Theorem. Im doing a project on it and dont know what else to write about other than the proof and Chebyshev's weaker PNT.
you can write about a stronger version involving the Riemann hypothesis
or different forms about it
maybe prime gaps?
@twilit rivet
maybe about finding primes for RSA?
ok i will look into them thanks!
nah pnt is useless for finding primes for rsa
primes are found by basically brute force
pnt is useful ig for like asymptotic behaviour of primes and having a quick approximation for Ď(x)
rh just gives a tighter bound
Assuming some bounds on the PNT or equivalently the RH, you can prove certain things about primality tests, for example their deterministic behavior or estimating their complexity.
I think one example for such a test is the Miller-Rabin test.
(tho its usually assumed rh is true when finding primes)
any tips on studying this field? I failed this course twice and starting again now
it's the only course I failed so hard
Depends at what level you're studying
But I don't think the advice is any different for any courses
Work hard, study a lot, ask questions etc
also maybe try to look back at why did you fail, didnt have prereq or just lack of understanding
How to multiply base numbers like 76_8 * 57_8?
You have 2 main ways
You can multiply but unlike in normal multiplication you carry if greater than 10, you use 8
Or convert to base 10, multiply, and reconvert to base 8
How can I carry using 8?
So take 23 x 6 as an example
If we use long multiplication, we do 6 x 3 first
Equals 18, so we carry the 1
If it were 23 base 5 times 6 base 5
3x6 equals 18
But this time we carry 2 as there are 2 8's in 18
Key thing to remember is that any number in base n, each digit can only be 0 to n-1
What about 76_8 * 57_8?
Just do one of the ways I showed you?
What do you get
I think I mess up this step
When you have 76_8 * 57_8, you first do 7 * 6 to get 42, so that's 52_8. So I put down 2, and carry the 5. But when I have to do 7 * 7 = 49. So I have 9 * 8 + 4?
49 turns into 61_8 + 5_8 from the carry
Why 61_8?
7 x 7 equals 49_10 , which is 61_8
Ok, but how do I do that without converting to base 10 first?
You really are not
My book does it. But they don't go over it in detail..
When you multiply in base 10, you automatically carry any groups of 10
Same in any other base
Oh man
I have forgotten multiplication in the natural numbers under 10.
This is embarrassing.
May I ask what grade/course this is?
You should know your multiplication up to 10 at least. Just curious cause they are important
I was joking... I was just making a mistake for some reason. Not sure why.
Sorry sarcasm doesn't translate well in text and I am dense
So is you mistake resolved?
Or more q?
I have a different question if you don't mind
Sure fire away
Find the one hundredth positive integer that can be written using no digits other than digits 0 and 1 in base 3.
I think you need to find the 100th base-2 digit instead, but why?
Yeah I am fairly certain you are right
Notice that base 3 vs base 2 is just adding the 2 digit as an option
So restricting the digits to 0 and 1 just make it easier to find 100th integer via base 2
But wouldn't this just be 100 in base-2?
Oh I misinterpreted the q
So the hundredth integer in base 10 that cannot be expressed using the 3 digits in base 3
@sacred junco
If you find the 100th smallest integer in base 10, convert that to binary or base 2
Then take those digits in base 3 to convert to base 10
That is how to get the answer
@stoic bear What do you mean?
Why would I need to take base 2 and then convert to base 3 and then back to base 10?
You are not converting from 2 to 3
You just take the digits that base 2 and transfer the to base 3
In this case the 100th smallest integer is 100
In base 2 that is 1100100
Now you have 1100100 in base 3
Convert that to base 10 and you have your answer



