#elementary-number-theory
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yeah for sure
let me see if it's done geting to 10k
8 9697
8 6529
8 3643
7 71
7 661
7 6359
7 6043
7 5503
7 4241
7 3541
7 3163
7 2267
6 9437
6 8863
6 5791
6 5051
6 4663
6 4591
6 4259
6 401
imagine some new NT theorem comes out of this 
"just do desmos" 
oh you mean how we'll get this into a graphic software
yeah
lol I think there's probably a better way to paste it into desmos so it's all in one thing
oh desmos cut out higher data in this version for some reason
too many pts for it in a table I think
interesting nevertheless
wait mero can u get ur program to spit out how many numbers have 7, how many have 5, 4, etc?
sure
well I'll just run some stuff on the data as a separate bit of data wrangling, not the program itself
1 467
2 364
3 208
4 116
5 46
6 16
7 9
8 3
or I guess reversed is nicer imo
8 3
7 9
6 16
5 46
4 116
3 208
2 364
1 467
in case you're curious how I'm getting these:
lotta basic unix tools are good for this sort of stuff
thousands of points + desmos is conspiring to crash my browser
XD
it's a shame that we dont' have the computing power to get millions of data points
I feel like we can't really see what's happening
just looks like static to me lol

2 2
1 3
1 5
2 7
2 11
1 13
1 17
2 19
3 23
2 29
1 31
1 37
1 41
2 43
2 47
1 53
4 59
4 61
3 67
7 71
1 73
4 79
4 83
1 89
1 97
Funny, I tried on my own and it seems that there's an error in p = 2 
you might be double counting with how you set up your loop
1 and p-1 happen to be equal
the frequency graph looks more structured
oh that's nicer
wow
distribution curves we go agian
interesting
desmos does it automatically
you take like a table of data with x_1 and y_1 then y_1~ax_1 + b will give the least squares for those pts for instance
we should plug some of those numbers into the inverse symbolic calculator
I guess the thing is, we need to normalize this curve somehow
otherwise it'll just keep growing by getting more data points
since the height is the frequency of occurrence
I'm wanting to return to this and thinking from this sort of theoretical starting point we could predict this curve here
but not sure exactly how I'd get started on that lol
i don't know enough group theory to help w that :( sorryyyyy
that's ok I'm probably just gonna forget about this problem in a few minutes and move on with my life, it was fun though lol thanks for playing with me here haha @runic token and @errant otter ๐
yes sir ๐ซก anytimeeeee
on the other hand, it might be an interesting motivator to learn some specific stuff about cyclic groups
indeed
group theory 
lmao idk if my program is doing it right but
when I implemented numpy
I generated 10k in like 3s
lemme check against what u generated

wait it ACTUALLY looks correct
wtf
no way
numpy's that cracked???
probably tbh i heard it's mad efficient
DAMN
yo do the things mero did
cmon graph it
i wanna see
pleaseeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee
Idk how to graph tho 
I made it do 100k, I wonder what it's at rn
nice I just literally printed it with commas and lines then pasted into desmos
like
1,2
3,4
5,6
what I did was to download a file of the first 100k primes

so I just accessed each number
LMAO
and then did the operations
and appended
it's called....
what is it called?
right
I think gp has the primes cached up to like 100k or so too
I think running the program backwards or something could optimize it, there's definitely work that could be done I think to make it better
but I think numpy probably did better idk haha

this is the first 23k I did before I cut it off btw 
it's taking quite a bit of time to do 100k as expected
factorials do be like that
oh WAIT
DUDE
WE WERE SO DUMG
WE COULD HAVE SAVED THE PREVIOUSLY COMPUTED FACTORIALS TO OPTIMISE
BROOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOO
๐
apparenly by default gp precomputes the first 65,000 primes which is more than I went to, so it's inefficient than what you're doing haha
yeah, or used how factorials are computed to do them in ad ifferent order
mhm
like compute n! and then reduce for p < n
mhm...
think that's what you're saying already so I'm late to that party haha
man how I love computers, rip to 19 century NTheorists
they woulda had to figure ts out themselves
you can probably graph with python or something with some library, I'd have to find one or something I guess
does desmos accept json
wait that works?
yeah that's what I did earlier
put your data like this
well it'll break the table
when I did it like (a,b) then it made separate points
just make a new program to go through the file and do it
^^
well, I'll just do it cause I already did it earlier

desmos doesn't like it
LMAO
ctrl+v and immediately froze
yeah need to get some kind of graphing library or somethin
let's see what we can find
literally got overloaded

bruh
I can't find a file with factorials in it
i think if someone has mathematica pirated here it would be easy
istg tho the 1millionth factorial has like
over 550000 digits
๐
no wonder my program is not terminating
I'd bet it's around the 40ks rn
shhhhhhhhh
Well I do but idk how to use it + it's laggy 
wait kmm can u check the highest number so far
i feel like if it's in line w what we've seen
and assuming it grows slower the hgiher it gets
it should be at like
15?
can u check how far in it is?
nope
I didn't add that feature else it'll impede on computation speeds
wel tbh
I might as well abort
and improve my code
hm....
it hit 566k
impressive
highest in that range is 9
weird yeah
very sus
grows very slowly
wonder if that'll be broken
if we went higher
time to optimise code
here we go
"no file for factorials? Fine, I'll make it myself"
oh wait
I used wrong command
LMFAO
wholly FUCK
it's 211MB
๐
not stonks at all
I tried making a file with factorials
it went balooney
thank god my PC's pretty strong
generating an american flag I guess
11 1
9 10
8 48
7 149
6 385
5 1085
4 2450
3 4845
2 7547
1 9151
computing frequencies from the data
which is 11 though? heh let's find out
8 3
7 9
6 16
5 46
4 116
3 208
2 364
1 467
this is the original one
hmmmm the frequencies actually look like
relatively similar
right?
like
yeah actually let me graph it too
similar to a surprising degree
well if u wanna compute freqnency
awk '$1==11' random.txt
11 292627
just use a dictionary
tho sadly it'll result in us losing the data of which numbers had this corresponding number
I already computed it from the data
just sort by the number of occurrences and throw away the other number and then count them up
that's really all I'm doing here cat random.txt | awk '{print $1}' | sort | uniq -c | sort -n | awk '{ print $2, $1}'
awk '{print $1}' grabs just the first entry, then I sort it, then count up the unique entries and count them with uniq -c then the rest is me just reorganizing it to look cute
(idk if you care about this just figured it might be nice to explain tho)
haha that's not entirely necessary it's just to keep the random.txt at the beginning of the pipeline
now to work out the std. deviation and all those stats stuff
as it's written, I actually put k where 1/sigma^2 is
so if I just rewrite it in terms of that it'll tell us directly
noice
m and s are the mean and std
well actually I added a +C to it to raise it up
so maybe I should remove that
do you think if we scale the bottom graph appropriately we'll get a really good approximation of the top graph
hmm geez, I need to learn my statistics
cmon python you can do ittttttttttttttttttttttttt generating the first 100k factorials
oof
I ust divided the y value by the first element
maybe this is da wrong approach 
lol oh definitely
we just pulled a gaussian out of our butts
could easily be something else
hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
tbh im willing to assume it's a gaussian js bc that looks pretty enough
like if we think of the probability of what curve we'd expect of pulling without replacement idk
I'd have to look up stuff and think about it to know what that would be
primes berrt
actually just shows the first line but this is the plotting program
geez it's taking forEVER to generate the first 100k factorials
I just did the hacky thing, probably there's a way to read the file in python to get it but I just said screw it and threw the data in a list
based mero
matplotlib was what I found an example for
referring to this earlier
naruhodo
an alternate way to look at the data
cat random.txt | awk '$1>hs {hs=$1; print $1, $2}'
1 2
2 7
3 23
4 59
7 71
8 3643
9 62939

LMAO
latex moment
did it go high enough
oh I just forgot to copy the last line
lol
cat random.txt | awk '$1>hs {hs=$1; print $1, $2}'
1 2
2 7
3 23
4 59
7 71
8 3643
9 62939
11 292627
interesting
no 10
why is ten skipped
avoids 10 like the plague
that's so silly
ohhhh true
71 occurs so soon
sus
out of context this is really funny actually
that it's already beat out 5 and 6 from occurring
haha
well we know it occurs cause we saw the frequencies earlier
and all were nonzero
right
it is interesting how it skips
actually I should have written the program simpler, then I'll explain it
couldnt be me kmm
it looks at the first entry $1 and if it's larger than the current highscore hs (initializes to 0 by default) then it will set the new hs hs=$1 as that entry and then print the line print
awk '$1>hs { hs=$1; print }' random.txt
1 2
2 7
3 23
4 59
7 71
8 3643
9 62939
11 292627
awk has come in surprisingly handy for dealing with this math data, didn't really expect to use it on the weekend here lol
oooh
hmmge
are these the first numbers that reach the new number
yeah
that could be interesting!
maybe those show a pattern
none of them are even 
(except two)
cat random.txt | awk 'BEGIN{OFS=","}$1>hs { hs=$1; print $1, $2}'
1,2
2,7
3,23
4,59
7,71
8,3643
9,62939
11,292627
paste this into desmos (after I reload it cause it froze again...)
https://www.desmos.com/calculator/wa90okiazc
looks like it might be exponential growth
tell me that doesn't look like ae^x
eh doesn't look so well https://www.desmos.com/calculator/uqpa8fdavk
ah im sure if we zoom out far enough it checks out
if you look at the smaller points they are not too grat either idk, I guess it's debatable
mfw it approaches e^x
also geez
it hasn't generated the 100k factorials yet
I'm beginning to question if it's even computationally reasonable
ye I did
oh ๐
ust curious looking at the differences between consecutive terms:
huh
ur right
those are weird numbers
71 is honestly the weirdest one
it's just x = 1, multiply by 1, store value, mult by 2, store, 3....
fr....
let's see if we can find any patterns when we sum teh digits 
maybe it's bc 17 is the largest number which occurs as a prime factor of an order of a sporadic simple group
I could imagine some relation to like n! and having subgroups of S_n etc etc doing idk what
but I don't know what a sporadic simple group is
tbh in a year from now I think the main thing I'll remember is that (p-1)! = -1 mod p doesn't mean p-1 is the minimal number that makes n! = -1 mod p true lol
surely we can prove this is true for infinitely many cases
it seems pretty common to occur
or at the very least we can prove the probability if we assume it's random follows somethin
it not only seems random but it seems that more and more numbers do not have p-1 as the minimal number to that being true
as we go up to infinity
like ok if I rephrase it slightly in terms of being random and group theory, think of it this way:
start with {0,1,2,...,2n-1} and then pick a number at random without replacement
call your number x, then keep taking numbers out and adding to your x and reducing mod 2n
how often would you expect to have x=n before you run out of numbers to draw from the pile?
isnt this more combinatorics
it's whatever you want it to be
do you see the relation to the original question or should I explain a bit
as long as this question makes sense on its own we can try to work on this new probability question on its own merits though
(I'm trying to shield you from the group theory translation I did, that's all)
with a loosening assumption on how it's random
literally being like veritasium when trying to explain p-adic numbers
desparately avoiding any mention of AA
๐ฉ
I didn't watch that p-adic number thing but I was afraid I'd see people talk about that now haha
trust ill tell you if i cant handle it
I probably have to watch it just so I can anticipate what people will say about it
it's a very silly funny video
so the structure of multiplication mod p is not really very predictable in this sense
like if I give you an element of Z/pZ* (the multiplicative group of integers mod p) and ask you to tell me what order it is in the group (how many times you multiply it by itself to make 1) then it's hard to compute
and that problem is called the discrete logarithm problem and some security depends on no one knowing a great way to solve this problem in certain cases
so we might as well just assume if we just start looking at the numbers in order like 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,... then we'll just assume for the sake of argument that their order is random
this is what we're looking at when we look at n for n!, we're just multiplying these on one after the other and seeing if we make -1 mod p
oh!
this multiplicative group happens to be a cyclic group with p-1 elements
so I turned it around to talking about addition mod 2n, here 2n is really p-1
and n+n=0 mod 2n
just like -1 * -1 = 1 mod p
so that's the isomorphism I'm looking at
basically the logarithm of multiplication mod p
and then assuming those are random when given to us by computing n! (not the same as the n in 2n, bad choice of new variable my bad)
log(n! mod p) = log(1)+log(2)+...+log(n) mod p-1 I suppose might be nice
to sort of think of it like that
log(-1 mod p) = (p-1)/2 mod p-1
wait i'm confused
isn't this noninteger
or I would rather throw away the mods and just have it understood what the domain and range types ar
this "log" is a map from Z/pZ* to Z/(p-1)Z
I think they usually use like ind(x) or ord(x) instead of log(x) for this
and I probably should specify a little more like a base of the logarithm, like some generator
so like let's pick p=5
g=2 or g=3 which would you prefer
I'll do g=2 you do g=3 afterwards
sure!
mod 5 is understood:
2^1 = 2
2^2 = 4
2^3 = 3
2^4 = 1
now we can map them to what order they are err
actually I might be saying that wrong earlier, I think maybe just ind, not ord
order is something else
order is what power you need to make the identity
ind is the index, which I believe is usually used for "log"
right
I'm kinda making a mistake in doing two separate things on accident cause I didn't think ahead just started writing haha
here I'm saying ind(2)=1, ind(4)=2, ind(3)=3 and ind(1)=4
or really ind(1)=0
although it doesn't matter because remember 2^4=2^0 = 1
ind(x) is well defined mod 4
since the exponents cycle back around
like for instance, $2*3 = 1 \mod 5$ which as exponents looks like $2^1 * 2^3 = 2^{1+3} = 2^4 = 2^0 =1 \mod 5$
Merosity
Merosity
damn
so we're going from multiplication mod p to addition mod p-1
wtf it looks so much like FLittleT
it is flt haha
except we're just thinking about it as logs instead of exponentials, same idea
1
i forget
fermat's little theorem
yeah, so maybe it'd be clearer if I had been writing like log_2(x) and now you're basically doing log_3(x)
at least, I see no good reason not to use logarithm notation like I'm doing cause it feels sane to me
yeah exactly
no it makes sense
0 is best imo
just keep them to {0,1,2,3} for mod 4
you oculd wrap around further like 2^5 = 32
right right
so what's ind(32)
yeah, alternatively since 32=2 mod 5
naruhodo
so you can do it inside or outside
if that makes sense
ind(32) = ind(2) = 1 is how I did it doing mod 5 inside
or ind(32)=ind(2^5)=5 = 1 mod 4 outside
it makes senseeee
this is what a group homomorphism allows you to do f(x*y)=f(x)+f(y)
going between multiplication and addition, we could compute it eithe way as the group with multiplication or the group with addition
although we have something stronger, we have a group isomorphism, this is invertible
but just trying to tie it into stuff a bit to help give you examles for learning group theory later
me with my self-insert nanis be like
lol
what does invertible mean here
we can go back and forth
without losing information
so like lt's say I give you the set {1, -1}
and witht he operation multiplication that gives us a group
a group is a set with a binary operation that obeys some rules
so now we can make this homomorphism: f(x)=x^2
and see that it satisfies f(xy)=f(x)f(y) for all x,y in {1, -1}
but we can't invert it cause both 1 and -1 map to 1
so would that require bijectivity? 
yep
the reason it's nice to have an isomorphism is that basically means we're just relabelling the symbols of the group
we're not "smashing it down" into a smaller group
-1,1,i,-i
isomorhpism theorems be like
another isomorphism we can make is think of multiplication with {1, -1} and addition mod 2 with {0, 1}
these are really just a relabelling of the symbols we use
hm
naruhodo
-1 * -1 = 1 is really arelabelling of 1+1=0 mod 2
replace -1 with 1, replace * with + and replace 1 with 0
you basically just rewrite it as x mapping to f(x)
it's important to think of the domain and codomain
f: {1, -1} -> {0, 1}
so while 1 lives in the multiplication world on the left, 1 lives in the addition mod 2 world on the right
f(1)=0 and f(-1) = 1
and f(x*y) = f(x)+f(y)
ohhhhhhh
so that's how the elements and binary operator translate over
okay okay nice
yup
is that the proper notation?
notation brrt
but in our case G is still that same data of a set with binary operatior
and same for H
G = ({1, -1}, *) and H = ({0,1}, + mod 2) you could write something like this
although there are bunch of other notations for things like this
like when you learn about quotients people often write Z/2Z for addition mod 2 and Z/pZ* for multiplication mod p
and if you had more elements
hm
wait
you can only have an isomorphism if the cardinalities are equal
right?
yeah
if there's not even a set isomorphism, you can't have a group isomorphism
it starts to get hairier when you get to larger groups which have the same cardinality, now telling groups apart might require looking at other properties of the elements or operator
lol I feel like we kinda diverted from our original goal but that's fine
I think this is probably more important
but I think that should make it much clearer how basically fermat's little theorem sorta tells you multiplication mod p is the same as addition mod p-1
you're just relabelling some symbols in a sense
yeah you're welcome
also our example showed that relabelling to addition wasn't even unique
it depended on which generator we chose, like when I did 2 and you did 3, we ended up with different looking translations that were still consistent
ohhh thatโs true
in fact it might be clearer to see this through another isomorphism you're familiar with
when we use the complex numbers {1, -1, i, -i} we could do the complex conjugate
since adding the roots of x^2+1 has this ambiguity of which is i and -i, it doesn't really matter which we pick
similarly we can map 2 to i or 3 to i
hmmm
going from multiplication mod 5 to multiplication in the complex numbers
f(2)=i is enough to unravel everything
f(2)^2 = i^2 has to be true
cause f(2*2)=f(2)*f(2) as a homomorphism
right

oh so it cycles!
that makes sense
similarly f(3)=f(2^3)=f(2)^3= i^3 = -i
and so on
but we could have done the reverse to begin with and picked f(3)=i
and gotten f(2)=f(3^3)=f(3)^3 = i^3 = -i
yeah so we just sorta went through a bunch of different isomorphisms but the kind of nice thing is group theory lets us zoom out and not really worry about these details
we're really just relabelling the same group here
whether we saw it as addition mod 4, multiplication mod 5 or multiplication in the complex numbers
it's really the same structure, so it's sort of nice to bounce between perspectives like this
ohhh so we can make thms abt like one group while it might be hard for another group
depending on what's convenient to us
but bc of isomorphism
yeah exactly
it still applies

lmao
thatโs so smart
I dunno haha
I suppose in some sense the first isomorphism we all really kind of get used to seeing is exponentials and logarithms
i wish i was like that fr
fr
yeah, see if you can figure out what the sets and operators are
Mmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
sets are a^x for exponentials and the operator is multiplication?
haha not exactly
naaaaaaaaaaaaaaaani
set not quite right, but operator would be multiplication
hmmmm
MmmmMMMmmm
I think once you see it it'll be clearer, but I'll let you struggle together for a bit while I make more tea
it's good for you to figure it outhaha
ok fair
wait
i think?
because ln(a) + ln(b) = ln(ab)
hmge
A and B each have a binary operator
remember a group is a set and binary operator
are they both addition then?
hm
no
wait
i feel like it should be no
i think the exponentials should be multiplication
ohhh the domain for exponentials is all real numbers
and the codomain is positive reals
the exponential or log is not where the binary operator is
that's just the map between the groups
mf

just like log maps a number from positive reals to all reals
log maps ??? operator to ??? operator?
log(x+y)=log(x)*log(y)
log(x+y)=log(x)+log(y)
log(x*y)=log(x)+log(y)
log(x*y)=log(x)*log(y)
c!
which of those looks right and what's going where
multiplication to addition!
so is that * to + or + to *
multiplicative to additive 
ok cool
so now write exponentials out this way
show how it does the reverse
f(x+y)=f(x)*f(y)
we can just use the fact that log is inverse of exp can we?
that was silly of me
yes it goes additive to multipicative
and it's unique in that property, right?
yeah
I guess it sounds like I'm asking something intense I really just meant
write it in terms of like f(x)=e^x
I want to see the + and * flopping around
ohhh but the reason group theory is nice is because we can prove something for this and then extend it to different groups
e^(a+b) = e^a * e^b
like that!
yeah exactly
that's really all I was looking for, just making sure the basics are clear of what'shappening
just like we relabeled addition mod 4 to multiplication of {1,-1,i,-i} in C
and saw that those are really just the exact same structure
addition of reals is exactly the same structure as multiplication of positive reals
so that's really just all we really have from this particular isomorphism
hmmm
this was just to show an example, I don't know if that will feel very profound or anything like that
it's still a nice example though
i think it helped me!
idk abt kmm but it made sense to me
that's good
I think we're sorta used to R since kids that it's easy to take it for granted a bit, but the fact that to show that addition of R and multiplication of positive R are the same requires a funny mapping, like log(2) where you're producing irrational numbers often times
for instance, is addition in rationals isomorphic to multiplication of positive rationals?
mmmmmm
if they are or aren't - prove it ๐
also backing up, just like we mapped 2 mod 5 to i or -i
we also didn't have a unique isomorphism here either
f(x)=a^x we had choices for a
anyways just sorta throwing some food for thought at you to play with haha I think that's a good amount for now
we can still keep talking I just won't like keep introducing new stuff haha
i am working on the problem
hmmm
so my initial thoughts were
"oh of course it has to be possible"
Ummmm okay so I have the sussy feeling like we have to introduce the fact that irrational numbers may pop out to disprove this
so then i thought abt defining some function q to q+
oh
me and kmm are thinking entirely different things ๐

im sure they're correct tho
bc im having much trouble defining such a function that maps addition to multiplication
we want a function s.t f(x+y)=f(x) * f(y)
oh
but its unique
and clearly it's sometime nonrational
it's not necessarily unique
yeah around those lines? But wait why'd u write f(x)+ oh ok u fixed it
okok
so um
let's say
clearly
just like f(x)=2^x and f(x)=3^x are both exponentials (log_2 and log_3 for the inverse)
so since such an x must exist
and assuming that the isomorphism is there
then
f(x) = f(x/2 + x/2)
= f(x/2)^2
hmm
so
OH
since f(x) = 2
basically it'll become sqrt 2 I think?
and that's irrational
but now to prove that there is indeed such an x

well
it just needs to have it so that it doesn't map to perfect squares every single time
oh hold up
nono we dont need to do that
okay so hear me out
if we can have f(x/2 + x/2)

then why can't we have f(x/3 + x/3 + x/3)
uh huh
lmao that EMOTE
it's gotta be a cube root
and we can just go on
so it would have to be rational
for every single nth root
which is not possible
for any number

you solved it?
haha it sounded like you had a good idea so I think you did
I didn't read it, just was gonna let you rewrite it more cleanly when you're ready haha
I just abused the guy who got stoned by pythagoras's followers
alrighty here I go
Suppose that we have an isomorphism between the addition in rationals and the multiplication of positive rationals, denoted by $f: (\mathbb{Q}+) \mapsto (\mathbb{Q}_{>0} \cross$
Since $f$ is bijective, there exists an $x \in \mathbb{Q}$ such that $f(x) = 2$. Since x is rational, so is $\frac{x}{2}$. (I think? Idk how to prove this part tho)
As such, we have that $f(x) = f(\frac{x}{2} + \frac{x}{2})$, and by our assumption, is equal to
$f(\frac{x}{2}) \cdot f(\frac{x}{2}) = f(\frac{x}{2})^2 = 2$, which implies that
$f(\frac{x}{2}) = \pm \sqrt{2}$. But $\sqrt{2}$ is irrational, leading to a contradiction
Kiameimon | Welt Rene (glomed)
yeah that looks good, I'll help on the parts a bit that need cleaning a little
I need to learn how to write formal proofs smh
since f maps from positive rationals, it's defined on x/2, so f(x/2) is fine
yeah that was plenty formal
if you had tried to do something like f(sqrt(x)) then we'd have problems of course
I probably would have not written sqrt(2) because it's not really an element
like f(x/2)^2 = 2 but since we know f(x/2) is rational we could write it as y maybe for clarity
ah
y^2 = 2 then just say - "nope" cause of the same reason


I think working backwards is sorta tricky like knowing there's an x such that 2=f(x) is a good trick
since this is the number theory channel, this is morally good because we have now officially shown that the rational numbers are more interesting than real numbers

because its multiplicative group and additive groups isn't really just a simple relabeling of symbols like reals ๐
that makes sense though we already knew that, cause rational numbers have prime factorizations while real numbers, there's no barrier to taking roots
yee
if you push your proof a bit more generic and don't fix 2, you could do something like pick an arbitrary rational q, q=f(x) then break it down to q=f(x/n * n) = f(x/n)^n and recognize that f(x/n)=r is some other rational number but in general we can't solve q=r^n for all n
(just to put it more clearly why I said there's no barrier to taking roots)
actually groups like this have a name called divisible groups
a bit 
matrix multiplication is noncommutative generally speaking
mhm
so there's a source for some nonabelian groups that might be important to you eventually
uh huh
and try rotating it 90 degrees around the x axis or y axis but in opposite orders
and you end up with different ending configurations
mhm mhm
or if you have some dice lying around you can do them both too
anytime in math someone calls something a 'symmetry' they are probably thinking about some specific group moving something around
sounds like diagonalisation to me
somewhat related
the eigenvector matrices you're conjugating by are what make up the symmetries

specifically if we're talking about symmetric matrices, you can think of the symmetries are how those orthogonal matrices reflect or rotate the quadratic forms
like xy=1 is a hyperbola that opens up at a 45 degree angle but then we can rotate it 45 degrees to make (x^2-y^2)/2 = 1 or whatever it is
well we'd have to talk a little bit more about group actions since I'm introducing an extra set here now tha the group is acting on
I think that's enough for tonight lol

does this look right? here p is prime
where do you get the upper bound of ceil(sqrt(p))
I proved that
I'm guessing some kind of tweak on $\sum_{d|p-1}\varphi(d) = p-1$
Merosity
yeah that was the part I was not too sure about, I did some playing around and saw that as p gets large, the bound ceil(cbrt(p)) holds, but for some smaller values of p it doesn't
like p = 31, this doesn't hold
ngl I was kinda bluffing, the gap does grow very fast tho
I don't think you need to do anything so weird
but idk, nothing pops out to me right away
what I could do is use the fact that
my idea is that there is no d that divides p-1 that is greater than sqrt(p)
maybe that plays a role here somewhere
hmm the fact that we have the cube root might mean we have to pull out more than that
but it's a start, let's see how that goes for us
yeah the cbrt is throwing me off a bit lol
already that gets us $\lim_{p \to \infty} \frac{p-1 - \varphi(p-1)}{p-1}$
Merosity
so that's 1 - phi(p-1)/(p-1), I don't think $\lim_{p \to \infty} \frac{\varphi(p-1)}{p-1} = 1$ so we gotta be better
Merosity
since p is prime $\frac{\varphi(p-1)}{p-1} < 1$ cuz $p-1$ is not prime
ForJoke
what if we looked the sum $\sum_{d|p-1, d < \sqrt{p}}\varphi(d)$
ForJoke
that's what we just looked at
oh wait, wut?
oh p not p-1
my bad
I think it's still the same though
here's another way maybe
d | p-1 and d < cbrt(p) we rewrite this condition as d^3 < p and then subtract 1 from both sides d^3 - 1 < p - 1
now factor and we have (d-1)(1+d+d^2) < p-1
we already know d-1 < p-1 not very exciting, but maybe 1+d+d^2 < p-1 if we look at the divisors between these two roots of the quadratic
I dont quite see how this helps ngl
not sure yet either, but I just finished solving for the roots of it
one is negative, but might as well be 1, the other is positive so
$$\sum_{d|p-1, d<\sqrt[3]{p}} \varphi(d) \le \sum_{d|p-1, d<\frac{-1+\sqrt{4p-7}}{2}} \varphi(d)$$
Merosity
at least we know this is true and we have a quadratic now, and then we can mess with that a bit more to simplify it to something more tractable like you had actually -
$$\sum_{d|p-1, d<\sqrt[3]{p}} \varphi(d) \le \sum_{d|p-1, d<\frac{-1+\sqrt{4p-7}}{2}} \varphi(d) \le \sum_{d|p-1, d<\sqrt{p}} \varphi(d) $$
Merosity
yeah the far inequalities are easily derived since cbrt(p) < sqrt(p)
I guess what I'm saying is, if the sqrt(p) one doesn't work we might be able to tighten it a bit further using this result I just found to make it work if we're nearly close
oh that is true
although idk where to go from here either so that's why I did that dancing around haha
just figured at least I'll take the paths I could see to their dead ends first
hmmmm
the far sqrt(p) doesn't help, I checked this using python, sqrt(p) grows too slowly after a point
oh, change it to the lower one I just got too
it probably won't work either if it's too slow growing
so this just needs to be trashed entirely
that's just translating slightly, it's not gonna fix issues in the long term
what makes the cube root so special?
hmm idk
more playing around, what if we write p=1+dn and d^3 < p and plug it in to make d^3 < 1+dn
this is like a depressed cubic
which is how I feel about it too, not sure if I want to go further down this path
yeah no, this gets ugly, fast
I'm sorry but I gotta sleep now, its like 5am where I am๐
I will dream about this question, and hopefully get something fruitful, I will keep you updated
you should proolly sleep too lmao
exactly what I'm doing too
gg

Im trying to understand this proof for 'there are infinitely many primes of the form 4k-1'
jayzsparrow
Interlude 1: how do we know that there must be atleast 1 prime divisor of the form 4k -1?
Suppose they're all 4k+1
That's fine
wait was that it? ๐
Well just giving a hint, you fill in the rest
Suppose all the prime divisors of 4k - 1 is 4k+1?
Yeah
suppose there are only finitely many primes of this for $p_1,p_2,. . . , p_n$ and consider the number $m = 4p_1 . . . p_n$ - 1. since m is of the form 4k-1 and m > $p_i$ for all i it follows that m is composite and must have prime factors of the form 4k + 1 or 4k-1. Since the product of any two numbers of the form 4k+1 is again of that form it follows that m has atleast one prime divisor of the form 4k-1
jayzsparrow
ah ok I see what you're saying, gotcha thanks.
Cool, you're welcome
how many divisors can p-1 have that are less than p^(1/3)

right




