#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 46 of 1
cool so get off discord and try to go through the problems
I do problems WHILE on discord
that doesn’t seem good
lol i've been studying for the past 10 hours straight
I only use discord when i need help w something lol
I don't understand the part where they're canceling a from ka = ja (mod m)
they say it's to prove there are no duplicates but isn't it contradicting itself
I understand the part where in order to divide stuff a and the list of all positive integers must be relatively prime to m for it to work
but the only thing i don't understand is the part where they're trying to prove there are no duplicates in the set by trying to cancel a from ka = ja (mod m)
I don't understand what they meaaaan
the same problem extends into the ri * a = rj * a (mod m) -----> ri = rj (mod m)
how does canceling the a basically prove there are no duplicates in the set
@lean halo so pretend we cancel a from everything to get {1,2,3,...,m-1}
obviously there are no duplicates in this set modulo m right
so then if gcd(a,m)=1
there are no duplicates in {a,2a,3a,...,(m-1)a}
Shipreck:
@odd nexus I can understand cancelling a from the set as a whole but i specifically don't understand why they're cancelling a from a single congruence between two elements in the set
@lean halo read the given proof of fermat's little theorem there
in that proof when they write, ka == ja mod p , k and j are arbitrary
to prove that no pair in {a, 2a, ..., (p-1)a} is congruent to each other mod p
Isn't ka and ja two elements in the set
So by canceling a they're essentially proving two elements in the set are the same and thus duplicates?
Like say k = 2 and j = 3. So 2a == 3a mod p
(a,p) = 1 so 2 == 3 mod p thus the two elements are the same?????
which is a contradiction
so yeah there's no duplicates
@lean halo
since obviously, there's no duplicates in {1,2,..., p-1} mod p
Huh Now I'm even more confused
Are they contradicting themselves to prove there ARE duplicates or NO duplicates
Or are they proving there ARE duplicates to prove there AREN'T any duplicates?
(we're talking about the fermat proof here)
we want to prove that no two of {a,2a, ..., (p-1)a} are congruent to each other mod p
now suppose for sake of contradiction that there exists some two elements there that ARE congruent mod p
call these two elements ka and ja
so we know ka == ja (mod p)
since gcd(a,p)=1 we can simplify this to k == j (mod p)
but this is a contradiction since no two of {1,2, ..., p-1} are congruent mod p
hence no two of {a, 2a, ..., (p-1)a} are congruent to each other mod p
does that make sense
Huh isn't that kind proof kind of stupid tho
I mean like
"The set has no duplicates, so If we make this hypothetical statement let's see if it's true or not
But oh no
This contradicts the statement we're TESTING to be true
But we said it's impossible for the set to have duplicates anyway so who even cares lol
Thus the set has no duplicates
FIN
Does my problem make sense lol
@odd nexus
im not very good at this philosophy/logic kinda stuff
but in maths things are either true or false
so proof by contradiction is just eliminating one of those options
like here, we're supposing it false
but that cant happen
so it has to be true
Lol is this even important or am I wasting my time on a trivial issue lol
probably both
I'll just take their word for it lol
Dammit all these problems are proofs lool it's taking me foreverrr
And I SUCK at writing proofs
you dont have to write them that formally
you dont even need to write the solution down
ok but i have one question tho
given i'm under a time constraint and i'm studying first and foremost to pass the amc 12 so I can study more afterwards
@odd nexus would It be safe to skip super advanced level proof questions and return to them later because they might not be so beneficial NOW
for like the third time (sorry, i genuinely dont know) im probably not the person to ask
id recommend you ask in #competition-math or AOPS, im extremely unfamiliar with amc 12
It isn't
Context or
Discrete logarithm problem
log h base g maps from group of units mod p to Z/(p-1)Z
Is the quotient just the group of integers mod p-1?
what's the best way to show that n consecutive integers contains a multiple of n?
in particular when n = 3, but that's doable with the division algorithm and by exhausting cases, so how could it work in general
You can use division with residues
if $A$ is the set of $n$ consecutive integers then for any $i, j\in A$ we have $|i-j|<n$ so they can't give the same residue when divided by n
Gonzo17:
which means there's n different residues
ew modulus
Wtf who goes ew when they see modulus
|ew|
cuz its hard to understand and i cant find a lot of courses of it online
Any y'all do infinite products?
$\prod_{p\in\mathbb{P}}^{\infty}{p^{p^{-x}}} = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{n^x}}$ for x>1, is this true?
Yeat:
So say I do a triangle number and it 2 with 4 iterations equals 20, right? How do I do that in reverse?
Like, how would I look at a product of, say, 120 that had 7 iterations, and find out what the first number was?
if x is a multiple of 2, then x=2(mod2) which will get : x=0(mod 2), right?
yes
thanks
yes
what is it ?
you're saying a is this and that but you didn't prove it existed at all
well the main problem is that you haven't actually shown anything in it
I'm not sure you're understanding the question correctly^
i felt that uneasy regarding the thing, but i wanted to know what is it.
I'll rephrase the question and hopefully that will clear it up?
well i already saw the solution
i wanted to know what was wrong with what i have done......preparing for the IMO on your own isn't very easy you see.
the question is to pick a fixed natural number a, for example, a = 4, such that n^4 + a is never prime for any natural n
for example a = 4 here doesn't work, because setting n = 1, we get n^4 + a = 5, which is prime
yea i understood that perfectly.
i plugged in some numbers here and there
got my hands dirty and well.....it seems that i still have a long way to go hehe.
thanks alot !
Let p be an odd prime number. Prove that the product of the quadratic residues modulo p is congruent to 1 modulo p if and only if p = 3 (mod 4).
I know to use Wilson's, but stuck from there.
$p^2\equiv1\pmod{4}\iff p\equiv3\pmod{4}$ ?
With p prime.
wow
@sturdy dirge that can't be true. the square of any prime (except for 2) is congruent to 1 mod 4
That's a question.
why is it a question
p is just 1 or 3 mod 4, so squaring it will leave 1 or 9, which is 1
I transcript it only.
oh lol i see
wait, so who is the question from then?
From @pliant cobalt .
$7\equiv3\pmod{4}$ and $7^2\equiv1\pmod{4}$.
can someone please explain the logic of this question for me it won't go through my head
i don't think i'm reading the q correctly
can't you have one integer repeat 2008 and the unique one 10 times
or am i high
so the minimum is 2 distinct values wtf
which is clearly wrong
The mode is the number which repeats the most
so all other numbers repeat less
so u need x numbers repeating 9 times cuz that's the minimum
*max
that only gets u to 2007 tho so one must repeat once
so the answer must be 223 + 1 +1 = 225
lol i forgot what a mode was XD
could someone explain better solution 5
i want to know how to solve this one using number theory instead
there are only $3$ digits in ternary; $0,1,2$. if you have $8$ digits, then you can make any ternary number from $0$ to $22222222_3$
now it is easy to see that the distribution is symmetric
because there are just as many ternary numbers from 0 to 11111111 as there are from 11111111 to 22222222
therefore half of them will be positive, and then 0
so 3280 + 1 = 3281
@lean halo
is ternary just a fancy word for mod 3
OOOOOOO
lol
lol this explanation is the most intuitive to me lol
at first i thought amc 12 tests were difficult af
but after realizing the solutions they don't seem that hard at all
so (1-3^7)/(1-3)
1-3^8
let us say
$S_n = ar^0 + ar^1 + ar^2 + \cdots + ar^{n-1}$
there are n terms, as the coefficient of r ranges from 0 to n-1
hm gimmie a sec
wait
Oxide:
the nth term is a*r^(n-1)
yeah
n-1 = 7
n = 8
good
is that a general rule i must remember
when summing a geo seq always use n - 1 to find n then use the formula and voila
i suppose yes
but you can derive it
$$S_n = ar^0 + ar^1 + ar^2 + \cdots + ar^{n-1}$$
$$r S_n = ar^1 + ar^2 + \cdots + ar^{n-1} + ar^{n}$$
$$(1-r)S_n = a - ar^n = a(1-r^n)$$
$$S_n = \frac{a(1-r^n)}{1-r}$$
Oxide:
telescoping?
yeah
how do ppl find the time to derive stuff during a test lol
oh ic
lol it feels nice finally understanding a problem you've been confused about for a while ha
indeed
;-;
This is the elementary proof to the twin prime conjecture
no its not
fake
more like just getting a math degree
this guy's been putting cranky proofs and papers in the server for a bit
Again, if you have results worth publishing, don't put them on viXra. Convince a PhD program and you'll get in.
I'm having trouble coming up with a more straightforward proof to show:
for the euler-totient function
I found the smallest integer x = 35.
Right now I have a proof by cases:
proof by cases 0-34 LOL
oh no LMFAO
okay so
I use the property that phi(x) = phi(a)phi(b)
so I have 4 cases of factors of 24
(1, 24) , (2, 12), (4, 6), and (8, 3)
and then I eliminate the other cases to show that phi(a) and phi(b) have to equal 4 or 6 respectively
so phi(5)*phi(7) = phi(35)
Just consider the divisors of 24 such that if you add one to the divisor you get a prime
but I'm pretty sure I can do this in a more simpler way
hmmm how would I back that up?
why look for something d + 1 --> prime?
We haven't entirely finished going through all equivalent formulas + theorem's of the phi funct
Could someone please help me understand the first solution
I don't understand why c -1 must be a perfect square at all
i think i get why c -1 and k both have 9 solutions
<@&286206848099549185>
huh thanks
How can I find all positive integers m such that gcd(m, 2×(n)!+1)=1 for all positive integers n?
I know that 1 and any power of 2 is an answer (as 2×(n)!+1 is odd) but are there any others?
m being even will work. primes will also work most primes will work
Well the solution is fully determined by the prime solutions
Since ab is a solution iff a and b are solutions
Generally factorials and divisibility are pretty hard so there approaches to this are very limited. By Wilson we know (p-1)! = -1 (mod p) thus (p-3)!*(-1)(-2) = -1 (mod p) so (p-3)! = -1/2 (mod p) i.e 2(p-3)! +1 = 0 (mod p). Therefore for p>=3 there is an integer n which makes that expression divisible by p. That means the answer is all powers of 2 only
did you just write a non integer fraction in Z/nZ
No, it's Z/pZ 😛
the fact that you wrote all that text makes confuses me. are you being sarcastic or no
What no this is a perfectly valid solution
1/2 means the inverse of 2 modulo p
Since we're investigating prime p
yeah sorry but this step is unnecessary and is completely false
saying (p-3)! = -1/2 mod p is the same as saying : in Z/pZ class of (p-3)! = class of (-1/2)
that's contradicting the definition of the ring
@brittle patrol
@brazen prawn you didn't introduce any p, wilsons theorem is for primes only, the question states for all n, and i don't get how, from your reasoning,, you deduced that powers of 2 are the only solutions
Well first of all (as I said earlier) the thesis can be checked for primes only
why is that
Ok so
the question clearly states for all integers n, you said
ab is solution iff a and b are solutions
Yeah, which means we can factorize it into prime numbers
we're trying to find m here
n is a fixed integer
m is the unknown
Yeah, we are trying to find m
Suppose a prime p is not a solution, as in, there's an integer n such that p|2n!+1. Then m=pk is not a solution either for any integer k, because the gcd, for that same n, will be divisible by p, and thus is >1
btw the 1/2 is kinda notation abuse indeed
but if you just replace it with what it's supposed to mean (the inverse of 2 mod p) everything works out
or if you don't want inverses this would prolly be cleaner
$2(p-3)!+1=(-1)(-2)(p-3)!+1\equiv(p-1)(p-2)(p-3)!+1=(p-1)!+1\equiv 0$ (mod p)
Gonzo17:
@brazen prawn so what you're saying is:
we have gcd(m,2n!+1) =1 then if we consider the prime factorization of
m=some product of p's
then gcd(product of p's, 2n!+1)=1
if you take any p from that product
you get gcd(p,2n!+1) =1
Yeah!
hello
(OP here)
Thanks a lot for the solution!
No logs, can be transcendental
Actually $\ln n$ is transcendental for all $n>1$, $n\in\mathbb{N}$
Gonzo17:
Generally it's very hard to prove that a number is transcendental
Powers of the form $a^b$ are transcendental where $a, b>0$ are algebraic, $b$ is irrational and $a\ne 0, 1$
Gonzo17:
,help
A brief description and guide on how to use me was sent to your DMs! Please use ,list to see a list of all my commands, and ,help cmd to get detailed help on a command!
are there infinitely many primes of the form n!+1?
or perhaps the product of the first n primes + 1
yap
i solved riemann's hypothesis and found the exact formula to calculate how many prime numbers there are
so for example
if you enter x as 2 it displays f(x) = 1
and if you enter x as 3 it displays f(x) = 2
and if you enter x as 5 it displays f(x) = 3
and x as 7 displays f(x) = 4
and if you enter for example x = 6 it displays f(x) = 3.5
but if you just look at the whole number (or always round down)
then that is how many prime numbers there are
so 3 prime numbers can be found when looking at 6
2, 3, and 5
etc
and i also found out that division by 0 is equal to 0 in all cases
so like
100 + (100/0) = 100
because it's saying 100 + 0 = 100
100 = 100
and also with the calculation on how many prime numbers there are it can be used to very quickly figure out where the next prime number is located at
seems false
division by zero is 0
claims solution to riemann hypothesis
What does it say for x=100?
i solved riemann's hypothesis and found the exact formula to calculate how many prime numbers there are
um... no you didnt
im drowning in the salt
but seriously this is the second crank I've seen on this server
the other was also on the nt channel iirc
the other guy claimed to solve twin prime i think
and he also claimed to have found a simpler solution to fermats last
do we get many cranks on this server?
hmmmmm so I just took my nt exam, and I couldn't finish 3 proofs ):. I got super close for two of them, and then the third one sorta ran out of time. This one is bugging me:
so first we're given that $$ h = \frac{\vert ab \vert}{(a, b)}$$ ( which is least common multiple)
and then we're asked to prove
dk:
prove if $$a \vert m \mbox{ and } b \vert m, \mbox { then } h \vert m$$
dk:
I was able to show that
dk:
but not h | m : /
Any general idea?
I can write out/pm my attempted solution if you guys can extrapolate something from it 
There's another student in my class here but I think it's fine to share since I'm pretty sure everyone took the exam
Try dividing m by h with remainder and prove the remainder has to be 0
hmmm okie lemme try playing around it with it
hm³
:hmmmm:
@sonic mirage you've probably already figured it out by know but here's a neat trick in case you don't know it yet
so the question is basically to prove that gcd*lcm=|ab|
from that you can directly deduce that h=lcm
so anyway let d = gcd and m = lcm
let a' and b' in Z such that a=a'd and b=b'd. factoring by d gives us
(^)md = lcm(a,b)xgcd(a,b)= d^2xlcm(a',b')xgcd(a',b') = d^2lcm(a',b')
---now by definiton we know that lcm(a',b') divides ab since its its the smallest multiple. and on the other hand since (a',b')=1, a' divides lcm and b' divides lcm so a'b' divides lcm(a',b')---
so we've just proved that lcm(a',b') =a'b'
.going back to (^) we find
md = d^2(a'b') =(da')(db') = ab
so h=m
Anyone here into Math olympiad? ?
yeah #competition-math
f(x) = ax2 + bx + c is a non-constant polynomial
assume a b c are integers, and prove that there are infinitely many integers n such that f(n) is composite
how do you do this problem?
Hint: assume there are a finite number.
Rephrase:no non constant polynomial can have only prime values
Almost.
@noble jay Sorry for not seeing it earlier but holy shit
tbh I would have never been able to manipulate what I knew to get that
it took me some time to digest too oof
those are some trippy manipulations 
I need more proof practice & need to nail my fundamentals so I get the hang of finding those tricks 
it's likely there were other solutions as well fooey
Hey, I've been interested in the Duodecimal counting system and what implications it could have. Let me know of anyone else is interested in this topic.
Hi! Does anyone knows good materials about the theme full reptend prime?
Does saying that a/b is in lowest terms mean the same thing as saying "a/b such that a and b are coprime"?
Is anyone familiar with why casting out nines works
Yes to your first question
For your second question, what do you know about modular arithmetic @sweet apex
Is this channel (math area) for prime numbers?
Btw I had a math teacher who didnt know about casting out nine, somehow I thought riemmann’s hypothesis could be solved using that lol
@leaden peak I’m familiar with congruencies and stuff
Ok
Think about a given number
You can represent it as the sum of each digit multiplied by a given number of 10
So 5673 is 10^3 * 5 + 10^2 * 6 + 10 * 7 + 10^0 *3
But what is any power of 10 mod 9?
Question:
Let x and y be real numbers. For the purposes of this problem, we define x -> y to mean “there is some nonnegative real number h such that y=x+h.” Using this definition, prove that if x and y are nonnegative real numbers and x->y, then x^2->y^2
How would i begin to proof that ;-;
y=x+h
y²=x²+2xh+h²
y²=x²+k where k=2xh+h² is nonnegative real number
yup
do you need help or?
@sacred junco take powers of 2 and reduce mod 11. The first time you get 1 will be the 10th power
Fermat big poop 😤
Is there a formula for the proportion of primite roots mod p ??? where p is prime
actually, nvm I think I figured it out
phi(p-1)/(p-1)
that's assuming you want the proportion excluding 0
if you want the proportion including 0, it's phi(p-1)/p
yeah, that's what I got, trick was to spot (Z/pZ)* is cyclic so it has a generator "a"
then it's just a question of knowing when (a^i) has order p-1
which is exactly when gcd(i, p - 1) = 1 for each i
so phi(p-1)
^w^
Let $m=dx$ and $n=dy$, where $d=\gcd(m,n)$, clearly $\gcd(x^5-y^5,xy)=1$
Rumoden:
Rumoden:
$ \text{first realize that x and y are coprime} \ \gcd(x^5 - y^5 , xy) = 1 \iff \gcd(x-y, xy) = 1 \text{ and } \\gcd(x^4 + xy^3 + x^2y^2 + xy^3 + y^4, xy) = 1 \ \text{we will first prove that } \gcd(x, x-y) \text{ and } \gcd(y, x-y) = 1 \ \gcd(x, x-y) = \gcd(x, -y) = 1 \text{ and use the same reasoning for } \gcd(y, x-y) \ \text{next, we prove } \gcd(xy, x^4 + xy^3 + x^2y^2 + xy^3 + y^4) = 1 \ \gcd(xy, x^4 + xy^3 + x^2y^2 + xy^3 + y^4) = \gcd(xy, x^4 + y^4) \ \text{since } \gcd(x, x^4 + y^4) \text{ and } \gcd(y, x^4 + y^4) = 1, \gcd(xy, x^4 + y^4) = 1 \text{ and we're done} $
oh jeez idk how this bot works
oh well just ignore the formatting 😂
Plum:
@low jolt
Thankzz!
@stuck lintel god putting \text everywhere looks painful
just use ,tex to start as if it was a normal document and use $s to enter/exit mathmode as needed like
,tex first realise that $x$ and $y$ are coprime so that [\gcd (x^5-y^5,xy)=1\iff \gcd (x-y,xy)=1] so then .... $\gcd (xy,x^4+y^4)=1$ and we're done.
That helps, thanks
is this not just ref alpha?
😮
it's ref 3alpha
oh god
<@&286206848099549185>
😎

but yes
Sorry
part 1 i showed that that rot ref rot is just ref 3 alpha
so basically
ref 3alpha = ref alpha when alpha=npi
so ref 3npi = ref npi ????
@unique lion does this devil maths make sense to you 😮
so we have polar coordinates (r,theta)
ref a (r,theta) = (r, alpha - theta)
rot a (r,theta) = (r, alpha + theta)
What is alpha
they're transformations of (r,theta)
alpha is just any angle
to translate the coordinates, not transform lol
sec
@sacred junco oh ok
Got it
So you must have a property pertaining to the periodicity of theta right
Angles
Ok I know I can solve this but I need to read up on accepted axioms
Sec
Oof
When are two points equal?
@sacred junco
when their coordinates are the same i guess
r is the length from the origin (0,0)
theta is the angle made anticlockwise with the positive x axis
Yes ik
so yeah
2 points must be equal when r=r and theta= 2npi + theta where n is an integer
I have 4 minutes to write the proof 😎
Wait why only 4
Lol
Haha
@sacred junco i have no idea how this relates to number theory but the way i would do it, is define rot and ref as complex functions based on what you have given
so basically for complex z rot a maps z to z*exp(ialpha)
same thing with ref a and then it's just algebra from there
@noble jay oh yeah where do you get your number theory problems from?
Anyone got any good resources on modular arithmetic? Especially proofs involving standard mod stuff, Fermat's little theorem, eulers totient function and Wilson's theorem
@plush narwhal mit ocw. look up theory of numbers
it has everything you can think of
also don't just read the proofs of theorems like that otherwise you would be memorizing them just to forget them after a while, try to think about them first if you got nothing ask for a hint. just don't look up the complete solution
@noble jay Cheers. Do you have any tips for those weird proof questions?
Examples?
exactly. plug in some numbers maybe you'll see a pattern of some sort.
also usually in elementary nt most problems come down to some basic group theory properties and stuff like that
@nova void https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hackenbush
Hi how do i prove that the euler's totient function is multiplicative?
Without matrix.or rings or that stuff
<@&286206848099549185>
@sacred junco https://forthright48.com/2015/09/euler-totient-or-phi-function.html This seems like the most intuitive way not using Ring theory, although I'm curious why you wanna prove it without Rings? 
... actually, I might not have answered your question xD just read the "without matrices" part, and this method uses an n by m table
theres one that uses dirichlet products
tho i guess it is a non elementary proof
if you want an elementary proof then
$\phi(n)=n\prod_{p|n} \left(1-\frac{1}{p}\right)$
and you can prove this by induction
but wait actually, this proof uses the mobius function...

Some parenthesis are missing.
rockpaperscissors:
i just realized ive never seen an elementary proof of euler’s totient being multiplicative

It's multiplicative for coprime numbers.
well that is what multiplicative means...
ok but ill assume what i said above is true without proof
$\phi(nm)=nm\prod_{p|nm} \left(1-\frac{1}{p}\right)$
rockpaperscissors:
where n and m are coprime
Split the product since p divides n or m not both.
by euclid’s lemma, if p|nm then p|n or p|m
Yes.
i've seen a simple proof before by considering the set A(n) = {k ∈ [|0, n − 1|], k ∧ n = 1}.
and then the function
f : A(mn) → A(m) × A(n)
x → (r, s)
where r and s are respectively the rests of the division of x by m and n
if you prove that f is bijective you're done
$\phi(nm)=\left(n\prod_{p|n} \left(1-\frac{1}{p}\right)\right) \left(m\prod_{p|m}\left(1-\frac{1}{p}\right)\right)$
rockpaperscissors:
Perfect.
oh yeah that is a nice proof dusty
because two sets that are finite and have a bijection between them have the same cardinal
so card(A(mn))=card(A(n))xcard(A(n)) thus phi(mn)=phi(n)phi(m)
Ok that caused brew up a conversation lol
@gilded tinsel rereading what you wrote. unless you've proven that phi(n) = n times that product without using it's multiplicity, then it seems to me that you've just used the result to prove the question. so i don't agree with you assuming that it's true
how would you prove that equality
which i wouldnt regard as elementary
can you write down the main idea?
yeah
i'm not very familiar with the mobius function so i'm curious
so you can do this by induction
i need help with functions
the idea is that if you expand the product you get
nvm
$\sum_{d|n} \frac{\mu(d)}{d}$
rockpaperscissors:
rockpaperscissors:
so from this the product form follows
but now we have to prove this
thankfully you can do this in an elementary way
do you know any basic resutls on the mobius function?
expand the product
you’ll get $1-\sum \frac{1}{p_i}+\sum \frac{1}{p_i p_j}-\cdots + \frac{(-1)^m}{p_i p_j\cdots p_m}$
rockpaperscissors:
m is the number of distinct prime divisirs of n
compare this with $\sum_{d|n} \frac{\mu(d)}{d}$
rockpaperscissors:
theyre the same. Do you see why?
its a nice exercise to prove $\phi(n)=\sum_{d|n} \mu(d)\frac{n}{d}$
rockpaperscissors:
it doesnt require any other esoteric function
just some summation trickery
and this result $\sum_{d|n} \mu(n)=\left[\frac{1}{n}\right]$
rockpaperscissors:
(which you could also prove)
How does mod work exactly
Let's say you're working in a mod 4 algebra.
Take a number. Divide it by 4, and keep the remainder. All numbers with that remainder are "the same number" as long as mod 4 is concerned
For example
1 ≡ 5 ≡ 9 ≡ 13 (mod 4)
Because all of those numbers leave remainder 1 after division by 4. So we say they are "equivalent" which is what ≡ means
The remainder is always positive but the quotient can be negative?
I'm trying to learn a bit about lattices re: cryptography applications and in some introductory coursework I found (https://homepages.cwi.nl/~dadush/teaching/lattices-2018/) there's reference to the volume of a set - which I think means the Lebesgue measure. Is that something I should have an intimate understanding of to continue pursuing lattices or is "Lebesgue measure is sort of analogous to 3d volume" good enough? Not very familiar with measure theory and I don't want to waste time going down the wrong rabbit hole
@swift shard thanks. Btw u know of any good sites for anyone getting into number theory
<@&286206848099549185>
where's the reference to volume?
i see one in the first lecture that talks about volume in R^n
that's what I'm referring to
@gilded tinsel would actually like an elementary proof if possible
Cant we just like do the prime factorisation for each no
Then show the product's totient=totient of 1st no.*......*totient of nth no
well i dont think that’s any easier to prove
i dunno i cant think of any elementary proof
though dusty’s idea may work
well actually i just realised
$\phi(n)=n\prod_{p|n} \left(1-\frac{1}{p}\right)$
rockpaperscissors:
going back to that
it can be interpreted as saying
$\prod_{p|n} \left(1-\frac{1}{p}\right)$ of the n integers from one to n is coprime to n
rockpaperscissors:
so maybe some sort of proabilitic argument may work using inclusion exclusion
ahh wait the bijection in dusty’s proof is basically chinese remainder theorem
So lemme get this straight - a residue class over a is just the equivalence class over the equivalence relation xRy : x =y mod a, right?
OK lol
My professor just switched gears from equivalence relations to residue classes and wanted to make sure I wasn't crazy
What does it mean for a sequence to be o(1/n)? and O(1/n)?
I'm reading something which says if a_n is o(1/n) then that is the same as n*a_n -> 0, but then what would it the equivalence be for the Big O?
Also for little o, shouldnt it mean that a_n < 1/n (for large n)? In that case shouldnt it be that n*a_n< 1 ?
Because in that case, big O would give , a_n =< 1/n, so n*a_n =< 1
$a_n=O(b_n)$ means there exists a sequence $(c_n)$ defined for $n$ in a neighbourhood of infinity that's bounded and such that for all $n$ in said neighbourhood, $a_n=b_nc_n$
Tuong:
or, with less words, $\left(\frac{a_n}{b_n}\right)_{\in\bbN}$ is bounded
Tuong:
but that sequence (an/bn) isn't always well defined as bn could be 0 for some n, so a better def requires not to divide by bn at all
Oh and a_n/b_n is bounded if the limit n->inf of (a_n/b_n) = 0
oh nvm
but given that b_n = 1/n
then i can do t hat right?
im trying to understand tauber's theorem, and it uses o(1/n) as a requirenment for a_n
then a_n=O(1/n) just means (na_n) bounded
yea
ah ok
cool
and so thats why it said that its the same as n*a_n -> 0
because that implies that the sequence converges
oh wait
no
or
that's for little o?
if you have little o, then you also have big O
indeed
so it fails the requirenment for a_n=o(1/n) (little o)
and how do i show th at it also fails/passes big O?
so in that case is a_n = O(1/n)?
hmm, but a_n/b_n where b_n = 1/n gives
n*1/n = 1
and {1} isnt bounded
ogh wait
im stupid
ok
i got it
=]
i brain derped
i kept thinking that the sequence {1} is a sum..
soryr
so yea thank you ❤
You're welcome ( ^_^)
^_^
Let U_n be the group of units mod n
Let Q_n = { [a] in U_n : a is a quadratic residue mod n }
A step in my lecture notes says, for f > 3, If [a] is in Q_2^f then [a] is in Q_8
Why is this true?
OHHHH, I got it
Can use the "identity" (or backwards inclusion xD whatever it's called) ring homomorphism f: Z_2^f -> Z_8 to show:
If [x]^2 = [a]
then f([x])^2 = f([a])
Let gcd(m,n)=1;A={x|0<=x<=(n-1) and x is prime to m} and B ={x|0<=x<=(n-1) and x is prime to n}.If C={na+mb|a€A and b€B} then prove that C assumes all the values x,0<=x<=mn-1,x is prime to mn,read modulo mn
@cobalt birch i need specifically your help here
U teach complex things very simply
<@&286206848099549185>
Does somebody know a page with a list of number theory stuff? idk (I'm at a number theory problem rn and I have no idea what i should even try)
what’s the problem
@vast vessel trust me it just looks long lol..its elementary number theory
@sacred junco is B supposed to be all x from 0 to m-1 that are coprime to n instead?
woulda tried to helped sooner but was busy sry
@stuck lintel I want to solve it myself. Give me time till 5th March after the 5th i'm posting it (It's a competition problem)
@fast monolith we won't spoil if you share it
K we can do that
In the decimal representation of 2sqrt = 1.4142... Isabelle finds a sequence of k consecutive zeros, where k is a positive integer. Proof: The first zero of this sequence is at the k-th position after the decimal point at the earliest.
.
Translated with DeepL so yeah tell me if something is wrong
a little hint maybe
it would already help me if you would tell me where i could find anything related to this
so if there's a sequence of a bunch of zeroes in a real number
that means you can write it as some rational + some tiny error
you don't need zeroes to do this, but specifically when there's k zeroes at position, i don't know, pick a letter, p,
the error is very tiny compared to the rest of the number
the situation is going to look like $\sqrt2 = \frac{a}{10^p} + \epsilon$ for $\epsilon < \frac{1}{10^{p+k}}$ (i might have off-by-oned some of the exponents here, sue me)
tubular:
that'd mean a/10^p is a pretty darn good rational approximation to sqrt2, wouldn't it?

ok gonna try this
@jolly comet 15 mins over and I have no idea what you were trying to tell me with this

do you just wanted to show me another way of presenting 2sqrt?
rational approximations are one of the basic topics of number theory
k
there's a lot written about them, especially with respect to irrational numbers like sqrt2
if you aren't currently savvy it's time to do some research and get savvy
alright
remember: if they gave this to you as a problem that means it has a solution
if they said "prove or disprove" it would be a different story, but they said "prove"
some positive integer
but then it's not sqrt2
$\sqrt2 = \frac{a}{10^p} + \epsilon$
tubular:
a is a positive integer
p is a positive integer
epsilon is a real at most 10^-p
if you have k zeroes in sqrt 2 starting at position p, you can make epsilon smaller by k factors of ten
a/10^p is meant to be a rational approximation
@rockpaperscissors#4131 its not a problem but i still havent solved it
And uh B can have any x corresponding the the values of the set phi(m)
@gilded tinsel
and for A its all values corresponding to phi(n) right?
first thing prove that na+mb is coprime to mn
hint: suppose a prime divides both mn and na+mb and then use euclid’s lemma
Yeah no thats sorted
If p|mn then it divides either m or n
So if its divides it needs to divide b
And b will be from the set of phi (n) numbers
Oh no wait
@gilded tinsel i hit a wall
Lolaoalolao
Uh (na+mb)/mn=a/m+b/n and gcd (a,m)=1
And gcd (b,n)=1
So they both must be coprime
p|mn implies p|m or p|n
if p|m then na+mb=na (mod p) or if p|n then na+mb=mb (mod p)
in the first case if p|n this contradicts gcd(m,n)=1 so p|a
but this means that gcd(m,a)=p which is again a contradiction
similarly for the second case
hence na+mb and mn are coprime
@sacred junco
now onto the second part of the problem
we need to prove that no two elements of C are have the same residue mod mn
recall what it means for two numbers s and t to have the same residue mod k
$k|s-t$
rockpaperscissors:
so take two distinct elements of C, assume their difference is divisible by mn and derive a contradiction
as a hint: the contradiction will have something to do with the maximum size of the sets A and B
@gilded tinsel i didnt jse congruences but my proof also works right?..im just confirming if it is correct
Also I have literally no clue how to do this
But as far as i see it its not possible for mn to divide a number less than itself..
So the difference must be less than mn-1
So like a number cant divide a no. Smaller than itself right?
well yes but thats not relevant here
whats relevant is the residue classes
also i dont understand how ur first proof works
Ok ..uh the book doesnt cover anything like residue classes so uh..i mean it mightve covered it but it didnt use the exact word
Please walk me through that once
And also my proof just shows what yours does...but not in mod arithmetic rather plain division
I just checked haha
@gilded tinsel
Wait
?
U basically mean to show that each element corresponds to the set ={1,2,3,....,mn-1} right?
Like if i take a_i from the set C and x_i from the set c i just need to show x_i is not congruent to a_i to mod mn
yes
Oh dude there was a direct theorem for this i cant remember
Aaaaa
Ahh got it
No this doesnt work here
Let me try ill ping u if i cant do it in a reasonable time
Ahh yeah i got it
My internet sucks image isnt being sent
@gilded tinsel there
Also if the pings are irritating let me know
yeah thats right
youre one was a bit quicker than mine actually
you should throw the extra caveat that c_1 doesnt equal c_2
from there, do you know how to finish the proof?
I mean im never sure what to do tbh
Im still confused because we proved that it C will hit only the values in the set{1,2,3,...,mn-1},whats the guarantee it WILL hit each of them?
yeah this is the last part
the number of elements less than mn and coprime to it is phi(mn)
Yeah
Hmmhm
a has how many options?
Phi(m)
and b?
Phi(n)
so how many altogether
Oh so phi(m) times phi(n)
Actually thats the follow up question
I need to prove that phi is mulitplicative using this question
hmm
But hey we know
We have phi(m) times phi(n) choices forC
And we also know we have phi(mn) choices for C by the facts given in the question
So phi (mn)=phi(m)*phi(n)
Done i guess
well no
thats circular
cuz to finish the proof i need the multiplicativity of phi which we havent proved
Ok so uh we prove this question by multiplicativity and then prove multiplicativity by this question?
thats what you tried to do
so if you want to prove phi is miltiplicative by this question
Yeah exactly
then we need to find another way
Oh man
Ahh too bad
ill try working on it tho
Best of luck man!
sum big thonkering to do
Haha yeah
thx
english was really fun tbh xD
anyway, I can't start that conversation here, not number theory
Let p be an odd prime. Show that x^4 + 1 ≡ 0 mod p has a solution iff x^8 ≡ 1 mod p
because "=>" obvious, and "<=" we have [x]∈ U_p (the cyclic group of units), and cyclic groups of even order have a unique element of order 2 (in this case it's [-1]) so x^4 ≡ -1 mod p
Now x^k ≡ 1 mod p iff the order of [x] divides k
this follows from the remainder theorem as k = q(order of [x]) + r where r = 0 or 0 < r < (order of [x]), then x^k = x^(q(order of [x]) + r) = x^r ≡ 1 mod p, which can only happen if r = 0
Finally using fermats little theorem, x^(p-1) ≡ 1 mod p, so the order of [x] which is 8 divides p-1, hence p - 1 ≡ 0 mod 8, hence p ≡ 1 mod 8```
(edit: only showed x^4 ≡ -1 mod p implies p ≡ 1 mod 8 )
Oh I forgot it's In This channel lol
I could have put it in advanced number theory
@stark vapor but what is x, again?
should probably state x is an integers xD
what about it?
Then x^4 == -1 can't be like this
Thus x is restricted or it is like there exists x or sth
if x = p then x^4 and x^8 are 0 mod p
give example 
so (x^4 = -1 mod p) and (x^8 = 1 mod p) are both false
Counterexample of (<=) case
Oof the original problem isn't here
This was a solution for this problem - sasha said this.
question 1 (2 marks): show for p an odd prime, x^4 + 1 ≡ 0 mod p, iff, p ≡ 1 mod 8
oh derp
What is x here 
It has given no qualifiers, no whatsoever
there
fixed
xD I was wondering what you guys were saying, but yeah I didn't state it correctly
Ah, so existence. I see
So p = 1 (mod 8) then you just simply take the primal root g
And x = g^(p-1/8)
Maybe it's just enough to say, multiplicative group of Z_p is isomorphic to additive group of Z_(p-1)
Then only need to state that |-1| = 2
Dun like number theory
I'm trying that in the set {1^2, 2^2, ..., m^2}, there are two elements that are congruent modulo m (for m > 2)
any hints?
oh nvm I'm just stupid
m | (m-1)^2 - 1, I forgot that (-1)^2 = 1
@sacred junco i figure if you can prove that phi(m)*phi(n)>=phi(mn) this woukd imply theyre equal
also i bombed my english test
Rip
Also i can at best prove they are equal using what i did before
But tbh lets just assume it in fact is multiplicative..this book is whack af
@sacred junco want a proof that phi's multiplicative ?
this is a proof that our teacher showed us and i later saw it in a book as well
Yeah the matrix proof
I guess then let's take it that it is multiplicative
@gilded tinsel what next?
Phi(m)*phi(n)=phi(mn)
there are phi(mm) elements of C
there are phi(mn) numbers less than mn and coprime to mm
all the elements of C are in different residue classes mm and all elements of C are coprime with mn
if exact form of prime counting function exists, doesn't that means that pi(x) - pi(x-1) is 0 for non-prime and 1 for prime
yes it does
"if exact form of prime counting function exists"
what
"pi(x) - pi(x-1) is 0 for non-prime and 1 for prime"
by definition this is true?
maybe they meant that if pi(x) were expressible in closed form then so would the indicator function of the set of primes?
but there is a closed form expression of prime counting function
This works for example
Well, maybe it depends on how you define "closed form"
But it's computable in a finite number of steps
Because I just gave you one?
In mathematics, a closed-form expression is a mathematical expression that can be evaluated in a finite number of operations. It may contain constants, variables, certain "well-known" operations (e.g., + − × ÷), and functions (e.g., nth root, exponent, logarithm, trigonom...
Unless you don't allow rounding and factorial in your closed form expression
more so that there is not a fixed amount of operations
It's just multiplication
Factorial is closed form bb
Factorial sequence was a closed form?
what natural sequence isn't a close form then
Every elements of natural sequence takes finite time to evaluate

@vast vessel whi
Can someone explain past Let b_l = last b_i != 1 (mod n)...
In particular I don't understand the line after that
@surreal shuttle it is mixing english with equation lol
Yeah but I still don't get what my professor is trying to say
Ah that
@surreal shuttle that is trivial though?
Do you get what he means by 'last b_i such that b_i != 1 (mod n)' ?
Mmm no I don't
Hm yeah
I guess that would be k-1?
Do you get what b_i is then?
Oh
So k-1 = i = l?
Just kind of by how it's defined if b_k = b_k-1 ^2 = 1, then it would just make sense that l = k-1
I guess I don't have a good reason besides that
Yeah
Then do you know how sequence b is defined?
squaring the previous term?
Ye but do you know what you mean when you say 'the previous term'
Let's suppose wr have a nontrivial relation a^r = 1 (mod n)
Do you know what this means?
Also do you know what r even means?
r is even?

