#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 43 of 1
Ur other question
Wait which other question?
Then after n is a prime it doesn’t work, show that it doesn’t work for n= p to n=2p-1
Ur original one
Think about p!
As a common denominator
X cap N = N
Dude thats basically bertrand's postulate.
It’s not
the series 1/n is divergent
the series 1/n grows without bound, meaning it will eventually hit every natural number
It will eventually go above every natural number. Whether or not it hits any of them isn't so simple
X=1^-1+2^-1+......+N^-1
oh right it might not hit them
We want such a number to be natural
So its pretty clear n=1
But does that prove it?
No
Pick a prime p.
1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + ... + 1/p is pretty clearly not an integer.Assume it is an integer, and we can make a common denominator as follows: (p! + p!/2 + p!/3 + ... p!/(p-1) + (p-1)! ) / p!
All terms of the numerator are divisible by p except for the last one which isn't (because p is prime, duh). Therefore the numerator isn't divisible by p and can't be divisible by p!.
Now, fixing p, we prove 1 + 1/2 + ... + 1/x is not an integer for p <= x <= 2p-1, by the same argument... the numerator of the common-denominator-expression contains exactly one term that's not divisible by p, therefore the sum of the numerator isn't divisible by p and the fraction isn't an integer.
from friend of mine
@sacred junco
Hmm interesting arguement
And also spot on.
But how would u conclude ur answer from that?
Im dumb af so yeah
Why do u do this for a prime?
Well thats what i would do.
And prove it wont be an integer for n+1
And then make the final case unless n=0
idk it was more intuitive for me
cuz i do olympiad so i think based on prime numbers
Ok so ill do it for naturals
Essentially the same arguement as yours.
I still havent figured out what u meant by. p/2p and p/2p-1
Idk the reference so......
1 is an integer.
suppose the sum to k-1, call it S, is an integer.
then, the sum to k is
S + 1/k.
suppose this is rational, then
S+1/k = a/b
where b>1 and gcd(a,b)=1
then
S(bk) = ak -1
k(a-Sb) = 1
so k|1, but k>1, a contrqdiction
$$\frac{p}{2p}, \frac{p}{2p-1}$$
does this work ?
All terms of the numerator are divisible by p except for the last one which isn't (because p is prime, duh). Therefore the numerator isn't divisible by p and can't be divisible by p!.
replicate thta
for p to 2p-1
@graceful notch yeah i think so..thats what i also said
@silent lantern what good will that do? Sorry if im being intolerable but i serioisly dk
well i dont wanna spoil teh question
Dm
for u
Ive already solved it now with the nartural no.arguement.
lemme see if what @graceful notch posted works
Plus yaya's soln is basically the same as mine.
i dont think it's riggt actually lol
Yeah if that doesnt work then im wrong too.
uep whoops
Its equal to b
b=k(a-sb)
for what
for the questiob
k|b not b|k
Nopes.
k|b means k is a factor of b
Ok hold up u guys.
idk lel
not the other way round
S+1/k=a/b
where S is an integer
the proof cannot be right
1 + 1/2 is not an integer
he assumed its an integer to get a contradictino
Ok.
imao @graceful notch we're trying to prove it doesnt become an integer
The hell are we doing.
Ok see
1/x+1/y can never be an integer for x,y>2
Easily provable by induction
ohh i thought u were doing the sum of reciprocals
Nah not by induction.
Wait wait hold up.
Let me write this stuff.
If i cant do it
The. Please tell me ur complete method
a8
k
Read 2nd then 1st.
@silent lantern
The last bit isnt that rigorous but i had no clue how to prove thag
I mean the stuff on 2nd page.
@sacred junco NOTATION PROBLEMS
Wdym?
oops brain freeze
Because its wrong right?
so what u did is u assumed if n is an integer and sum is not integer
brb get off train
Dont bother its wrong.
yh it had a logic problem
No.
imao u assumed it was not an integer
A case exists which contradicts my proof
then proved it wasnt an integer
n is defined to be a natural number
ok nvm ur proof works
needs some tweaking
supupose sum from n=1 to n=k is not an integer
proof that for n=k+1 its not an integer
n ure done by strong induction
anyone know how to solve (5000001 * 1468162901)^11 ≡ x mod 33?
well, since it's a lot of big numbers, i'll just assume that the size of the number doesn't matter, so we can generalize the equation
(ab)^c ≡ x mod 33
have to find the smallest nonnegative integer x
It’s Chinese remainder theorem @brave steeple
U know the number is 0 mod 3
And it’s also -5 mod 11
Which means it’s 6 mod 33
6 mod 33 to the power of 1468162901
Can be done by same method
Reduce the power mod 33 by the same method through considering mod 3 and mod 11. Compute the final simplified power, and do that mod 3
So ive solved 10,11,12,14
But 13 is sets which i have no knowledge of.
And 9th i can figure out
Need a little boost of idea.
@silent lantern
@sacred junco in other words, their intersection will be the numbers which can be represented simultaneously either as a sum of 7 , 8 or 9 consecutive integers
So if u let a + a+ 1 ... + a+6= b+b+1 ... +b+7= c +c+1 ... +c+8
Where a b c are integers, what do u get
7a=8b+7=9c+8
But they didnt use different variables.
In all the sets its the same n.
@silent lantern
Oh ok.
The sum is equal
Yeah i get it.
Currently trying to solve it.
But there are two equations and three unknowns
So im using divisibilty.
Uhh there are three equations
Not it that way man.
But i think i can solve this now
Big thanks for the help!
Now lets start 9th
No I mean u equate a and v, b and c and a and c
Thats what im doing.
Uh just contact a problem manager
Personal preference.=senpai or gomez or woog
So i found solutions @silent lantern
a=89
b=77
c=9
No sorry thats wrong.
It’s literally plug n chug
Holy hell what am i doing.
8 is too small
I had the habit too lol
nameception?
@sacred junco Entire write up. 0 errors for real this time
the 1 u last gave me
Kk
Need help with Groups/Rings/Fields. If anyone can help me please DM me 😦
@ornate crater
You'll get a much better response on the server, a lot of people know abs alg here.
Hmm okay. I'd show that a solution exists and then prove it is unique. 😃
A start ...
Lemma: Let B be the set {x: x = sk + r} where s, r, and k are integers and s > 0 and 0 <= r < s. WTS B includes Every integer.
Does B include 0? Yes k = 0, t = 0 works.
Assuming B includes j, does b include j + 1?
For j we have a particular s, k, r. If r + 1 < s, then (s, k, r+1) works. If not r + 1 < s, r+1 Must equal s (since r and r+1 are consecutive integers there is no way s is less than one and greater than the other ... there is no way there is an integer s between consecutive integers r and r + 1), and s, k+1, 0 works.
So if it works for j, it works for j+1.
Similarly if it works for j, it works for j-1.
And we have a "two-tailed" induction so ALL integers > 0 and ALL integers < 0 and all integers = 0 work!
So all integers are in set B.
Uniqueness: suppose by way of contradiction s2, k2, r2 and s2, k2, r2 both work.
That is there exists c such that c = s2k2 + r2 and c = s1k1 + r1 ... with all the other restrictions.
hello
can anyone help me with a few excersises
I've kinda forgot about them and they're due in 1 hour..
is the following true with all sets A, B and C:
$$A \cup C = B \cup C \Rightarrow A = B$$
False.
well, how do I write the proof for it?
Imagine A and B are both subsets of C. Then A ∪ C = B ∪ C, but it's not necessary that A = B
whats i+1?
It's 1 + i
whats that equal to?
(error sorry!)
Ye I would say false
Draw a venn diagram and look at it
Would prove false by illustration
Can anyone help me out understanding vector spaces?
Like if something is in R^3 does that mean its not a vector space if one of the elements is not in R^3? Like in R^2?
If say the condition said V was a vector space in R^3?
@sacred junco a good idea to realise is that R^2 would be our normal cartesian coordinate system
and that its a vector space
with this visualisation, although it is hard to picture R^n, but i hope it eliminates on some of the definitions of x^i in R^n
i realize i worded my question a little strangely; I think I meant P^3 and not R^3
but thank you @silent lantern
ok
hi guys, is it ok to ask a question here? math related of course
Fråga bara
quick question: if W is a subspace of R^2, it must contain the vector (0, 0)
im assuming no but i remembered a vector space must contain 2 proper subspaces which are the zero subspace and itself
yea needs the 0 vector
for R^2 the zero vector would be (0,0) and if it's a subspace you have the zero vector is in W
what if the subspace is defined as (x, x) where x is greater than 0?
would it still have (0, 0)?
or if they do not specify can we just assume (0, 0) is there
the 0 vector would always be present yeah
wait
no
it wouldn't be a subspace then
ooh
Vector space is a group
that makes things much more solid for me
thank you @jovial spindle
do you mind if i ask ye another question within the same veil?
shoot it
You can use t!rep @Ping to give a person rep
t!rep @jovial spindle for being so helpful
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my next question is about a vector space in the P_n group
if P_k is a subspace of P_n, is P_j a a subspace of P_k?
i thought not because P_k could be (1, 1 ,1 ,1) and p_j being (1, 1, 1)
i think i should note P_k is said to be the set of all polynomials of degree less than or equal to k with standard operations
im assuming based on how my text words the problem it actually is but i have no idea how to prove it
yeah
sorry I don't necessarily know the notation but I know you're talking about the set of polynomials
i could take a picture for you to read the problem; i might of butchered my shortening of it
well I'd think of it this way, you could have any ai set to 0 for any x^i where i>j
if that makes sense
ai?
in abstract algebra we'd always just run down the list of things for a definition if we're proving a problem like this
ai as in, p_n is of the form a_nx^n + a_(n-1)x^(n-1) ... right
oh god that got butchered
im assuming you meant 'i' but if I set x^i where i is greater than j and i is 0...
well then it's the 0 vector
0 vector on its own is trivially the subspace
of each space
you'll have additive identity, closure
oh woops
I mean to say if you consider the polynomials with degree higher than j
and make their coefficient 0
you see that polynomials of degree j are contained in those spaces
so k (0, 0, 0, 0) contains j (0, 0 , 0) so we can say j is contained in k?
er is a subspace rather*
I'd believe so, I'm not used to the particular notation because I'm generalizing from abstract algebra
but I'd imagine it's isomorphic to the same groups
so yes
if someone else could chime in that'd be more helpful probably to double check
how might you define isomorphic in this scenario?
I'd map the vector spaces in my head to how'd you represent P_n and see a 1-1 correspondence pretty quickly, so considering (a_2 x^2 , x_1 x^1 , a_0) mapping to p_2 = a_2 x^2 + a_1 x^1 + a_0
there'd be some more you'd determine specifically to see it was isomorphic and I might be missing something in looking at it as a vector space
sorry to interrogate you so; the text is dreadfully plain in explaining anything and i feel like taking everyone's bit of understanding will help me understand vector spaces
i am albeit shaky with the concept of vector spaces as i cant completely prove how a space is a vector space to begin with
such as something being in P_3 and lesser being a vector space but P_3 on its own not being a vector space
i meant P_2
P_2 is said to fail and the example my text gives is that if p(x) = x^2 and q(x) = 1 + x - x^2 you get p(x) + q(x) = 1 + x
so my vague understanding from there was that because the result is not in P_2 it is not a subspace
hmm I'm just imagining in my head you could set the coefficient for the x^2 component to 0 so I don't see why that's the case for me either, hopefully someone who can see it swoops in
since by that same logic you could claim that there's no closure for any space of k
<@&286206848099549185> could one of you explain to me how the set of all P_2 is not a vector space but the set of all P_4 and less is?
It all has to do with the fact that the coefficient of the highest order term needs to be non-zero in the first case, with the restriction lacking in the second case, making it a vector space
Groups-Rings-Fields Topic: So I understand that for a set to be a GROUP, it must follow certain properties(closure, association etc.). But what I don't get is how do I know during validation of these properties if i must use addition or multiplication for example (a+b=x) or (a.b=x) to prove these properties
A group has only one operation, so it can either be addition or multiplication
The context should make it obvious
it can be something else too
yes totally
t!rep @silver solar
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Why thank you good sir
yw
So a question
Let's say I have some arithmetic progressions
px+m
Like
5x+3
11x+2
1/p natural numbers will be members of a set created by the progression of p
If we were to count the number of naturals in the set less than n we could approximate this by n/p
I know that at most this will be off by 1
But for two or more progressions
Where the sets are joined
\frac{N-m}{p}
That
But for the intersection of two progressions, find a formula that finds their intersection
I just want to know the maximum error
Cough Chinese remainder theorem
Yeah I know
It’s still floor or ceiling functions
*floor
A set of progressions
What would be the maximum error I could expect from the frequency of occurrence in the total distribution
can anyone help me understand borel sets and open sets
or "simple" borel sets and "simple open sets"
I think this is the definition of "simple open sets" but I'm not 100% sure
$$\bigcup_{i=1}^{n}B_i$$
im having trouble understanding the twin prime conjecture
does anyone have a good understanding of it
what about it? @warped jay
i think i understand it, correct me if i'm wrong
What the 70 million means is that, if you have two consecutive prime numbers of which the gap between these two prime numbers is greater than 70 million (say the gap is x), there is a finite amount of times that this can occur, by this I mean, there are only n more times that pairs of consecutive prime numbers with this gap x can occur.
Say two consecutive prime numbers have a gap of 100 million between them, the amount of occurrences of these pairs is finite so it might occur only 10 more times (to infinity).
@vast vessel
what
@torpid peak what does 70 million and 100 million have to do with anything?
The twin prime conjecture is merely the statement that there exists infinitely many twin primes.
You're wrong @torpid peak
Zhang's 70 million prime gap theorem just states that there are infinitely many pairs of primes that have a gap of 70 million between them (or less)
It doesn't make assertions on bigger prime gaps
so does that prove the twin theory conjecture?
The current record is 246
Which means there are infinitely many pairs of primes at most 246 apart
This does not prove the twin prime conjecture, for which 246 would have to be replaced by 2
they came down to 6
Assuming a certain conjecture tho
yea
not assuming any conjectures its come down to 256 or something
sorry this was already mentioned lol xd
Is there a term for reducing a number to the smallest member of its equivalence class mod n? For example reducing 26 mod 3 to 2? I keep wanting to say simplify, or reduce to simplest form, but that can't be the right way to describe it.
Finding the unique modulus
Is a better way
Think of it similar to saying something like
Cos(90) = cos(450)
@leaden peak
Hmm, that works as a term, at least better than simplest form. Come to think of it, would you also use unique as the term for this situation in trigonometry?
@tame comet
The point is that there are only a certain amount of unique terms for the moduli.
For numbers mod n, for instance
the main values of the remainder are {0, 1, 2, ... , n-1}
Modulus does allow freedom with it
i.e (8 is congruent to 5 mod 3 is equal to saying 8 is congruent to 2 mod 3 based on the definition)
It's not simplify, per se. It's more like principal modulus (the value within that remainder set)
I see
guys
how do we show that the last non zero digit of a factorial is not eventually periodic
<@&286206848099549185>
"This can be deduced from the fact that the sequence can be obtained as a fixed point of a morphism."
source: https://oeis.org/A008904
not sure what that means but it may be helpful to you
How is everyone so smart
@safe sage it’s supposed to be elementary
Without any group theory cuz I don’t know them
Is pi × 10 to the Power of infinity rational or irrational number?
erm... let's be safe and say irrational
nevermind that you cant take 10 to the power of infintiy i dont think
unless you apply the partial sum of a geometric series to the infinity sum of a geometric series
1+x+xx+xxx+xxxx.... + x^n = $$ \frac{(x^(n+1)-1}{x-1} $$
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$$ \frac{x^n * x - 1}{x-1} $$
which is the same as $$ \frac{-1}{x-1} $$
so if you say they are equal at infinity, then x^(n+1) = x^n * x = 0,
so, then it would be pi * 0... which would be rational, but i don't think that its genereally accepted to raise a number to infinity
the infinite sum doesn't converge
of course for abs(x)>1, yeah
|10| > 1 :^)
ik
its just that you can sum divergent series, and even by that method, it doesn't really make sense to take pi * 10^infinity and try to determine its rationality
can someone please help me with thi
Basically, how many ways can you group the elements together such that a and c are in the same group, such that d and c are in the same group, but c and e are not in the same group?
Before anything else, it's fairly clear that a, c, d will always reside in the same group, and e will not reside in this group. Thus, the places for b are all we can choose.
b can go with a, c, d
b can go with e
b can go by itself.
Three different possible groupings, three different possible equivalence relations.
thank you for the reply but what exactly is a equivalence relation? from what i understand its this
i dont understand this^ relates to the question
Equivalence relations, on the general set, is a grouping of the set such that every element appears exactly once in some set
You may have heard "reflexive, symmetric, transitive" before
yes
So an equivalence relation on {a, b, c, d} may be {(a, c) (b) (d)}
In this, a and c are equivalent.
oh if it were a~b then it would be {(a,b)(c)(d)}?
Ya ya. In the question, the only three possible equivalence relations are
{(a, b, c, d), (e)}
{(a, c, d), (b, e)}
{(a, c, d), (b), (e)}
oh okay thank you
if b wasnt there then it would just be one equivalence relation right?
i need help please, i cant understand this
the first one is countable because there is an injection from {0,1} --> N
is this right?
WHat is 1+1
@mint sorrel
The number of FUNCTIONS from {0, 1} to N. That is, how many ways can you map 0 and 1 to the naturals?
This is countable for a similar reason the rationals are countable
I might be misunderstanding something, but does “mapping 0,1 to N” mean you need to be able to uniquely create all natural numbers with some input 0,1?
That’s straight up impossible isn’t it?
i dont understand this very well, but i am assuming there are only 2 ways map {0,1} to N
But you haven’t accounted for 2
Another may be
f(0) = 18869
f(1) = 813952980428
so there are infinte ways to map them to naturals?
Oh so you just have to be able to create some natural integer, you don’t have to be able to answer f(0;1?) = 168?
and for part b it is not a valid function since all domain elements arent mapped to codomain?
It would be finite if you assume natural numbers are finite
Wat
But they're not
and for (b) it is not a valid function since all domain elements arent mapped to codomain?
There are infinite ways, in fact there are countably many ways to do the mapping in a)
For b) consider the mapping
f(1) = 1
f(2) = 1
f(3) = 1
f(4) = 1
...
Such a mapping might be
0100111100110000...
I hope you can recognize that looks a lot like binary, and binary is countable
Is infinite binary countable?
Not in both directions, so infinite binary with a decimal place is not
But
10000... → 1
01000... → 2
11000... → 3
00100 → 4
Ect
thank you kaynex life saver
Ah yeah, I get yah. Thanks
i have tried to do euclidian algorithm but cant seem to prove that they are same, for gcd(a,3a+b) always getting remainder
The Euclidean algorithm hinges on the fact that gcd(a, b) = gcd (a, b mod a)
If you are allowed to use this result then gcd(a, 3a + b) can be manipulated to gcd(a, b) because 3a + b = b modulo a
how does 3a+b = b mod a?
a = nm, b =nj,
3a + b = 3nm + nj
the greater common divisor is n
not of rigor, but that's a basic version
ye, but the gcd of 21 and 5 are still 1
mod "splits" over addition and multiplication. So
na + b (mod a) = b
x+y mod n = x mod n + y mod n. This is a property of mod
So 3a + b mod a = 3a mod a + b mod a
Mod is the remainder of a division: a mod b is the remainder when a is divided by b. So 3a mod a must be zero because the remainder when you divide 3a by a is zero because it goes in perfectly.
So 3a + b mod a = 0 + b mod a = b mod a
If that makes any sense?
Could someone help me out with this problem
Is equivalent relations of a set the same as partitions of a set
nah it's a set of pairs of elements
where the pair (a,b) means a=b, and this set of pairs has to follow the 3 requirements of an equivalence relation
Could you elaborate a bit more because I’m confused on this part
I get each pair has to be reflexive, symmetric and transitive but how do I know that the pair meets those requirements
Like could you explain it given a set of {1,2,3}
Or {x,y,z}
@lusty siren
Yes, it's the partitions of a set
Im so confused how can the partitions of a set be equivalent relations
{(1),(2),(3)}
{(1,2), (3)}
{(1), (2,3)}
{(1,3), (2)}
{(1, 2, 3)}
I believe are all of them
Anyway, something like {(1),(2,3)} means 2 is equivalent to 3, but 1 isn't equivalent to either
Equivalence relations will group the elements up into sets of "equivalent elements".
So {(1),(2),(3)} means that none of the elements are equivalent
I think I get it now though
thank you for saving me from a headache
Np. Feel free to ask if you have anything else!
Isnt {(1),(2),(3)} the same as {(1,2,3)}?
No, because {(1,2,3)} means all elements are equivalent
Oh ok thanks mate
I stumbled upon transfinite numbers and apparently Natural numbers and Rational number have the same cardinality as Real numbers. What about an ordered pair like (R,R)? Would that have the same cardinality as R?
I have no knowledge of infinite set theory aside from wikipedia stuff
|R^n| = |R|
|R^N| > |R| or |R^R| > |R| ?
|R^N| = R, |R^R| > |R|
Does |N^N| > |N| work?
ya
so then is |R|=|N^N|?
wait, if there are infinite primes then N can be partitioned into subsets of primes which can each be partitioned by prime indexes infinitely. If N has the lowest possible cardinality, then each infinite partition would = |N|. Wouldnt this imply |N^N| = |N|?
What does "N^N" mean?
What does that mean?
N^k for natural k is fairly well defined
But what do you mean for N^|N|?
Coordinates on a |N| dimensional hyperplane I guess
I always understood R^k that way
Idk I probably shouldn't even attempt this sort of math
Considering I managed to fail algebra
N^N is sequences of natural numbers
using decimal expansions it's pretty easy to construct a surjective map from N^N onto [0,1]
which is enough to show |N^N| > N
But cant Q be surjectively mapped to [0,1]?
Hey i am sorry if im asking in the wrong channel but id like to know how to approach my situation
i am supposed to check the following statement for reflexivity, symmetrie and transivity
im not entirely sure if thats correctly said
R:= 'not0' on IN x IN
Why |R^N| = |R| ?
that gets me even more confused
the statement i have to proof on is written as i typed it in here
i think i asked the question in the wrong channel sorry :D
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so, fiddling with the magic square of squares problem I noticed that the following equation has pairwise solutions that grow exponentially with a factor of roughly 6. and I have no idea why
$$a^2+7^2=2b^2\newline
17^2+7^2=213^2\newline
23^2+7^2=217^2\newline
103^2+7^2=273^2\newline
137^2+7^2=297^2\newline
601^2+7^2=2425^2\newline
799^2+7^2=2565^2\newline
3503^2+7^2=22477^2\newline
4657^2+7^2=23293^2\newline
20417^2+7^2=214437^2\newline
27143^2+7^2=219193^2$$
I'm only considering coprime solutions in this, and am skipping the 1^2+7^2 and 7^2+7^2 solutions (the latter of which is trivial and not coprime)
So here's a quick theorem that might help. The center of every 3x3 magic square is the average of both sets of opposite corners (and consequently both the non-center squares in the middle row and middle column). That is to say if a magic square of squares exists for a 3x3, then there are 4 triples (a, b, c) where a^2 + b^2 = 2c^2 where c is a constant for all four triples.
Want To Prove: Let a 3x3 square be given with magic sum M and entries: x1, x2, x3, y1, y2, y3, z1, z2, z3. The center number is the average of the opposite corners.
Note that x1 + y1 + z1 = M. x3 + y3 + z3 = M, y1 + y2 + y3 = M, x1 + y2 + z3 = M, and x3 + y2 + z1 = M.
Add the last three equations and subtract the first two:
y2 + y2 + y2 = M.
x1 + y2 + z3 = y2 + y2 + y2
x1 + z3 = 2y2 or (x1 + z3)/2 = y2 😃
that is what I did to even consider the equation above 😉
the interesting question was: "why do the solutions for a^2+7^2=2b^2 appear pairwise and is there a formula to generate them?"
my guess is there's some sort of way of generating one solution from another, and it just so happens that there are two smallish solutions that aren't from generating eachother
notably if (a,b) is a solution, then (3a+4b,2a+3b) is a solution
(3a+4b)^2 + 7^2 = 9a^2 + 24ab + 16b^2 + 7^2
2(2a+3b)^2 = 2(4a^2+12ab+9b^2) = 8a^2 + 24ab + 18b^2 = (3a+4b)^2+7^2 - (a^2-2b^2+7^2)
however since (a,b) is a solution, a^2-2b^2+7^2 = 0
and hence (3a+4b)^2+7^2 = 2(2a+3b)^2
so (3a+4b,2a+3b) is a solution iff (a,b) is a solution
(to get iff, note that the equations showed that (3a+4b,2a+3b) was a solution iff a^2-2b^2+7^2 = 0, which is equivalent to (a,b) is a solution)
using euclid's algorithm it's not too hard to show that gcd(3a+4b,2a+3b) = gcd(a,b)
as for showing these are the only ones
there may be some way involving inverting (a,b) -> (3a+4b,2a+3b) but I'm not too sure
but certainly this gives a way of characterising the solutions you've found into two families: (a,b) = (17,13), (103,73), (601,425), (3503,2477) etc. and (a,b) = (1,5), (23,17), (137,97), (799, 565) etc.
@haughty falcon
❤ @wild zinc
for more stuff about this and similar equations look up pell equations
gonna do that
Looks like pigeonhole principle
Is that a pigeon?
Can I eat it?
$$ 666^{666} = 1 \text{} mod{13} $$
=pup calc {\sqrt{Subfactorial{Hyperfactorial(0!+0!)}}}!+0!
;-;
?
Hey guys. I need to find the negation for a) x>0 and b) (x<0) or (x>0)
do I need to change x>0 to x<0? or how do I negate something like this
x <= 0
If I take a number to the power of 3 and its irrational, does it mean it was irrational before the multiplication? If so, how do I prove it?
I mean, assume it's not irrational and that it can be written in the form p/q where p and q are integers. Then it means (p^3)/(q^3) is irrational which is clearly not true.
i legit just wanna learn how to solve the general case tho :/
Can someone help? "If k|a and k|b, then, again arguing directly from the definition you gave in (i), show that lcm(a, b) = k * lcm(a/k, b/k)."
Definition of lcm: "For a, b in Z, both nonzero, the least common multiple of a and b is a positive integer m = lcm(a, b) such that a|m, b|m, and if n is any integer such that a|n and b|n, then m|n."
i've already shown that a| (k * lcm(a/k, b/k) and that b | (k * lcm(a/k, b/k))
So it's "if n is any integer such that a|n and b|n, then (k * lcm(a/k, b/k)) | n" that i'm stuck on
Let $$a=ka_1$$ and $$b=kb_1$$. Lcm$$(ka_1, kb_1) =$$ $$k$$Lcm$$(a_1, b_1) = k$$Lcm$$(\frac{a}{k}, \frac{b}{k})$$
Thanks--will think/go back to working on that
Well.. that approach is so much better than mine
I forgot you could factor out common factors
Okay i think i figured it out mudkip
(Thanks!)
np
what is remainder of 2^123 +e^121 when divided by 11??
1 * 2^(n-1) +3 * 2^(n-2) + 5 * 2^(n-3)+ .... = 2^n+1 + 2^n but how do I prove it? I tried to type, for example, 5 as (2+2+1) and multiply one by one but I just can't find why.
When you have a combination of an arithmetic and geometric sequence, multiply by the common ratio and cancel it out with the original
Not sure if I get it, what do you mean by common ratio?
Like 2 in this example I guess?
Yeah (or 1/2 works too)
Here I’ll show you the process in a bit, I’m eating lunch right now
enjoy your meal
okay im back @sterile shadow
so basically, let the value of the sequence you're trying to find be 2^n * x. Then $$x = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{2k+1}{2^{k+1}} = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{3}{4} + \frac{5}{8} + \dots$$ right?
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oof
big oof
anyways, when you factor ot the 2^n you get 1/2 + 3/4 + 5/8 + ...
so let that be x
and so 2x = 1 + 3/2 + 5/4 + 7/8 + ...
so if you subtract 2x - x what do you get?
I get x
._.
let me work with taht for a while
em
okay so look at it this way:
2x = 1 + 3/2 + 5/4 + 7/8 + 9/16 + etc.
x = 1/2 + 3/4 + 5/8 + 7/16 + ...
ok I get series
so if you cancel out numbers with the same denominator you get....
...............
im not looking
bruh
waht did you eat?
a tuna sandwich at the school cafeteria
nice
😄
@wild zinc I finally did the calculations myself and indeed (3a+4b,2a+3b) is a new solution (the inverse is (3a-4b,-2a+3b), if I made no mistake). You might have noticed that this doesn't actually require the 7 to begin with, so we can actually use it for any triplet (a,b,c) (with a and b interchangable). this means we can use the following rules to generate as many solutions as we like, to try and use in our magic square of squares:
(a,b,c) is a solution to a²+b²=2c², then also valid solutions are:
(b, a, c)
(a,b,-c)
(-a,b,c)
(an, bn, cn)
(3a+4c,b,2a+3c)
(3a-4c,b,-2a+3c)
and the trivial solution we can start with is (1,1,1) and we can build up our solutions from it as one huge tree
nice
:P
@stuck lintel and why do we need to make the series 2x -x, but it doesn't work with just x?
or there is a way but it's more complicated
?
you can find the sum from k = 0 to infinity of k x^(k-1) by doing
d/dx (x^k) = kx^(k-1)
so d/dx (sum of x^k) = sum of kx^(k-1) as sum of x^k converges uniformly on (-1,1)
so d/dx (1/1-x) = sum of kx^(k-1)
so sum of kx^(k-1) = 1/(1-x)^2
then since x is independent of the sum (ie we're summing using the variable k)
sum of kx^k = x/(1-x)^2
aka it’s more complicated
ya I didn't get around to saying that bit woops :^)
@stuck lintel op
wat
@wild zinc in case you're interested: I managed to boil it all down to a few lines of code that generate lots (mayb all?) coprime pairs:
(I basically got rid of c and instead considered the pairs (a,b) themselves, as they are what is used to calculate c in the first place. I then have a progression with the matrix you found, another one with the same matrix, but a and b are swapped, and finally one where a and b are swapped and b is flipped to negative. the latter will create the two strands we previously observed, however if we don't swap before doing it, the values will collapse back to small values after doing it twice)
void f(long long a, long long b, int count){
printf("%I64d %I64d\n",a,b);
if(count<maxcount){
long long s= 4*sqrt((a*a+b*b)/2);
f(3*a+s,b,count+1);
f(3*b+s,a,count+1);
f(-3*b+s,a,count+1);
}
}
int main(int argc, char* argv[]){
f(7,1,0);
return 0;
}```
is the order of operations the same for both?
How do 13
I thought looking at n^7 - 77 and the Fibonacci numbers mod 7 might work but any other places to start?
hey i have a proof that says that there are more integers between 0-infinity than there are real number between 0-1
anyone want to take a look at it? it's rather short
they're both the same size infinities
"Some infinities are bigger than other infinities" - Hazel Grace Lancaster, in "The Fault in Our Stars," by John Green minutephysics is now on Google+ - http...
this video says there are more between 0-1 than 0-infinity
and I've a proof of the opposite being true, using the same method of counting
i've never heard that they're the same size. In what sense is that the case?
they're both countable infinities so they're the same size
how? i've learned that reals (0-1) is uncountable infinity
there are more reals between 0 and 1 than integers
go for it
if u put a 1 to 1 relation between the reals from 0-1 and from 0-infinity
you can do it like this:
0,1 = 1
0,2 = 2
0,3 = 3
....
0,11 = 11
0,12 = 12
....
0,201 = 201
etc
this means that all numbers from 0-1 has a corresponding integer number
but I didn't use all integers
as an example 10,20,30 etc isnt used
t!yt how to count past infinity
my twitter: @tweetsauce my instagram: electricpants Sources and links to learn more below! I’m very grateful to mathematician Hugh Woodin, Professor of Philo...
what about 0.01
the reals are uncountable, it's been proven 😉
btw this goes in more like #proofs-and-logic
ok ty
@shrewd garden what if you counted like a mirror:
0,1 = 1
0,01 = 10
0,2 = 2
0,201 = 102
wouldn't every number be represented then?
the problem with that is that it counts all rational numbers between 0 and 1
and that is countable
what integer would represent 0.π, where it's 0 followed by the digits of π? Clearly there's no end to π so how do we find a closed form solution of what number it corresponds to?
well it's 0.314159..., and by your method it'd be some number that's ...951413
exactly. so it's uncountable
then both are uncountable
0.π is a real number, it exists. But for it to be countable under your method there is a natural number that corresponds to this one, but no such number can exist
oh, my point was that both integers and reals are uncountable then
I think you're really misinterpreting what countable means
i might be
:P
😄
said in another way: there is a way to find a 1-to-1 relation between integers and reals in 0-1
they're equally "huge"
0.333333... becomes ...33333333
etc
...33333 = 1 / 0,...3...3...3...3...3..
How do I solve this? I guess it's doable by induction but I don't know how 
You could ln() both sides, and since ln is increasing over R+, you would havfd to compare (n+1)ln(n+1) and nln(n+2) instead
This can be done by studying a function which to t>=0 associates (t+1)ln(t+1)-tln(t+2) and by doing the usual analysis stuff to show that it only outputs positive values
@sterile shadow
I haven't got enough tools introduced yet in order to do this (even logarythms haven't been formally implemented) so there must be other way 😦
Can [a + a ...] } a times = a mod a
Yes. a mod a = 0 mod a. And every term in that sum is divisible by a.
@sterile shadow you can use bernoulli
that looks right, yeah
alright.. still confused cuz i think im allowed to move the brackets
which would change the distributive law
Most generally speaking, if you have two functions, say f and g, that are proportional to each other, then f(x)/g(x) should be (approximately) constant, and that constant is called the constant of proportionality
is a popular problem
all primes bigger than 3 are one away from a multiple of 6 so that's pretty constraining
once you get up large enough the differences will have more larger gaps not just consecutive ones separated by 2, 4, and 6, it's inevitable I guess I'm just being a wet blanket
Have you heard of Dirichlet's theorem?
yes
can anyone help me with a problem
in number theory you can divide a number up to a^2 +b^2 + c^2 + d^2
is there some efficient way to compute a,b,c,d?
what
@half fable you can write any number as a^2 +b^2 + c^2 + d^2, for example 17 you can write as 0^2+2^2+2^2+3^2 = 17
you can?
ah thanks, I couldn't find the name for it
k nice I still have 2 hours to write an algo for this
(x,y) ∈ (some number, some number)^2
can anyone explain what this means?
i understand ∈ means the element "is in set"
but not sure why the question has a "^2" there
Oh, that's the Cartesian product. (2,3), for example is a member of R x R or R^2
hmm
i dont really know number theory so im having understanding that
ill just plug in arbitray values like the ones in the question: (x,y) ∈ (0, .5)^2
so (.1,.1) is an element of the set because both x and y values are between 0 and .5?
no that's not how it works
I think the problem is (a,b) is not an interval like [a,b] or [a,b) that kind of thing
(2,3) represents a point
so (3,-2, 1.5) ∈ R^3
so each entry is a real number, and there are 3 of them
the set theory aspect of it is that R is the set of real numbers
hopefully that clears it up a bit?
i see what you mean
its wierd in the context of this question though
its one of those no outside help ones so im wary of screencapping it
sounds like you don't understand the notation being used to even ask the question in the first place
so that's strange
yea im skipping this one lol
I think you are right
but it's bad notation
(0, 0.5)^2 in this context should only really be referring to the open interval (0,0.5)
cartesian product of that with itself
(0,0.5) being an ordered pair makes (x,y) in (0,0.5)^2 be very simple
and also wouldn't make sense with the example (0.1,0.1) in (0,0.5)^2
it seems like (x,y) refers to an ordered pair and (0,0.5)^2 refers to cartesian product of an open interval
Find all points of horizontal or vertical tangency
r=4sin(t)
0 to pi
@vast vessel
pings
No idea
Just plug the equation for r into the equations for x and y
And take derivative with respect to theta
=tex y=r\sin(\theta)=4\sin^2(\theta)
=tex \frac{dy}{d\theta}=~?
8sincos
So those are points that possibly have horizontal tangents
Since the dy = 0
Now do same for x
To find vertical tangents
I'm going to see prof idk anything going on here

Okay then
So how do you usually do these problems?
Also why're we in #elementary-number-theory
🔨 😡 
U

take the derivative of a triangular number with respect to the number of prime factors

if a and b are relatively prime, with a= (product of primes )^x
and b = (product of primes )^y
why does xy=0
More context, it seems absurd.
@noble jay a=z^x , b=z^y (where z>=2). Relatively prime means gcd(a,b)=1. In order for gcd(z^x, z^y)=1 to be true, either x=0 or y=0
@hardy flare AOPS intro to number theory or for something for people with more experience reading textbooks, An Introduction to the Theory of Numbers by Hardy
Ok
I'm probably missing something simple here.. but how do I solve for a (x,y,z) pair that satisfies a*x-b*y-c*z=1, given a,b,c? a,b,c,x,y,z are all integers
I know how to do it for a 2-variable diophantine equation using Euclid's gcd algorithm , but how can I do it for 3?
tex \sum_{d \leqslant n} \frac1d M(\frac{n}d)$
How to calculate this?
M - Mertens function
Is there a bot that displays latex?

I need help with the commas in set theory or whatever its called
p has no condition here ? correct?
only q has the condition Z and cant equal to 0?
so does this mean that p could be literally anything?
<@&286206848099549185>
what?
lmfao
p and q both have the condition Z
#❓how-to-get-help, rule #4: If your question has not been answered for a minimum of 15 minutes, you may use the Helpers tag once.
Please read the rules: #❓how-to-get-help!
$p$ ranges over all the integers, and $q$ ranges over all the integers satisfying $q\neq 0$
lets say i wanted p to be allowed to be anything
Define "anything"
double dollars @hexed atlas
lets say C and R
@vast vessel Hard to break habits :P
:P
How would such syntax add into that
Any complex number?
$$X = \Bigg{ \frac{p}{q} \mid p \in \mathbb{C}, q\in \mathbb{Z}, q \neq 0 \Bigg}$$
basically my question can get boiled down to what ends the comma
Yeah
ok
They both mean "such that"
so you have comma separated p and q here with their C and Z
, here just means and
All $\frac{p}{q}$ such that $p$ is in the complex numbers and $q$ is in the integers and $q$ is not equal to $0$
Heck
All $$\frac{p}{q}$$ such that $$p$$ is in the complex numbers and $$q$$ is in the integers and $$q$$ is not equal to $$0$$
if the p is alone between | and qEZ how come it must follow Z?
Oh, you removed $\in \bC$ but not the $p$
Well, that doesn't really mean anything
$p$ has to live somewhere
yeah
If you don't specify where it lives, it might live in the set of all chairs for all we know
So basically if the p would be alove in between the commas it doesnt have any own condition and it has to follow the next comming rule?
alone*
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You get what I mean
sorry no im new to this
You can read it as "p and q in complex numbers"
$$p,q \in \b{C}$$ means that $$p \in \b{C}$$ and $$q \in \b{C}$$
ok
Thanks Hatena
In what sense?
Just unnecessary, still mathematically correct
No worries :)
Not sure about the hint, maybe it will come up! Let's follow the method of induction for now
First, gotta prove the base case
Hmm, unless I'm mistaken it can be done directly
Using modular arithmetic
Express the power of four as a power of five perhaps, to use the hint
Noting that the hint essentially says that $$\amod{5^2}{4}{21}$$
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hmm
Stupid phone
Anyway
I have this but I don't know how I'd relate this back to the base case
actually
i think i might just forget how exponent laws work
@fossil cape Did you try the direct approach I mentioned above?
oh god
❓
Basically, if things are relatively prime, you can just substitute
are 25 and 4 relatively prime?
The thing you are substituting needs to be relatively prime with the modulo
oh
Here, 5 and 21 share no factors, and are hence relatively prime
aya
Also 4 and 21
this is hell
Dw, you can do it!
In the world of modulo 21, 4 is exactly the same number as 25
So wherever 4 appears, you can replace it with 25
Is this right
Yep that looks great!

