#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 23 of 1
to divide means it can be written with no remainder, not that every number added is automatically 0.
are you saying 5 does not divide 17 - 7?
this example shows two numbers written as 5q + r subtracted, and obtain a version of 5(q1 - q2) + (r1 - r2) where r1 - r2 is not 0.
So why is it 0 in your proof (it is, and there is a reason for it based on how you constructed your numbers, but you skipped that justification entirely)
Because, again, all you have right now is n | x + y
and you jumped to the claim that y = 0 without stating how you know y is not a multiple of n.
The qs group together
r1 and -r2 are cumulatively the the remainder of when a- b got divided by n
you don't know that, you only know that they are the remainder of a and b when divided by n.
Let u = q1 - q2 and v = r1 - r2, a - b = un + v
you don't have that v = r1 - r2, because you haven't explained why r1 -r2 is not a multiple of n
let n = 3, a = 15, b = 12
a = 3*4 + 3
b = 3*4 + 0
u = 4 - 4 = 0, v = 3 - 0 = 3, so 15 - 12 = 3*0 + 3, therefore 3 = 0
and here n = 5, a = 17, b = 7
and 17 - 7 = 5(1) + 5, so r1 - r2 = 5.
why do you use 3 times 0 in the example?
im not so sure this example fits, divides implies a remainder of 0, you have a remainder of 3
well yes, that's because 3 doesn't divide 15, right?
and also that 3 doesn't divide 3
well in my example we got a remainder of 3
im not too sure how else I can explain it
well clearly you can't explain it because it's wrong
unless you're claiming that 3 = 0
because i used the exact same logic that you did
n divides a - b, a - b is 3*0 + 3, the remainder is 0, therefore 3 = 0
what step did i do wrong?
if n divided a number c, that remainder is 0
alright so if we take a simpler example
3 divides 15
15 = 3*4 + 3
therefore 3 = 0
so what did i do wrong
Let me try again: 15 = 5*3 + 0
but when 3 divided 15, you get 5 not 4
well is 15 = 3 * 4 + 3 true?
since according to you, that's all you need to check
in the original proof you didn't check that "when n divided a - b you get q1 - q2", whatever that means
so because 3 divides 15, that means 3 = 0?
3 divided 15
because the definition of "x divides y" that you're using, as far as i can tell, is "if y = nx + r, then r = 0"
so if 15 = 3*q + r, then r = 0
set q = 4 and r = 3 and you get 3 = 0
if 5 divided 15, q = 3, r = 0
so if q = 4 and r = 3, then "5 didn't divide 15"?
oh ok sorry when 5 divides 15, q = 0
ok that makes even less sense
why?
...at this point i think you just don't know what "divides" actually means
ok so let me explain
a divides b if there exists some n such that b = n * a
largely unrelated except in the sense that its name also contains "division", for any two numbers a and b (with b nonzero), there exist unique integers q, r, with the property that a = bq + r, and r is nonnegative and strictly less than |b|, and the process of finding this pair of q,r is called "Euclidean division"
because this pair is unique, b divides a iff the (q,r) obtained by Euclidean division satisfies r = 0
but note that there are always infinitely many (q,r) satisfying a = bq + r, and in particular infinitely many distinct values of r
exactly one of these pairs has the property 0 <= r < |b|, the others all have r != 0 regardless of whether b divides a or not
so if all you know is that a = bq + r and b divides a, you cannot conclude that r = 0
because there are examples like 15 = 3 * 4 + 3
and that is exactly what you did in your original proof
r1 - r2 = 0 seems fairly straightforward in this case
you went from "a - b = n(q1 - q2) + (r1 - r2)" to "r1 - r2 = 0", which is not valid
like what if it's n
and in fact in the proof as written that is entirely possible
by an example like this one
because you didn't constrain q1, r1, q2, r2, at all, you never said that it can't be something like 15 = 3 * 4 + 3
ok, let me ask this. prove r1 - r2 not equal to zero?
well it isn't always not equal to zero
it's sometimes not equal to zero
and the way i can prove that is by giving an example where it's not zero
which i did here
but in this case, it’s equal to 0
in this case, it isn't equal to 0
and nothing in your proof says that it can't be that case
if you write a = nq_1 + r_1 and b = nq_2 + r_2 using euclidean division, then yes, r1 - r2 = 0, but you don't
you never said anything about division anywhere
I’m trying to follow your logic, I just can’t figure it out
15 = 3*4 + 3
this equation is true
it is not an equation you would obtain by Euclidean division, but it is true
therefore, if someone is running your proof, that never mentions Euclidean division in any way, it would be valid for them to write 15 like that
you are jumping to the conclusion that r1 - r2 is a remainder, and thus 0 <= r1 - r2 < n, and so is obviously 0.
The point we've been trying to make is that r1 - r2 does not need to be a remainder with that condition. You haven't shown that it is actually a remainder either. So your proof is missing a step of justification.
oh wait hang on sorry, i misread, you do actually have the assumption from way earlier that 0 <= r1 < n
you just never mention it ever again
which actually isn't any different from not having it at all, because if you want to do a step that's only correct with that hypothesis, you need to use that hypothesis to justify that step
I know r1 - r2 is greater than 0, less than n, but what does that have to do with anything?
do you know that?
you don't know that. you never proved that. you didn't even mention that at all
and you needed to, because otherwise it doesn't make sense to jump to r1 - r2 = 0
because again, 15 = 3*4 + 3
this doesn't imply 3 = 0, because 3 doesn't satisfy 0 <= r < 3
a - b can be written as nu + v where 0<= v < n, but nothing says r1 - r2 = v, and in many cases it isn't. You would need to justify that in some way here.
and in general r1 - r2 does not need to positive.
n = 3, a = 3(1) + 1, b = 3(1) + 2
Then a - b = 3(0) + (-1), so r1 - r2 is not positive.
If n got divided by a number, the remainder is smaller than n
correct, you haven't divided a - b by n. you've written it out using their individual remainders and claimed those numbers are equal. they don't need to be
n divided a - b is given
so a -b = nu + v
you don't know that r1 - r2 = v.
ok you know what
can you explain the same argument, without ever using any word that contains the string "divide"?
let's say that a is a factor of b if there exists an n such that b = a * n
we are given as a hypothesis that n is a factor of a - b
you know a - b = nu + v = n(q1 - q2) + (r1 - r2). You don't know that u = q1 - q2 or v = r1 - r2. They don't need to be equal.
and Euclid's Theorem That Shall Not Be Named is the statement that for any a, b with b != 0, there exists a unique pair q,r such that a = bq + r and 0 <= r < |b|
if what you're saying is correct then changing the language shouldn't affect it, so can you explain it using these names instead?
yes!
there exist some q and r which makes it true
yep, in fact there are infinitely many
by the definition of factor, one of those (q,r) pairs has r = 0
we also have the pair (q1 - q2, r1 - r2)
and somehow you conclude from this that r1 - r2 = 0?
I think when we said divided, it is good enough
no it wasn't
because your logic is still wrong and i think the issue is you were using "divide" to mean two different things
now i've given those two things different names
which means you can explain the same logic again and it will be perfectly clear this time and i'll look pretty silly for having made a confident wrong claim about the problem
...or you can't explain it which means i was right and the issue is that you're getting confused over what "divides" means
in my proof, divides just means to leave a remainder of 0
ah well that's the problem then
because the hypothesis wasn't that the remainder is 0, the hypothesis was that n is a factor of a - b
the question never used the word factor
it said divides
if the question said factor, 15 = 3(4) + 3
...i guess you do have a point there
well would the result be wrong if it said factors instead of divides?
yes
is there a pair of numbers a,b for which a is a factor of b, but a does not divide b? or the other way around?
do you have a counterexample?
yes
what is it
15 = 3(4) + 3, r need not be 0
oh right sorry i was unclear
i meant would the theorem they originally asked you to prove, be false, if they said factors instead of divides
so are there numbers a,b,n such that a = b mod n, but n is not a factor of a - b
or such that n is a factor of a - b, but a != b mod n
The theorem would be false
so a - b can be written as a - b = nq, not that it automatically is, just that it can be.
You have a - b = n(q1 - q1) + (r1 - r2). You have given no justification for why you are not in a situation were r1 - r2 = nk
Which would make a - b = n(q1 - q2 + k), and not r1 - r2 = 0.
what would a counterexample be then?
...and what's n?
alright so 20 = 5 mod 3 is true
20 - 5 = 15, and 3 is a factor of 15, because 15 = 3 * 5
they're both true so that isn't a counterexample
ah yeah you’re right
in number theory, when a number divides another number, it does so with a remainder of 0
What happened?
If I tell you 5 divides 10 + x, what is x?
$5y$ where $y \in \mathbb{Z}$
computerman4774
right.
so if n divides nq + v, all you know is that v is a multiple of n.
Even if you have n divides n(q1 - q2) + (r1 - r2), you have r1 - r2 is a multiple of n.
in your problem, with a line of justification, you can show that it is 0. But, for the same reason you didn't do it above, you cannot jump from n | n(q1 - q2) + (r1 - r2) directly to r1-r2 = 0.
r1 and r2 are unique
ok, so what can you say about r1 - r2?
r1 - r2 is 0
nope
r1 - r2 is not 0?
you haven't shown that it has to be, no
r1 - r2 = 0 it follows that, r1 = r2, thus a = b mod n
so remainders are unique, that doesn't mean equal
how can you say, for certain, that there isn't any combination of r1 and r2, so that r1-r2 is a non-zero muliple of n?
because n divides a - b
some bizarre choice of a and b that give that give those r1 and r2?
what is your definition of divides?
that a-b is a multiple of n
so in n(q1 - q2) + (r1 - r2), why is r1 - r2 not some other multiple of n?
you're just saying it's 0 without explaining why it can't be some other multiple of n
So specifically - why cannot it be the case that r1 - r2 = n?
let’s be clear, r1 - r2 is or is not 0?
ultimately, it is 0.
But you're just saying that it is, which isn't a proof.
at this point I wasn’t sure if you thought it was 0
so we agree on 2 things, definition of divides, and ultimately r1 - r2 is 0, we can go from there 🙂
r1 - r2 is a multiple of n, n*0
why not n*1?
that would still meet the definition of n | a-b.
so why isn't it possible?
for this entire conversation, your argument for why r1 - r2 = 0 has basically been 'because it is.' which isn't a proof. I'm asking you for a logical or mathematical reason why it is 0, or why it can't be some other number.
r1 - r2 is not a multiple of n
why?
it’s the remainder
how do you define remainder?
< n
so if n = 5 can I have a remainder of -12?
in that case
n = 5
a = 14 = 2(5) + 4
b = -1 = 0(5) - 1
a - b = 5(2) + 5 and r1 - r2 = 5
why does the definition depend on the numbers i'm using?
when I wrote that message I wasn’t defining anything
anything? how about 33, since 33 = 9(5) - 12
i haven't said it does. I've just asked if n=5 is -12 a valid remainder.
why do you give me that ex?
you said remainders only need to be < n
remainders are less than n when you do division
Don’t take offense, I’m not sure what you were doing
you haven't done division. You've subtracted two numbers.
33 = 9(5) - 12, what is this?
a question about what you consider a remainder to be.
This is y = ax + b
what do you think a = nq + r is?
q and r are unique, 0 <= r < n
ah, so not just < n, it must also be non-negative
I’m just regurgitating the def
Let me try this: if r reached n, it would roll back to 0
in a sense, sure. You'd have a different remainder than r
but that's not the same as r = 0
let’s say r was a multiple of n, well then its not a remainder
is something else, idk, 🤷🏻♂️
you know 0<= r1 < n, and 0<= r2 < n
Just from that, can you bound r1 - r2? Forget everything else about the problem.
what do you mean? for example: $c \le r_1 - r_2 < d$? find $c$ and $d$?
computerman4774
yes
no, I don’t know how
you know how r1 and r2 are bounded. try to play around find the bounds for r1 - r2. Combining it with your division assumption, you should ifnd why r1-r2 can only be 0
n = 5, r1 = 1, r2 = 2
r1 - r2 = -1
Not greater than 0
$0 \le r_1 - r_2 < n$
computerman4774
that's not always true given these bounds
ok, so the answer i gave is wrong?
yes
then what are the bounds?
you saw me make a -1 here, how negative could it go?
this is incorrect, because n divides a - b
r1 - r2 is 0
unless we forget about the problem like you said
but at this point, this is too far from the original question
now we’re not even considering the original problem
okay
this is what 3 people have basically said so far
You didn’t actually answer my question - if I say “actually r_1 - r_2 = n”, how do you know I’m incorrect?
this is the question?
If $a$ and $b$ are integers and $n$ is a positive integer, prove that $a$(mod $n$) = $b$(mod $n$) if and only if $n$ divides $a-b.$
chipotle
i just rewrote so i dont have to scroll
yes
$a\equiv b \pmod n \iff n \mid (a-b) \iff a-b=kn$
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
at the end of the proof when we have $a - b = n \left ( q_1 - q_2 \right ) + \left ( r_1 - r_2 \right )$, since $qn$ appears when we do the subtraction, we know that $r = r_1 - r_2 = 0$ is unique, by the uniqueness of the remainder in the division algorithm, $r_1 - r_2$ is not a multiple of $n$ as some others have suggested, unless we are talking $r_1 - r_2 = 0 \cdot n$
computerman4774
nobody has claimed that it is, they've just pointed out that you haven't proven that it isn't
i don't need to prove that it isn't
by uniqueness of the remainder, and how the division algorithm works, i get 0
by uniqueness of the remainder
the remainder isn't unique though
it only becomes unique if you have the condition 0 <= r < n
here you haven't proven that that condition is true
where in the definition did it say that?
in the definition of what?
of the division algorithm
well the division algorithm isn't exactly "defined", it's a theorem
right, and i use that theorem, in my proof
but ok here's the statement of it: for any integers a, b with b != 0, there exists a unique q,r such that a = bq + r and 0 <= r < |b|
if you remove the "and 0 <= r < |b|" then the statement is trivially false, because for instance 15 is both 3*4 + 3 and 3*5 + 0
so, $0 \le r < |b|$ follows from uniqueness
computerman4774
not the other way around
(well this isn't exactly the division algorithm, if you want "algorithm" in the name then you also want to know how you find q,r, but that part of it isn't useful in this situation)
...what? what does that even mean?
and also no it doesn't
i just read what you wrote
i didn't put that definition in the chat
ok maybe the problem here is with the word "unique" then, let me rephrase without that
for any integers a,b with b != 0, there exist q,r such that
- a = bq + r and 0 <= r < |b|
- for any other two integers q_2, r_2 satisfying a = bq_2 + r_2 and 0 <= r_2 < |b|, q = q_2 and r = r_2
in what message did i say that
according to discord search the last time i said "it follows that" in this server was over a week ago
yes, you are right, i misread the definition you wrote, i apologize
but in any case, the way this reads, it sounds like the bounds come from the uniqueness: there exists a unique q,r such that a = bq + r and 0 <= r < |b|
yeah that's because we don't agree on what the word "unique" means
use this version instead
it's equivalent by my definition of "uniqueness"
well you said things about uniqueness that don't make any sense
example?
admittedly i am kind of just randomly flailing around but it seems like a reasonable guess that the word "unique" is part of the tangle here
this
what do you mean randomly flailing around?
well i don't know what you're failing to understand so i'm just doing random things to see what works
well, i dont think this approach will be helpful
what else is there that i could do
you need to state exactly what i am missing in the proof
i have done that several times
where?
.
there's one example
no, you're claiming that i haven't proven that the condition is true, which may or may not be the case, what would you add to the proof to make it so?
ok, just one second
here's where i am at: a - b = q*n
we know this, because n divides a - b (hopefully we agree on what divides means)
when we do the subtraction...
a - b appears on one side
n*(q_1 - q_2) appears on the other side
(i have no idea at this point, but i do agree that for some q, a - b = q*n is true and that it follows from n dividing a - b)
r_1 - r_2 (or whatever it was i forgot) also appears
please, let me finish my thought
sorry that was rude
this isn't a voice conversation, me sending messages doesn't actually prevent you from typing
but alright sorry
so if we know n goes into a - b evenly, that leaves r_1 - r_2 leftover
n(q_1 - q_2) goes into a - b evenly
so what is r_1 - r_2?
(was that rhetorical or are you expecting me to answer)
i am expecting an answer
well, the answer is: not enough information
again consider the example
15 = 3 * 5
15 = 3 * 4 + 3
"therefore 3 = 0"
yeah but with the example you gave, we will just start the whole conversation over again
unless one of us chooses not to continue having the conversation
yeah that's because you keep not addressing it
what is there to address? ive said a few things about this already
yeah it may be true that 15 = 3*4 + 3, but 4 doesn't divide 15
q and n must divide 15
also, alright, 15 = 3*3 + 6, therefore 6 = 0
3 * 3 doesn't equal 15, so i don't understand your point
3 * 5 = 15
well all of these objections that you're bringing up now, how do you know they don't apply in your proof?
you didn't prove that n(q_1 - q_2) = a - b
when we are talkin about number which divides another number, it must do so evenly
we know that nq = a - b for some q, but not that that q is q_1 - q_2
you are giving examples which does not divide the other number
3 does divide 15 actually
so in my example of 15 = 3 * 3 + 6
what number is failing to divide what other number
$3(3) \neq 15$
computerman4774
what number is failing to divide what other number
but you didn't write the equation correctly
what number is failing to divide what other number
you said
you are giving examples which does not divide the other number
so what isn't being divided
a = nq +r
what number is failing to divide what other number
a number is written as a sequence of the characters 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
your asking the wrong question
well you said it was the right question
you are giving examples which does not divide the other number
in my example of 15 = 3*3 + 6, what's "the other number", and what doesn't divide it?
let's say we have a number, 15... let's say $15 = nq + r$ where $0 \le r < n$, let's say n divides 15, if n divides 15 then r must be 0, meaning q must be 5
computerman4774
yep, that's correct
although in my example, 0 <= r < n is false, so that doesn't apply
but again, i dont understand why you keep giving that example
i dont really think it applies
bee [it/its]
and also $n$ divides $a-b$
bee [it/its]
this does not imply that $r_1 - r_2 = 0$
bee [it/its]
and $15 = 3 \cdot 3 + 6$ is a counterexample to that, because $3$ divides $15$ but $6 \neq 0$
bee [it/its]
it would if you had the additional condition that $0 \leq r_1 - r_2 < n$, which fails in my example because $6 \not< 3$
bee [it/its]
you have not proven that this additional condition is true, and so your inference that $r_1 - r_2 = 0$ isn't valid
bee [it/its]
because if it was valid, it would also be valid to apply it in the case ``$3$ divides $15$ and $15 = 3 \cdot 3 + 6$'' and conclude $6 = 0$
bee [it/its]
this is not a counterexample
yes it is
it's a counterexample to the logic you actually did
which was ``$n$ divides $a - b$, and $a - b = n(q_1 - q_2) + (r_1 - r_2)$, therefore $r_1 - r_2 = 0$''
bee [it/its]
it's not a counter example, because 15 / 3 is 5
well you never mentioned that
this is what you said
you wrote an algebraic equation
you didn't say "and also n(q_1 - q_2) = a-b because [...]"
you just said
n divides a - b
a - b = n(q_1 - q_2) + (r_1 - r_2)
therefore r_1 - r_2 = 0
leaving aside the question of whether that's actually what you did, if that was all there is to it, with no further context, do you agree that that is not a valid inference?
i agree that's what i wrote, but what's the point? im sorry i really dont understand
and you aren't either
oh 15 / 3 = 5 isn't division?
$a - b = n(q_1 - q_2) + (r_1 - r_2)$ isn't division
whats the + 6 all about?
bee [it/its]
what is $+ 6$?
computerman4774
why add that on there?
it's 5 + 1, and i don't understand the point of the question
why not
because again, we are talking about a - b getting DIVIDED by n
i'm the universe, i don't have to explain myself to you
when you're writing a proof you don't get to say "if n is a number, it isn't 4. proof: let n be a number. there is no reason you would make n equal to 4, what even is that. therefore n is not 4. Q.E.D."
a proof has to be able to handle any value that might get thrown at it
the counter example just doesn't follow the definition of division algorithm
no we aren't
you never said that
you said that n divides a - b
i didn't say that
and separately you said that a - b = n(q_1 - q_2) + (r_1 - r_2)
it's given
well sure but still
n divides a - b is a given
we have that n divides a - b
we also have that a - b = n(q_1 - q_2) + (r_1 - r_2)
these statements are not related in any way
they are just two things that are both true
of course they are
...they are what
they are related
why?
the fact that we're considering them together doesn't cause any additional meaning
like if we look back at the example i keep going back to
3 divides 15
15 = 3*3 + 6
each of these statements is true in isolation, right?
true in isolation sure
i just can't agree
if i divide 15 by 3 i get 5
we are talking about division right?
6 isn't a remainder
it's just not valid
6 is "something else"
ok so suppose we have two statements, P and Q
and we have proven that P is true
and we have proven that Q is true
can we therefore prove "P and Q are both true"?
no absolutely not
alright yeah that's the issue then
you keep giving this example 15 = 3*3 + 6 over and over
that's not division
i don't know what that is
well we can stop talking about division now
because we've found the problem and it doesn't actually involve division
it's with the meaning of the word "and"
im not following
well here
you're saying that it's possible that "P" is true, and "Q" is true, but "P and Q" is false
this is not possible by the standard definition of "and"
don't take this the wrong way but none of this is helpful
well it's helped me at least, i understand a lot better what the issue is now
anyway
indeed it isn't, so that means 3 doesn't actually divide 15, right?
because "15 = 3 * 3 + 6" is true, but "3 divides 15 and 15 = 3 * 3 + 6" isn't, according to you
3 divides 15
15 = 3(3) + 6
both are true
i thought earlier you said they weren't
come on, ive had algebra, i know 15 = 3(3) + 6
well then you claimed that "3 divides 15 and 15 = 3*3 + 6" is false
...well ok fine
looking back at "n divides a - b, and a - b = n(q_1 - q_2) + (r_1 - r_2)" again
you see the problem now, right? even if those statements are both true, that doesn't imply that the second statement is actually what happens when you divide a - b by n
same as how that's not true in the case of "3 divides 15, and 15 = 3 * 3 + 6"
no, that's a stretch, leaving out context
well context doesn't matter
that's kind of been my entire point here
either a mathematical statement is true or it's false, its meaning isn't affected by the context
(if it is then that's because you're using ambiguous/bad terminology or notation, and actually conflating multiple different statements by writing them the same way)
this isn't entirely mathematical, there is some english language involved as well as interpretation of what the other person said
well the thing we're trying to talk about is entirely mathematical
so if what the things we're saying mean depends on the context then that's going to cause miscommunications
$q_1 - q_2$ is unique
computerman4774
$r_1 - r_2$ is also unique
computerman4774
only when paired with 3
...ok, well, is 5 paired with 3?
context = division
if a statement means anything at all, then you can write it in a way that doesn't depend on the context
please dont order me around
ok well, from now on i'm just going to ignore anything you say that depends on context
you can do whatever you want about that
i dont know why you think context doesnt matter and then expect me to believe the same
...because this is maths
in a fully written out formal proof, "context" doesn't exist at all
people often don't actually expand it out that far (although they sometimes do https://us.metamath.org/mpegif/cnv0.html), but anything that can't be expanded like that, is wrong
so if your logic is correct, you can write it without ever using anything context-dependent
im going back to the original question and ignoring the philosophical discussion for a moment
i think the idea was, in order to prove $r_1 - r_2 = 0$, i need to use $0 \le r_1, r_2 < n$ in some way
computerman4774
yes
since $n$ divides $a - b$, there exists an integer $k$ such that $a - b = kn$
computerman4774
yep
then $a$ is congruent to $b \pmod n$
computerman4774
yep
$QED$
computerman4774
what
computerman4774
hmm, no i dont think this is proving anything
if i go back to the original proof i did, what if i assume $r_1 - r_2$ is a multiple of $n$?
computerman4774
that is certainly something you should consider, and you can show that the only possible multiple is 0. But you do need to show that.
this is something I’ve considered quite a bit
even if r_1 - r_2 is some multiple of n, the whole expression still divides evenly into a - b, the whole discussion has not covered this
i've said that too you multiple times.
so if I did that, then the remainder is 0
on the other hand if r_1 - r_2 is not a multiple of n we are done
Hmm no I don’t think this solves it either
that certainly doesn't guarantee r1 - r2 = 0
what guarantees $r_1 - r_2 = 0$
computerman4774
the fact that 0 <= r1, r2 < n gives you that -n < r1 - r2 < n
Combined with the divisibility condition on a-b, you have that r1 - r2 is a multiple of n and therefore = 0
I could see how -n is less than each of those remainders individually but how is it less than $r_1 - r_2$?
computerman4774
the smallest r1 can be is 0, the largest r2 can be is n-1, so min - max = 0 - (n-1) > -n
or, the biggest difference between any two values in that interval is n-1 (positive or negative), so you have between -n and n
why does $r_1 - r_2$ have to be less than $n$? my guess is because all remainders ($r_1 - r_2$ included), have to be less than $n$
computerman4774
this makes sense
you're subtracting two positive numbers < n, that certainly can't increase to larger than n. Since r2 >=0, you know r1 - r2 <= r1 < n
r1 - r2 is not a remainder, as you have defined it. It is the result of subtracting two remainders, which is not necessarily a remainder itself.
So the end result is, a multiple of n between -n and n, must be 0?
yes
how do we know r1 - r2 is a multiple of n?
n divides a-b
yes, because it between -n and n
unless q1 - q2 divides n evenly, in which case r1 - r2 is zero and we’re done
0 is a multiple of n
ok, so I don’t need to say case I case II?
nope
because it’s the same case
yes
okay, it’s starting to make sense
I think my confusion came from, we weren’t doing division, we didn’t know what q1 - q2 was
is this depends on the operation?
or just i have to assume it multiplication?
3x=1mod7 which will be A
someone is saying to me that it depends to operation
“modular inverse” is typically understood to be “modular multiplicative inverse”
for integers a,b,c
is an identity from the first answer in this stack exchange post: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/362975/concise-proof-that-every-common-divisor-divides-gcd-without-bezouts-identity/363030#363030
This formula easy to verify:
for the => direction we can notice ab/c = a(b/c) = (a/c) b where b/c and a/c are integers by assumption.
for the <= direction, we have that a k1 = ab/c and b k2 = ba/c for integers k1 and k2 so k1 = b/c and k2 = a/c which means c|a,b
What I'm having trouble with is proving the analagous formula a,b|c <=> ab/c | a,b
The reason this doesn't immediately follow from the first is that ab/c must be an integer for it to do so
For example, for the => direction, we could write c = ab/(ab/c), but if we try to apply the proposition from the screenshot, we would need (ab/c) to be an integer.
3,4|24 <=> 3*4/24 | 3*4 is not well formed
I suppose we really do need the assumption that ab/c is an integer.
I guess that answers my question..., it would still be interesting if given something like ab/lcm(a,b) | a,b, we could prove it via involution because a,b|lcm(a,b) while avoiding having to verify ab/lcm(a,b) is an integer.
Of course with the version of a,b|c <=> ab/c | a,b I have, ab/c has to be checked to be an integer separately
Yes it’s not obvious to me that ab/c is an integer
the way i usually do it for lcm is with prime factorisation
because the fundamental theorem of arithmetic doesn’t actually need lcm
anyway this stackexchange post reminded me of how I’d want to describe the “universal property of gcd”
given two naturals $a, b \in \mathbb{N}$, you can define $\text{gcd}(a, b) = \max {d \in \mathbb{N} \text{ such that } d| a \wedge d | b }$
Pseudonium
indeed that’s the literal meaning of “greatest common divisor”
and what this gives you is $d | a \wedge d | b \implies d \leq \text{gcd}(a, b)$
Pseudonium
but using bezout’s identity, $\text{gcd}(a, b) = ax + by$ for some integers $x$ and $y$
Pseudonium
so you can strengthen this result to $d | a \wedge d | b \implies d | \text{gcd}(a, b)$, and of course $d | \text{gcd}(a, b) \implies d \leq \text{gcd}(a, b)$
Pseudonium
and then what’s nice is that this becomes an if and only if, so $d | a \wedge d | b \iff d | \text{gcd}(a, b)$
Pseudonium
this is the “universal property of gcd”, how it relates to every other natural in the “universe” through divisibility alone (and is taken as the def of gcd more generally), and characterises it essentially uniquely
after a lot of arguing, debating, and much help, here is what i have written up for the proof i was trying to do the other day, more feedback is welcome. im a little bit unsure about the multiple of n part. thank you @leaden stream @patent acorn @rugged pasture
When you have a-b=n(q1-q2)+r1-r2, it may be even better to rewrite as r1-r2=(a-b)-n(q1-q2)
n divides the RHS and since the LHS is equal to the LHS, n divides r1-r2
You can skip the stuff with the inequalities and max etc.
i think i understand, what you have is simpler and replaces the min/max stuff, but i think the inequality may be important to show that the only multiple of $n$ between $-n$ and $n$ is $0$.
computerman4774
No need - the question wanted n|a-b
Bounding it is just something extra you're doing unrelated to the problem
it's not unrelated, it tells us that $r_1 - r_2$ falls within a range and ends up being $0$
computerman4774
so what? the actual solution from the author is way different than what i have, doesn't make it wrong, there are many ways to do a proof
there is no one right answer when it comes to proving something, i have found
when taking proof based math courses, i would work with a group of students, all of us had different answers to every problem
not all the time of course!
there are some trivial proofs where you will arrive at the same answer as others
In the second part of the proof r1 and r2 are undefined. Probably use the division algorithm again. The scope of r1 r2 q1 q2 was only the first part.
Otherwise it's perfect
I had flipped which part of the answer was proving which part of the question in my head
look im not arguing for the sake of arguing - i thought long and hard about that, i would like to define them once and scope them to the whole problem, i know it is possible to do, they are simple remainders for a and b... how would you reccomend going about it? do a separate paragraph at the top? i dont mind this proof being longer, it's more for me than anyone else, it's not a homework assignment or anything
Yea, you could separate it at the beginning or state it twice
Most people will know what you're talking about even if you leave it as it is since this is a short and simple proof
it's a short one, obviously i lengthened it a little for myself
seems like this works yes
For proving ab/lcm(a,b) is an integer, you can avoid using prime factorization by noticing that lcm(a,b) | ab by the universal property of lcm. (of course if your universal property of lcm is based on the <= relation instead of the | relation, there's some extra work to do to see that lcm(a,b)<= ab implies that lcm(a,b) | ab)
If you're curious about any details I left out, just ask and I can fill them in
Yeah this seems false surely
2 | 30000 and 3 | 30000
So you need that ab/c is an integer
Oh and you noticed that already
Sorry
Oh cool you know about universal properties too?
To be honest, it's pretty annoying to prove identities about gcd's and lcm's without universal properties:
To prove lcm(a,b) gcd(a,b) = ab, isolate the gcd and use the universal property of gcd's
To prove gcd(ka,kb) = kgcd(a,b), the gcd is already isolated, so use the universal property of gcd's
To prove gcd(a,b) = a if a|b, again show the RHS satisfies the universal property
Wow I didn’t realise there were other people who knew about them
To be fair this is a math server lol
Category theory is like, the biggest meme subject lmao. I feel like every other undergrad I speak to knows what a universal property is
People know what a universal property is
Really…?
It’s often seemed like a new subject when I’ve discussed it with undergrads here
Yes, really.
Huh that’s so strange
I’d heard of it in undergrad but only got into it in my masters
We had covered universal properties in linear alegebra for quotient spaces, tensor produc,outer product spaces,…
huh wow I never did this in my undergrad
I don’t have a big math backround, since I don’t study math, but this from an algebra profesor who teached linear algebra 2. He was quite cool, because he was very structured in his approach and a chill guy. And he put much emphasis on universal properties
So many things where universal properties
Given any two positive integers a and b greater than one, what is the smallest prime greater than ab that cannot be formed by a linear combination of a and b?
Is this a well-known problem?
Well if gcd(a,b)=1, there is no such smallest prime (by beizouts lemma)
Sniped me
Yeah if they're relatively prime all the numbers greater than ab are reachable
So, if their gcd was not 1, say d, any linear combination of a and b will not be prime
Because you'd be able to factor d out of the equation right?
Yeah ~~ but youll need to be more careful in stating this. Because this is not entirely accurate~~
How so?
If both a and b are divisible by d then ax + by should still be divisible by d
Oop, nvm i got confused for a sec (My main concern was what if d was a prime p then youd factor p out of ax+by and get ax+by=p(•) and that • could be 1, so youd have ax+by=p, But then the linear combination wouldnt be greater than ab. So its all good.)
Np, tysm for your help
If they're not coprime, then you're just asking for the smallest prime greater than ab.
Since in that case no combination of a and b (except possibly their gcd, which is at most ab) can be prime.
was hoping someone could take a look and critique another proof, it follows from a previous proof i did, i begin this proof explaining what that proof was, apologize it's a little lengthy. this is a problem from the preliminary section of gallian's abstract algebra book
edited (cleaned up, used \equiv in some spots)
yeah this works
I feel like it's longer than it needs to be tho
but ig basic number theory can be kinda misleading and hard to do rigorously so if you think it's necessary...
would like feedback on another (shorter), proof. my answer was slightly different than what was in the back of the book, i would like to know if this would also work as an alternative proof. in the book, it says: ax = 1 + ns, d divides a and n, d also divides 1, thus d = 1. instead i used the linear combination and well ordered principle (or whatever says 1 is the smallest element of the set, and is thus the gcd).
last two non zeroes digits in 100!
@wooden glen
Don't ping random users.
sorry!
will not happen again
seems correct, a slight wording issue right at the end
"If d = 1 then ax = 1 (mod n)" should say something about a solution existing. It is not the case that ax = 1 (mod n) always, just that there is an x that makes that true.
@leaden stream thank you, updated with your suggestion:
another very short proof. if someone has some time to take a quick look, it would be much appreciated. this time using light theme
The second sentence in the proof doesn't quite work because you're saying there's no prime p so p isn't even an object we can talk about
At least phrased in that way
But a small change should fix it
(is this from gallian?)
what about, let $p$ be a prime that divides $a$, then $p$ does not divide $bc$ (continue on from there...)?
proofman
yes, every problem i do is from gallian, i am self studying his book
i have been away from proof based math for a little while, getting back into the swing
the 10th edition is quite typo riddled
i heard
plus i am not rich, so i got 6E
i use the pdf lol
university access
it's not bad, has a lot of examples so it really helps with understanding
nice, i saw someone put it on a github, but i feel bad, i paid
I quite liked it personally
10E?
ok
I do have my own typo list for the 10th edition
you're just saying you like Gallian in general
Yeah I like that he gives loads of examples
i'll probably see you in the groups channel soon then
hopefully, i wanted to skip the prelims in chapter 0 of Gallian, but it is obvious that i am very rusty
im getting my butt kicked on every problem just about
if it's any consolation having a good strong understanding of the preliminaries will help you quite a lot later on in the book
yes, that helps
so most of them i need a hint or a brief look at how to start, some of them i figured out on my own... but i will keep going through them until i can get them without any help or hints, luckily there are plenty of problems
i used to breeze through these ☹️
i spent longer than you did on these preliminaries when I first learnt this content
dw itll come back to you
appreciate it, yeah when i was doing the foundations of math university course i was getting them really fast, then i had to take a break due to life circumstance
@brittle root this may be a little bit better
hmm that still doesn't quite work out
continue from here
since p is arbitrary it follows that no prime that divides a divides b and c
oh actually sorry
yeah that's what you wrote
my bad
okay, here, take a look at this, it is the logical continuation from there, does this seem closer
yes this is good
the last two steps i feel are a little hand-wavy
not intentionally
actually, the last 3 steps
intuitively, it makes sense based on the two theorems i used, but how to represent this in pure symbolic logic?
maybe i dont, i may have just been staring at it for too long at this point and getting confused
it seems fine to me
if a prime $p$ divides $a$ implies that $p$ does not divide $b$ and $p$ does not divide $c$, then $\gcd (a, b) = 1$ and $\gcd (a, c) = 1$, and that's that
proofman
it kind of doesn't get too much simpler
@brittle root new and improved
Contemporary Abstract Algebra, by Joseph Gallian
I am using a cheap 6E copy I got on ebay
the preliminary section focus is on elementary number theory
lol I like it
it fits nicely with philosophy
it works well as a basis for understanding how to write proofs, and some abstract algebra concepts
cool! you should try Gallian, you can get a copy cheap
I’m just going through all the problems in 6E chapter 0, pretty much all ENT
I’m sure there are options for that
What is aops?
Oh ok, I see. Art of Problem Solving.
you going to take a element number theory course?
oh ok you just self study the ent book
very nice
wait it can happen for h=9,k=2,y=-5,x=1
yes, it is the same as taking the modulus with the absolute value
bee [it/its]
I have written a proof to show that there are infinitely many primes, i tried to leave out as much simple details as possible and not be too long-winded, any thoughts on this? did i leave out any crucial information?
you should elaborate a bit more why p_i divides 1 imo
hmm... i'm not too sure how i would break that down. say we divide $N$ by $p_i$, then we divide the other side of the equation by $p_i$ as well. so we are dividing the sum $p_1 p_2 \cdots p_n + 1$ by $p_i$. the sum $p_1 p_2 \cdots p_n + 1$ must be an integer multiple of $p_i$, which means that $1$ must also be a multiple of $p_i$, then we say ``we have a contradiction'' $p_i$ cannot divide $1$
proofman
so because p_i divides N, there exists a k with N=kp_i = p1...pn+1
now subtract p1...pn
ok i subtracted $p_1 p_2 \cdots p_n$, i got: $p_i (k + p_1 p_2 \cdots p_{i - 1} p_{i + 1} \cdots p_n) = 1$
proofman
and now you can conclude that pi divides 1
btw, for convenience, it would be fine to relabel all the primes and say wlog that p1 divides N
not trying to argue, but isn't this a case of "it is obvious"?
let me elaborate
if this showed up in a book, would i write that step?
I mean is it obvious? you werent able to properly fill in the details
yes, i would say it is obvious. what makes you say i couldn't fill in the details?
nvm i misread that part
but still, it would definitely need a bit more detail imo
at least the sentence I wrote
no, i was sure it was correct. i just wanted feedback on if i included enough detail
it would also be define to say a bit more loosely, pi divides N and N-1, hence 1. or stuff like that
but that connection was missing
but I mean even that uses some small lemma that a|b, a|c => a|b-c
it's ok, i think we are on the same page. i want to move on to something else. can you expand a bit more on this comment?
then you would be able to write $p_2\cdots p_n$ instead of $p_1\cdots p_{i-1}p_{i+1}\cdots p_n$
Denascite
just makes it a bit more convenient to read and write
ok, without loss of generality, we take $p_1$, because there's really no difference between taking that prime or any other prime... right?
proofman
Thus, $N$ is a product of primes, hence there exists some $i$ such that $p_i$ divides $N$. After relabeling the primes, wlog we assume $i=1$, i.e. $p_1$ divides $N$
Denascite
ok, you made it make sense
what was this comment referring to?
.
did you mean to say "fine"
I didnt write out "it was referring to this message"
sorry i dont understand
you asked what my comment was referring to. I replied which message it was referring to
ok. in that message which you were referring to: did you mean to say "fine" instead of "define"?
i suppose probably you did
oh. yes
ok thank you
let me see if i understand: we could have started with $N - 1$ instead of $N$?
proofman
I mean N-1 is p1...pn
you obviously used that
but you need the specific p_i which divides N
so you need to start with N. if thats what you mean
you are trying to simplify how to show the division?
I mean just generally you dont really want to talk about division as an operation
divisibility, sure. but you dont really want to divide stuff, cause before that you have to take care whether thats actually a thing you are allowed to do
you dont generally wanna argue with "oh hey in the rationals you could divide, but the result is a proper fraction and not an integer". its much nicer to stay in the integers
at least imo
also generalizes better to other rings
i see
ok, this makes sense because when you say: $p_i (k + p_1 p_2 \cdots p_{i - 1} p_{i + 1} \cdots p_n) = 1$ (in your case with $p_1$ instead of $p_i$), you get to use multiplication, stay in the integers
yes exactly. my entire argument never uses division
and most of these basic arguments generally never need division
very nice
do you know why texit didnt compile that last message properly? it messed up the $p_{i - 1}$, i cant figure out what i did wrong
proofman
notice how the "divides" definition a|b is "there exists integer k with ak=b" instead of "there exists integer k with k=b/a"
there doesnt seem to be an underscore I think?
proofman
good catch
yeah good example
its a very basic example, i should have caught on to that
dw, few people do I think
a lot of these types of proofs I read actually use the second def
sadly
that i didnt see, for example in the Gallian book it uses the first one
*proofs by students. not books
oh ok
im going to re-write this proof quickly and post it in the chat, i like everything you said but i think i will stick with the $p_i$ for mine
proofman
even though it isnt as clean as yours, i like the generality of using $i$
proofman
yeah dw stick with that
here, i think this is better
the p_i-1 is again messed up. also there needs to be a minus after the k
also I just noticed you use the implicit assumption that pn is the largest of the primes
either write that down or say that it is larger than each of the primes individually
there are a few things messed up
you want me to say < < < <
@west glade
yes
note that now you couldnt just do the wlog i=1 stuff cause you need that the primes are ordered
so you gain a bit of convenience for assuming there are ordered but lose a bit in exchange
quick syntax question, should i use: \ldots or \cdots for the "< < <" stuff?
I would use ldots
because "<" is not an operation?
I only use cdots for repeated multiplication
and even for that I often see \cdot\ldots\cdot
$\cdot \ldots \cdot$
proofman
oh i see
you dont say $n! = n \cdot (n - 1) \cdots 2 \cdot 1$ or something like that?
proofman
I personally would but I am have seen other people not doing it. I dont know if there is a "correct" way
not that it really matters that much
if there is one thing I have seen in the past on the tex stackexchange is that people often have different opinions about how something should be typesetted
for sure, just want to work on my tex skills as well
appreciate all of the helpful little tidbits, i think i am good for now
there were a lot of things i was thinking in that proof and not writing down
it's like either i write too much, or too little, still trying to work on that
yes thats normal
Vanellope von Schmugz
how do we have the last inequality
Ah so, we could then also write it as $\frac{3}{2}\cdot (\frac{6}{5})^{k-1}$ right?
Sentinel
posted an updated version of it
I think there was still something wrong with that proof, because $N$ would be greater than $p_n$ even without the $+1$, I’m trying to figure out where I went wrong.
proofman
maybe we just add +1 to it because it’s like chess, and that’s the “move” that allows us to get the contradiction?
i mean without the +1 you dont get the contradiction of some prime dividing 1
you dont need the fact that N is greater than the primes at all though (you only need to know its not on your list)
and the list doesnt need to be ordered by size
so just say: $N$ isn’t in the list, thus $N$ isn’t divisible by any prime $p_i$?
proofman
no
there are two cases:
either N itself is prime, then you immediately get a contradiction (as its not on your assumed complete list of primes)
or N is not prime, then it still has a prime factorization, so it must be divisible by some prime on your list
then you get a contradiction because that prime will also divide 1 (which is impossible)
ofc arguing "N is greater than all primes on the list, so it cant be on the list" works
its just not strictly necessary
I understand where you are going with this. It sort of optimizes the proof. To carry out your idea, so then N has to equal: k + 1, where $k$ is also some integer not in the list?
proofman
i don't think you really need to separately consider N being prime at all?
just, every number (that isn't 1) is divisible by some prime
but N can't be divisible by any primes
and N clearly isn't 1
ah yes, sure
that simplifies the proof further
but the proofs you posted are correct too
which message are you referring to?
what bee said
this isnt needed, the proof also works if your list is just 1 element
yeah that first case thing, I don’t think it’s necessary either,
with bee's optimization the proof is just defining N and then noticing that some prime p on your list divides N and thus 1, which is a contradiction
ok, I see where you’re going with it, but how do you define N?
like you did
k + 1 thing?
yes
and we don’t really care what k is, just that it isn’t in the list?
no, it has to be the product of all the primes
otherwise you cant guarantee that some prime on the list divides 1
the whole divisibility argument relies on the fact that some p_i divides k
the only way guarantee this is true for some p_i is to just make k the product of all of them
I don’t understand
did you not write this
yes I did write it
I mean yeah I didn’t call it k, I used k for something else
so you have to make sure that k is divisible by p_1, p_2, ..., p_n
ok for me, $N = k p_i$ in the original proof
proofman
ah ok well, you used k for different things
in the screenshot k is something else than what you said here
yes sorry I confused the issue
so maybe $m = p_1 p_2 \cdots p_n$ instead
proofman
So then, $N = k p_i$
proofman
$k p_i = m + 1$
proofman
$p_i$ does not divide 1
proofman
from here you can just write $m = p_i k'$ for some integer $k'$
Lochverstärker
then $p_i(k-k') = 1$, giving you your contradiction
Lochverstärker
(and then you dont even need to care about the i and can just claim that p is some prime on the list)
I don’t understand how did you get this step?
$kp_i = k'p_i + 1$ and just do algebra
Lochverstärker
Isn’t this the same as when I wrote $m + 1$?
proofman
ok I got confused, I thought I did the wrong thing
yeah I understand that this is more elegant
more generally, you can show that this function is multiplicative
this is a consequence of the chinese remainder theorem
why is then $\phi(2) = 1$
Sentinel
gcd(2, 1) = 1 and gcd(2, 2) = 2
i thought at first gcd(2,2) = 1
yep
and why is that true actually?
do you agree that a^(p-1) = 1 (mod p)
yep since p is prim $\phi(p) = p-1 $ is the order of a mod p
oh we are just multiplying those two
if its 1, it cant be a primitive root
oh nice reasoning
this right? i know
oh i knew it in that form
sure, same thing
yep but i didnt think of taking the quadrat of the square and argument it by euler
this technically requires some further arguing
or some knowledge about basic field theory
