#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 6 of 1
I think we can use bezout's identity. There exists integers x,y satisfying ax+by=1 iff gcd(a,b)=1. ||So writing a=cd we have c(dx)+by=1 so we have found integers dx, y meaning gcd(c,b)=1||
Even simpler: if k is a common divisor of c and b, then k is also a common divisor of a and d. Therefore 1 <= gcd(c,b) <= gcd(a,d) = 1.
Thanks, the part I was lost getting is that you just need to show you have integers x,y.
I like it but I have doubts that it relies on knowing gcd(c,b)<=gcd(a,b) when c | a, how would I prove this without basically assuming what we have to prove?
Since the common denominators of c and b form a subset of the common denominators of a and b, this follows immediately.
gcd is by definition the greatest common denominator!
I agree but then we could just say this directly, couldn't we?
since gcd(a,b)=1 is the greatest common divisor of a and b, removing divisors from a to make c makes gcd(c,b)=1 too
I suppose in some sense, the concept of gcd being well defined in the first place is being assumed here, when I feel like at this level we're calling it the "greatest common denominator" without really knowing that term is really justified. Like if we had called it "bloop function", then we can't appeal to the label that it's the greatest common denominator.
maybe I'm wrong though, I'm trying to think through the details a bit more, like for other rings and what assumptions are going on here
I don't have the book im reading with me, forgot how it defined gcd.
i have a question
it's false, plug in n=-6 to get an easy counterexample
makes no difference
didnt check so
lol
n = 1 is another counterexample
but why do you need to counter it, doesnt the first one work?
oh is n=1 the answer to n
first what works?
that expression is not always a multiple of 6 and there are at least two counterexamples
So you can’t prove it
nevermind i have realized why my maths teacher dont let me do proofs, thanks for the help but this is why im getting a U in maths
im ver stupid
byeeeeeee
weird troll lol
i wasnt trolling, just trying to figure out how to do proofs
see ya later alligator
for what $n$ does a solution to
$x^3\equiv1\pmod{n}$
exist? and how could we find it?
nilpotent nix
solutions other than x=1 i mean 😅
For any n, any x≠1 such that x ≡ 1 mod n would satisfy the requirements, wouldn't it?
Therefore such solutions exist for all n.
you could rewrite it as x^3-1 = (x-1)(x^2+x+1) and so ask when x^2+x+1=0 😛
Unless you meant to ask, solutions where x ≢ 1 mod n
start with figuring out when you can solve x^3=1 mod p
This approach wouldn't give all solutions, would it?
I don't use the same notation as you
I just use = to mean whatever ring we're working in based off common sense context detecting
ah ok
the easy thing about this is we know that the order of the multiplicative group here is p-1, so you need 3 to divide p-1 by Lagrange's theorem
so that means p=1 mod 3
(you'll have to look at the p=3 case separately though)
tthen you can build up to whatever power by Hensel's lemma and combine the distinct powers of primes by the chinese remainder theorem
maybe check out the Carmichael function, it's basically a better version of Euler's totient function when thinking about the orders of elements
I think I've said a lot, but one important thing to keep in mind is if you have a solution to f(x)=0 mod n, and p divides n, then you also need f(x)=0 mod p. It turns out a lot of the problem can be simplified by just looking at how to solve it at each prime divisor of n.
ah this is incredibly helpful! thank you
i'll be sure to check out all those topics. this makes sense too. i'm sensing a common theme that whenever a question about mod n comes up, mod p is the best place to start.
yeah definitely
feel free to ping whenever about this sorta stuff I can explain more or walk through some examples
is there actually an efficient, deterministic way to solve x^2 + x+ 1 = 0 (mod p) when p = 1 (mod 3)?
my idea was to just guess random elements and take them to the power of (p-1)/3. about 1 in 3 times this will work.
Well you can just do
$x^2+x+1= (x+\frac{1}{2})^2+\frac{3}{4}\$
So the equation reduces to
$(x+\frac{1}{2})^2=-\frac{3}{4} \mod p$
Drake
Here 1/x means multiplying with inverse of x(and that exists because we are dealing with a field Z/p)
@fervent grove
ok but how do you find a square root of 3
oh right I forgot
shanks tonelli
ok this makes sense
I mean shouldn't you be doing square root of -3 if that's your approach
sure fine
it's the same question
I think taking square roots still requires you to find a quadratic non-residue
which requires guessing to do efficiently
but I guess this is better by a constant factor
Is this a computational problem?
If so then compute what number corresponds to -3/4 in Z/p
yeah my question is to efficiently compute this
my objection to your approach is that even finding square roots deterministically is nontrivial
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tonelli–Shanks_algorithm is basically the algorithm I'm familiar with
You could also use the quadratic formula to get the -3
Is there an elementary proof of "p=3 mod 4 => -1 quadratic nonresidue" that doesn't invoke Euler's identity?
if -1 is a quadratic residue, then we can find x such that p | x^2+1. If p is not 2, then x =/= +1, -1, so x (mod p) has order 4 . It follows that p = 1 (mod 4).
take contraposition to get the desired statement
Damn, you're right, it went over my head that being a residue would imply an order 4 element. Thanks.
Sort of related, I don't know if this is efficient, but it's deterministic for a similar problem. $\left(\frac{p-1}{2}\right)!^2 = -1 \mod p$ when $p=1\mod 4$. Maybe there's a similar formula for a third root of unity?
Merosity
the formula comes from Wilson's theorem when p=1 mod 4, the second half of (p-1)! can be split off and rewritten as ((p-1)/2)!
can we directly steal this trick when p=1 mod 3 and break (p-1)!=-1 into 3 or 6 pieces maybe?
maybe something similar
I'm guessing 6 because we actually have p=1 mod 6, and we're guaranteed these roots of unity hanging out if w is a primitive 3rd root of unity: {1, -1, w, w^2, -w, -w^2} so trying to imagine them partitioning out the rest of the numbers somehow in a useful factorization for us
I feel like whatever approach is taken here needs to be able to deal with the fact it's basically proving QR for the prime 3 right
so something nontrivial needs to be done
here's one proof I'm looking at. Since Euler's criterion is $$\left(\frac{-3}{p}\right)=(-3)^\frac{p-1}{2} \mod p$$ we can prove QR for $-3$ by using the fact that $\sqrt{-3}=\omega-\omega^2$ for $\omega$ a primitive 3rd root of unity. In order to do that, we can look at $$(-3)^\frac{p-1}{2}=\pm 1 \mod p$$ by multiplying through by $\sqrt{-3}$ and looking at $$\sqrt{-3}^p = \pm \sqrt{-3}\mod p$$. So, pulling it together, $$\sqrt{-3}^p = (\omega-\omega^2)^p = \omega^p-\omega^{2p} = \pm \sqrt{-3} \mod p$$. The sign will be $+$ when $p=1\mod 3$ and $-$ when $p=2 \mod 3$.
Merosity
I dunno if there's anything useful here to extract, but trying to keep closer to algebraic manipulations as I can
also I realize I'm being super terse, like I'm going into an extension field and casually not mentioning it
texaspb
a theorem of any sort?
I think you can search “freshman’s dream”
This holds if r is prime
frobenius endomorphism
Lol
binomial theorem 
can you link the article
I'm guessing they're just using the fact it's a valuation on Z to show it's a valuation on Q, so it's not circular
How would you guys approach this?
ok I think I got it
uh wait no
ah yes
2^(pi(x)) gives an upper bound on the number of square free integers below x
done
Nice
I believe this proof of infinitude of primes is originally due to Erdos
how could I go about solving
$2n\mid \alpha(n-2)$?
nilpotent nix
when $n\equiv2\mod4$, i found $\alpha\mid\frac{n}{2}$
nilpotent nix
nilpotent nix
(Referring to alpha as a for easy typing)
Case a is even
2n|(a/2)(2n) - 2n = a(n-2)
Case a is odd
from given, we have a(n-2) is even so n-2 is even -> n is even
let n = 2k
2(2k)|a(2k-2) -> 2k|a(k-1)
we have k-1 is even so k is odd
Let k = 2m + 1 so n. = 4m+2
2(2m+1)|a(2m)
2m+1|a(2m)
2m+1 and 2m are relatively prime, hence 2m+1|a
So n = 4m+2 and a some multiple of 2m+1 = n/2 works
I assume that s=1 and t=10 is the smallest integer solution but how do I write 1 in terms of prime facotriaxztrion?>
60*1 is not the same as 126*10
t = 0 s = 0
GOSH DARN IT
is the smallest solution
how did you figure that out?
I mean if you wanna be cheeky like that then obviously you can pick s and t very very negative. clearly not what is meant here
5 is definitely a prime factor of the LHS, cause it's a factor of 60. so it also needs to be a prime factor of the RHS. it doesn't divide 126, so it has to divide t. with an approach like this you can find which prime factors have to divide s and t at least
thanks!
I got 210 and 10
is that correct?
I got the anwser I just broke the two equations into its prime factors and filled in the gaps
210 tho?
nah it was 21 and 10
yes that looks correct
yeah 🙂
What is the significance of the Jacobi symbol if it doesn't give you complete information on the solutions of x^2=a mod n (for a,n coprime resiude=>(a|n)=1, but not the converse)?
it's much easier to compute since you don't need to find the prime factorization
oh and I sort of took it for granted, but you still have that (a|n)=-1 when a is not a quadratic residue mod n
so if you only care about showing something is a nonresidue, this is the way to go.
good book for elementary number theory for olympiads
That doesn't justify it, you could dream up any number of expressions that are easy to compute.
That is clear to me, yes, I was asking about its further uses.
often the jacobi symbol is used as an intermediate step amid quadratic residue computations, where things work as you [want]
for example, if you wanted to compute (140|701) or something, you would like to just flip this as (701|140) by quadratic reciprocity for the jacobi symbol
but (701|140) does not make sense as a quadratic residue because the denominator is no longer prime!
so to do this kind of flipping, one has to use Jacobi symbols
one might object that we can just factor 140 into primes before flipping, but in practice factoring the numerator every time we want to apply quadratic reciprocity is much slower than using quadratic reciprocity for the jacobi symbol
in particular, using quadratic reciprocity for the jacobi symbol is about as fast as the Euclidean algorithm, which is as fast as it gets
here's another fun application of the jacobi symbol: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solovay–Strassen_primality_test
(in practice people don't do primality checking like this anymore because there are better tests, but I think this is something that every number theory student should see)
what's a good elementary number theory book that focuses more on computation than proofs?
I've heard that gauß's nt book focuses on computation
but I'm not sure where to find it
I like "Elements of Number Theory" by Gareth and Josephine Jones, which has a fair number of computational exercises, and talks about computational techniques such as the Sieve of Eratosthenes, primality tests, and others. It covers a nice chunk of elementary number theory.
If the number 301 in decimal is represented by 1221 in base b, then 442b =
how do I solve something like this
Represented by 1221 in base b means that it is equal to 1b³+2b²+2b+1
And then you solve the equation for positive integer values of b, satisfying b>2(since 2 is a digit in base b).
how do I solve for b when the exponents are different here
you can factor 1221 as 11 * 111 in base b, and since 301 = 7 * 43 you can pick out the smaller factor is 7=1+b so b=6
I factored 1221 and 301
11 in base b is 1+b
how do you know
the string "11" is a base b number, which means that it's 1 * b^1 + 1 * b^0
is this another method from this
because that way makes sense '
just Im having trouble solve the cubic equatio n
it's the same idea, that's what a base b string representation means
in base 10 the string 1221 would mean 1 * 10^3 + 2 * 10^2 + 2 * 10^1 + 1 * 10^0
in base b the string 1221 would mean 1 * b^3 + 2 * b^2 + 2 * b^1 + 1 * b^0
what I did is factored this as (b+1)(b^2+b+1)
(just saying it in a different way, but it's the same thing)
(b+1)(b^2+b+1) = 301 = 7 * 43
7 and 43 are prime numbers and since prime factorization is unique, it forces b+1 and b^2+b+1 to be both of these numbers
I know 7=b+1 and 43 = b^2+b+1 because 43 > 7 and b^2+b+1 > b+1
to elaborate on this, whenever I'm asked to factor a cubic I try the rational root test, b^3+2b^2+2b+1 means I should try b=1 and b=-1
In this specific case, one obtains b³+2b²+2b=300
since b is a positive integer, we have b<7 because 7³=343
Also notice that b³ is even, which implies b is even.
So you only need to check 2,4 and 6, which gives 6 as the answer.
if a and b are coprime integers, are a and na+b coprime for any integer n?
Yes
ah yeah ofc but except for those edge cases
is there a proof for this?
my number theory skills are quite lacking lmao
well if a and b are coprime
we can find integers s and t such that
as+bt=1
not sure if this will help
They are always coprime, no 'edge' cases exist
wow that was a hilarious algebra mistake 
Let p divide a, if p divides na+b then p divides na+b -n×a, which is b
then a and b are not coprime
Which is a contradiction
ah i see
thank you
one more question
is this true: c is coprime to ab iff c is coprime to a and c is coprime to b separately
the forward direction is easy to see
let me think a bit for the reverse
yes
if we consider prime factorizations
i can see why (c,a)=1 and (c,b)=1 implies that (c,ab)=1, since we just look at the prime factoriztions
actually i can also see the other direction too
nvm LMAO
you answered your own question
yeah sorry about that lol

<@&268886789983436800>
this is wrong right.
ive forgotten how i would prove this. i might have to go through my lecture notes from last year
could you explain to me pls
so (b+kn)^3 mod n
which if u expand and simplify gets u b^3
then for the right side you go (b+kn)^2 mod n * (b+kn) mod n
so b^2 (b+kn) modn
ah
so b^3
np
can i get a nudge on this pls
Proof by contradiction.
anyone know what we learn in 8th grade math
No
ok i got that last one
but can i get a different nudge on the claim here
tinkering with the ineq. hasnt given much
i feel like some calc bullshit could prove this lmao
well n^2 and (n+1)^2 are composite and the primes have to be... somewhere
i guess take the prime decomposition of each
say n^2 has i primes in its decomposition and (n+1)^2 has j
nah

it's basically the pigeon hole principle
im gonna put something in a pigeon's hole if i have to do any more of this
not actually i just wanted to make that joke, this isn't that bad 
lol whatever floats your boat
like maybe it helps to think about as, the intervals (n^2, (n+1)^2) completely cut up the real number line into infinitely many pieces
and all you're excluding are perfect squares, which are composites
so who cares?
What is this study resource you're using, where well-known open questions are exercises?
proof: who cares 
maybe try to think of it by contradiction if that helps, assume there are only finitely many, what does that look like?
Yeah that claim is trivial
Especially given the hint

man, what did I say to deserve being called a small brain
:(:(
it's not you it's me
bruh
but i guess a finite number of such n would contradict that there are infinite primes

profs are so funny
nah you're over thinking it, be throrough if you're really paranoid
my algebra prof constantly says in lectures "yeah prove this for yourselves if you feel like it, just stare at it for a while"
and other profs fully expect detailed well structured proofs for everything
maybe i'll submit principia mathematica as my proof of 2+2 = 4
no u
merosity prof? 
no lol
if you want to get obtuse and use analysis you can try saying the sequence floor(sqrt(p_n)) is increasing and bounded above...lol
ok goodnight don't complicate it, much less overcomplicate it
I recall hearing, once, that you can measure how effective a base is at representing a number by computing some sort of function on the number of digits it needs to represent a number and the number of values those digits can have, and if you do that, balanced ternary comes out on top for most numbers. Is this real, or did I make it up, and if it's real what's it called?
Radix Economy?
Not sure if it's exactly what you're looking for but seems close and a good start
Cost measurement for digit representation
I think that's exactly it, thank you
Does anyone have a hint for this one?
Think about prime factors
ahhhh 42 = 2 * 3 * 7 and there isn't any factor of power 2 or 3
so 42 can't divide a^2 and b^3
thanks!
just want a hint, not a solution. we have that a and b are coprime, and their gcd divides 2a and 2b.
so 2a=k1d and 2b=k2d. from there, i'm stuck...
Consider gcd(2a, 2b)
what are some common ways of proving numbers of a certain form are perfect squares? ik abt congruence to 0 or 1 mode 4 but what else
There are many ways of showing that numbers of a certain form are not perfect squares.
Congruence relations such as the one you have mentioned above.
Do you know any ways besides the one I mentioned?
all perfect squares are congruent to 0 or 1 mod 3
all perfect squares are congruent to 0,1 or 4 mod 5
all perfect squares are congruent to 0,1,2 or 4 mod 7
There exist similar relations for cubes, fourth powers, and so on
Alright, thanks
Perfect squares are never prime number+4, with one exception: 9=5+4
That's true.
(And easier to see if you think of it as "a perfect square minus 4 is always composite, with these few exceptions ...")
nilpotent nix
is this a sufficient proof that gcd(ka,kb)=kgcd(a,b)?
Yes
thank you 🙂
if a positive integer d divides 2, then d must be 1 or 2 right? since any positive divisor must be less than or equal to whatever it's dividing
yes, if something divides something else then it must be a divisor
More generally, you can replace 2 with any prime p and that statement still holds true
Hey there! I appreciate any help people could give me on this number theorem problem. Assume m is given by another person and is the product of two large primes, so you don’t know the euler totient function of m. How do you calculate f(x)= 2^(2^x) mod m in polynomial time without first calculating phi(m)? I know how to calculate g(x) = 2^x mod m
just square it over and over, no?
dynamic programming in linear time?
whats the significance of the two large primes?
if you know the prime factorization you’d be able to calculate phi(m), and then you can calculate a multiple of the period of the function, which makes the problem easy
I’d like to know it for a large x (like a googol), and I dont have the computing power to calculate a googol steps, or is that not what you meant?
well I mean eventually you do repeat yourself
how does that work?
you said polynomial time. polynomial time in what. x?
even linear time in x will be ages for x a googol
the series you get by putting x = 1,2,3... is 2, 4, 16, 256... Each number is the square of the previous number. So you just iterate over x and square the last value mod m
thats in O(x) which is polynomial time
regardless of how long x=googol will take
(well ignoring that squaring and reducing also takes a bit of time)
I don’t get it
being able to calculate it faster seems essentially equivalent to calculating phi(m). so I doubt that works
which part?
sorry my phone battery died
wouldn’t it take 10 times longer if x increased by 10 times? I thought that was called exponential time
no
that's linear
if it increased by something like 2^10 then it would be exponential
oh okay. Is there a way to do it faster?
well at least eventually you repeat and then you know the cycle and everything after that is easy. would require you to store your results tho
but I doubt there is an easier way cause like I said earlier, you can probably calculate phi(m) using this which is famously hard
but maybe I'm wrong, who knows
thanks. I’m pretty sure it repeats after a very long time for a large phi(m) though, 2^x repeats after a divisor of phi(m), so 2^2^x should not repeat soon either for a large m, but I’m not sure how often it repeats
I don't think you can do much better than just square 2 in x steps
is this polynomial? @odd mural
Can I write sufficiently large primes p as (l + m)/2 = p, where l,m distinct from p are either primes or 1?
Yes, take l = m = p
just assume goldbach
thanks, and im not sure if its polynomial time, the way I understood time complexity was that if the time complexity increases polynomial when the amount of input bits increases linearly, the algorithm is of polynomial time complexity, but apparently my understanding of it is wrong
Can anyone give me a hint as to how to start this problem?
What is the smallest nonzero value of $|\frac{x}{36} - \frac{y}{31}|$, where x and y are integers?
Umiguess4000
Multiply by 36 x 31 to get a nice thing to minimise, and apply knowledge of common divisors.
oooh, ok. I'll try it out and see where i end up. Thank you!
you very well know what it is
do not troll.
unless you're asking about the additive group of order 2, and even then you should know.
It is still 2
Does anyone know how to do math for educators
Given a finite simple continued fraction, how do you compute its value?
I mean, suppose you are given [1;2,3,4,5,57,345,4]
you could "undo" the continued fraction step by step and eventually convert it into a fraction a/b with a,b integers
but I was wondering if there is a faster method
@sterile spoke idk if you were gonna answer
Do you find what the difference is
are you asking me?
I will restate the question, because maybe it was not clear
Let $A=[a_1; a_2,a_3,\dots,a_n]$ be a finite simple continued fraction. What's the most efficient way to calculate $A$? Would it be to "undo" the continued fraction and so express $A$ as a quotient of the form $a/b$, with $a,b$ integers, and then do regular division, or is there a more clever way?
Croqueta
I think there's a recurrence relation on the numerator and denominator you can use which might make it more convenient to write a program I suppose, idk
You usually use that to give the continued fraction expansion given a real number
but I want the opposite process. I guess you can do it like that too, but doesn't seem any better than just "undoing" the continued fraction
Look at Gaussian brackets on the wikipedia page
Thanks
I think I'm missing something on continued fractions anyway
I believe the main purpose is to give rational approximation to irrational numbers. But to produce a continued fraction you already need to know the irrational number you want to approximate to some degree of accuracy
well I guess the thing is giving rational approximations with denominator and numerator as small as possible
then continued fractions do make sense
I think the main reason people care about infinite continued fractions is they give you the solutions to Pell's equation, and one reason to care about those is that they are units of the real quadratic number rings
I mean continued fractions are useful for other reasons too :/
I think there's some algorithm which breaks RSA when the decryption key is relatively small which uses continued fractions as a key step
it is also of general use to be able to look at a real number approximation and be able to guess if it's a rational number
(I have used such an algorithm myself a few times on math contests which allow programming because one can often just approximate the answer and then figure out what the rational number was supposed to be)
So I have an issue, I been doing the HWs and going to lectures for my number theory class but we have an exam on thursday and looking at the previous years exams that just got pusblished, it looks stupidly hard. I find myself lost in trying to solve many of the problems and so I'm here looking for advise to study. What're some really good consice resources that you guys reccomend?
sounds to me like you are already doing everything correctly
going through homework and previous exams
alternate ressources will always differ and might not be too helpful
you can take your favorite book on the topic and do more exercises there 🤷
Result:
75
yep
3 is the identity
i did
I'm guessing for b) they want you to state that
5625 is a perfect square
because all the exponents are even
you forgot something basic
like that ain't it
get yourself some sleep
,ti sebbb
The current time for stμ₂dying is 10:00 PM (EST) on Wed, 08/02/2023.
look at my previous ,ti's
Eduardo291299
is p a prime number?
I suppose if not, without loss of generality you can make a>=b and then factor out 4^b
$4^b(4^{a-b}+1)=p(p+1)$ looks like we have solutions when $b=a-b$
Merosity
might be some more edge cases to think about, good luck, goodnight
Why is 3×4 = 6×2
I need to understand this part of the proof
@urban kiln 3x4=12 and 12=6x2. Or if a=b and b=c then a=c. So 3x4=6x2. 🙂
I was referring to how difference between 6-2 is more than 4-3
so graph of equal product isn't straight line and is a hyperbola
xy=c
Is it possible to make it straight line? By changing axis scale
to something similar to x^2
@sacred junco
stéphane
stéphane
it is the form in a basis with a=(1,1) as a vector of the basis
Ok
stéphane
I don't really understand what that is
Do you want me to explain to you what it is ? 🙂
Yes that would be nice
stéphane
R is real number?
stéphane
stéphane
3D graph?
stéphane
yeah you can change to X=log x and Y=log y and you get X+Y=log c which is a straight line of slope -1
am i allowed to say this?
and then by euler's theorem those reduce to just x=1 mod m and n. since this is satisfied for x=1, then x=1 mod mn is the unique solution mod mn?
not sure how to best articulate that reasoning
yup that works
it's the chinese remainder theorem
cool ty
if i have integers m,n and i want to show that their gcd = 1
and i know there are integers x,y such that mx+ny = 1
does this in any way imply that the gcd of m and n is 1?
ohh awesome thank you so much
and at the same time that implies that (x,y) = 1 right?
woah thats cool
I'm trying to prove the following:
If x satisfies $x^n + a_{n - 1}x^{n - 1} + \cdots + a0 = 0$ for some integers $a{n_1}, \ldots , a_0$, then x is irrational unless x is an integer.
However, if we consider $9x + 3 = 0$, then $x = -1/3$, which is neither an integer or irrational. Does anyone know what I am misunderstanding here about the theorem? Is it only valid for $n \geq 2$?
TopDreg
9x + 3 isn't of the form x^n + a_{n-1}x^{n-1} + ... + a_0
the leading coefficient isn't 1, and, even if you divide out by 9 to get a monic polynomial, you won't have integer coefficients
oh gotcha, thank you!
tricky rational root theorem

so this is where mero hangs out...
shi... 👀
I keep all but 9 channels muted to prevent myself from procrastinating too much
this is a relatively dead channel so I hide out here
does 9604=4(7^4) not have a preimage under the totient function?
since 9605 is not prime, that won't work, and 7 can't be a prime divisor of the preimage n because 7-1 does not divide 9604. i checked the other primes of the form 2^k1*7^k2+1 and none of them worked either, since you're always still left with a 7. it seems impossible, but I'm not 100% sure on my reasoning.
If the goal is simply to determine whether 9604 has a preimage or not, then one could use the fact that ϕ(n)≥2×(n/6)^(2/3)
To obtain an upper bound on possible preimages. And then run a program to find if n exists such that phi(n)=9604
And we also have n-√n ≥ phi(n), giving us a lower bound on n
Although I don't know of any 'good' method that is neither computationally intensive nor program-assisted
If I have a number N and I need to see if I can find K distinct odd numbers that can sum to up N. Is there a property I can use to see if that's possible?
If N is odd, but K is even I know that won't be possible. If N is even and K is odd I know that won't be possible as well
Hint: there is a lower bound for the sum of k distinct odd numbers, if you mean for them to be non-negative.
i'm working on these programming problems that require mathematical observation and i'm so lost 😦
yes non-negative
oh
i was thinking of an upper bound (? idk if this is correct term). like if K is too big then it won't work
I think you should look at the hint's suggestion first
the lower bound would be the sum of the first K distinct odd numbers?
so 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + ...
okay i got it. the lower bound is K^2
which is what the summation of the first K odd numbers is
OMG. it worked!
how.....
how can you prove that if you have a number where N and K are the same parity. and N > K^2, you can always form N with K distinct odd positive integers
what in the world
Well, you've just seen how to make K² -- then you can make any larger number simply by increasing the last term appropriately.
OHHHH. I see it
16 -> 1, 3, 5, 7
18 -> 1, 3, 5, 9
man i need a mastery of numbers
this is pretty cool stuff
Design a function f(x,y) that takes in two numbers x and y and calculates the number of odd numbers between them whose last digit is not 5. Given that x<y & x and y are both natural numbers.
Make a function g(x) that counts the numbers less than x, and use inclusion-exclusion with multiples of 2 and 5, then make f from this
If m is odd then m is 1 mod 2, and if m's last digit is not 5 then m is not 5 mod 10. In other words, m mod 10 is either 1, 3, 7, or 9. So to compute f(x,y), find which remainder x and y fall on mod 10 and count how many appearances of 1, 3, 7, or 9 appear between them
Something like 4 * (floor(y/10) - ceil(x/10)) + (error term), where the error term is contrained to [0,8] depending on x mod 10 and y mod 10
Are there any recommended texts for elementary number theory? I’m taking a course but my professor is not a very good lecturer, and the recommended textbook does not seem very good
what book are they recommending
Let me find it, one sec
Number Theory by George Andrews
It’s not bad but I’m wondering if there are better books
Honestly I’m not so sure the book is bad, I think my professor just sucks at creating a course around it lol
I'm unfamiliar with the book, so idk
Unfortunate
thank you! I'll let the rest of the class know lmao
are there any websites that can generate random question on rational numbers?
wolframalpha problem generator maybe?
Is there a smallest rational number x with the property that x^m >= (n/m)^n whenever n/m (with n,m > 0) is the area of a polygon with rational corner coordinates that fits within the unit circle?
That looks pretty random, doesn't it?
I was told that its the number of integers between 1 and n inclusive not 1 and n-1
The two definitions make phi(1) be either 0 or 1.
And phi(1) needs to be 1; otherwise phi(n)·phi(m) would not equal phi(nm) whenever n and m are coprime.
that is true
phi(1)=1 is also what we get from "number of units in the ring Z/nZ", since 0=1 is a unit in the zero ring.
Z/Z is the zero ring ?
I guess it makes sense since Z/2Z is just 0 and 1
but I thought a ring with unity cant have 0=1
a field can't have 0 = 1
a ring can
yeah
I see
We need to let the zero ring be a ring, because otherwise quotients by arbitrary ideals wouldn't exist. There's no useful concept of quotients of fields, though, so in that case other reasons not to want 0=1 weigh heavier.
(And we need to let the whole ring be an ideal, because otherwise sums of arbitrary ideals wouldn't exist).
what am i doing wrong here
maybe break it down mod 2 and mod 5 instead, work them out separately, then combine with the CRT
you're skipping one special case
i guess a better question is why mod 10 isn't enough
what can n mod 5 be
it is enough, you're just wrong by overlooking one of them
7 mod 5 = 2
one of them is not like the others
mod 5 might be more clear to see
once you see it there, you'll be able to easily go back to mod 10 and see your mistake
so list out, what are the possibilities for n mod 5
ok cool and what's fermat's little theorem say? (not that we really need to use this, just convenience at this step)
what are those raised to the 4th power
i know FLT but i wanna do it without it
the question appears in my book before it's introduced
sure, do however you like, it's not too seriouss
im not sure what im missing tho

square everything in the list
then square them again
just a fast way of getting the 4th power, that's nothing special
just do it already
show me what you get
yeah you get the actual answer which is 0,1,5,6
but why is that right but mod 10 isn't
this is wrong idk what this is
just write out what all these are mod 5
just do that
we can think later, it'll be obvious later
0, 1, 1, 1, 1

if you forget that one exception, you'd think they were all 1 mod 5
so 1 mod 2 and 1 mod 5 makes 1 mod 10
that was what you said
but you forgot when it's divisible by 5
1 mod 2 and 0 mod 5 is 5 mod 10
example: 5*5 = 25
5^4 = 5 mod 10
ah so this is why it's incomplete
yeah, you were skipping over 5^4 thinking it was 1 mod 10
so in other words mod 10 isn't enough because there are two cases where n is equiv 5 mod 10
also - should it have occurred to me to take mod 5?
like i saw last digit and i thought mod 10
it is enough
you just skipped 5 or computed it wrong
i mean 5^4 mod 10 is 5
yeah
do you still feel like it's not enough for some reason or you see now
if it helps, in general if gcd(a,b)=1 then stuff you reason out mod ab is exactly the same information as the stuff you reason out mod a and mod b separately, but considered together
somewhat feels like it's not enough
but im still probably thinking too hard
maybe going from proving the ham sandwich thm this morning for hw to this is giving me whiplash
i guess on a dif note
any hints for a
Drake
ohhhh because z! must have y in it
Yea
i saw the hint obv but hadnt connected those dots
well you could look at 1^4, 3^4, 5^4, 7^4, 9^4 as:
mod 10 they are 1, 1, 5, 1, 1
or
mod 2 they're all 1 and mod 5 they're 1, 1, 0, 1, 1
There's only one number from {0,1,2...,9} mod 10 that's 1 mod 2 and 1 mod 5, that's 1. There's also only one number that's 1 mod 2 and 0 mod 5, that's 5.
hopefully that demonstrates the difference - although maybe you have to believe me that this number is actually unique.
in general if you have gcd(a,b)=1 with x mod a and y mod b, then there is a unique number z mod ab such that z=x mod a and z=y mod b.
I have a question: Solve in Z the equation: x1^6 +...+x6^6 = 6x1...x6+1.
Z = the set of whole numbers
consider mod 7
Hmm, all that seems to give us is that exactly one of the unknowns is coprime to 7.
No, not even that, since (1,1,1,1,1,2) is also a solution mod 7.
that's the first thing I did (motivated by Fermat's little theorem) but I don't think it's very useful
The LHS can be whatever mod 7
And the RHS is tricky to control mod 7 (maybe only if one of the numbers is divisible by 7)
oh yeah I made a mistake in my head
yeah all good
I tried also mod 5 but doesnt seem to do anything either
Mod 6 seemed okay aswell, but n^6 gives 0, 1, 3, 4 (mod 6) and again not that useful
but well about that, I think it can only be 1 or 6. if it is not 6, then at least one of the numbers is divisible by 7 and therefore RHS is 1, so LHS is also 1
or am I making a mistake again?
so either one of them is coprime to 7 or all of them are
that second case is annoying but the first one might at least be doable
yeah i'll try that
btw what I also found interesting
is that the A-G inequality i "almost" what the problem is
so going by that intuition all of the number must be "somewhat close" to one another
since the equality is only true when they are all equal
but again I dont think that does anything
honestly I couldn't figure out either case, I don't think this finishes the problem
yeah I don't see anything currently either. interesting problem
maybe some application of symmetric polynomials? but I don't really know anything about using them
my teacher gave us this problem in the category of number theory so i believe it's something with modulos or something like that
I doubt it's sth else but could be
tell me if you find something interesting 😄
Mod 2 and mod 3 give us some information: An odd number of the unknowns are even. Either 2 or 5 of the unknowns are divisible by 3.
We cannot hope for a "there are no solutions" resolution, because at least (±1,0,0,0,0,0) and its permutations works in Z.
how might i approach 24
for starters im not even sure which part it’s asking to solve - im assuming x right?
Yes
Not sure if that helps a whole bunch
so do we use that x^2 \cong 1 mod p?
1? How?
factorise the expression, and use the fact that p is prime to come to a conclusion
(b) follows easily from (a)
Agreed. It would feel more promising to attempt adapt the proof of the AM-GM inequality to show a lower bound for the difference, but I keep getting lost in the calculations.
is this like... a joke? i don't see how calculating 1001! would be any less computationally intensive than just checking divisors
It's weird, really. Tell me if you get anywhere with the AM-GM, but I tried and couldn't.
It's more of a conceptual argument that it is possible to know for sure that such-and-such number is composite, without knowing any factor of it.
I would expect what you quoted is part of a lead-up to something like the Miller-Rabin primality test, which can get concrete proof that such-and-such is not prime faster than trial division in practice.
i suppose so. are there some clever techniques that make factorial computing... efficient i guess? such that this would be useful. maybe taking the remainder mod p after each multiple might work, and stopping if you get 0
so it should just be plus or minus a
didnt mean to ping my b
Yes

Not to my knowledge. If I remember correctly, the fast primality tests tend to be based on Fermat's little threorem rather than Wilson's theorem, but the toy example here has the didactic benefit of being determinstic, so one can come to terms with "a proof of compositeness doesn't necessarily tell us what the factors are" before having to wrap one's head around techniques for finding such proofs of a more realistic length than the Wilson-based computation.
aha i see. that is quite interesting, thank you 🙂
for what it's worth, a sorta standard trick for checking divisibilty by 11 is to do an alternating sum of the digits and see if it's divisible by 11, 1-0+0-1=0

can someone double check the second part pls
mero 
how do you know if a and b are between 1 and (p-1)/2 (inclusive) that their squares are distinct?
also I think your first line should be p distinct equivalence classes or somethin 😛
I don't know if it does, the proofs I have in mind require more work
non zero
though you're right that i should specify that
I think the second sentence also caught me a bit off guard by how it's worded, I didn't understand why you were saying 0=p mod p and stopped a sec, but when I kept reading I sorta saw what you were getting at, but still a little vague
idk just trying to help a bit
yeah i was hesitant about saying that
but it also felt weird to just say -k equiv p-k
that feels more random to me at least
I think you can omit it entirely since you're saying this from the start now
to try to clarify what I mean, the first part tells you that the elements of {1,...,(p-1)/2} has the same squares as the elements of {(p+1)/2,...,p-1} but that doesn't necessarily mean the squares of {1,...,(p-1)/2} will be distinct, that requires more
i see
maybe it also helps to see an example where this happens too when the modulus isn't prime, mod 8 you still have k^2=(8-k)^2 but k=1 and k=3 both pair up with 7 and 5 respectively, with all 4 satisfying 1^2=3^2=5^2=7^2 mod 8
in some ways that's good and some ways that's bad yeah
the good news is they really haven't given you too many things to use, so that cuts down on the space of stuff to look at, what theorems have they taught you so far?
we're following a book by kraft and washington
never seen it before this class
ive been meaning to make a big list of theorems and tricks but ive yet to do so
we just covered CRT and then FLT, but this was after the scope of this hw
FLT, not CRT
yeah, I'm trying to remember the trick for this myself, since I don't think it's obvious
you do a lot of NT?
if you pick a,b from the set {0,...,(p-1)/2} then a^2-b^2=0 mod p factors as (a+b)(a-b)=0 but since a and b are smaller than or equal to (p-1)/2 each then a+b <= p-1
so a+b can't be divisible by p
but obviously a-b isn't divisible by p either if they're distinct from that set too
I just was thinking there's an easier way but maybe I'm misremembering cause I was thinking of appealing to something like fermat's little theorem or polynomials having unique factorization mod p, but that requires more proving too lol
yeah, I guess so
tangential but do you buy any chance have a list of lil tricks and thms? or is it all mental
I don't have a physical list or something typed up, I don't know if I could really write anything much out either tbh
all good yeah i figured, im just making one to help study for the inevitable midtemrm
the main book I suggest for this sorta stuff is Silverman's Friendly Introduction to Number Theory
I think most NT is like, trivia and probably not really worth memorizing either haha
that's what it feels like
which is weird to be doing alongside my alg. topology class lol
yeah, I don't know much about algebraic topology, there are pretty pictures in hatchers book but I never really could get myself motivated to do it
what sorta stuff interests you in that class?
yeah i just mean it feels like very different flavors of math
im still just trying to expose myself to as much math as i can before applying for grad school
||coming at the cost of some grades but alas||
cool, good plan
last one mero, and ideas
trying to use hint obv
i accidentally showed that are 100 squarefree integers lol
How did you prove this?
The hint implicitly uses the CRT.
I feel like I'm reading the question wrong, did they mean show that every sequence of 100 consecutive integers can't all be square free?
every sequence of 4 integers has some non square free number in it, maybe it's past my bed time
I read it as wanting a proof that there is some n such that each of n, n+1, n+2, ..., n+99 is divisible by some nontrivial square.
oh, ok I can see that, I was thinking 1,2,3,...,100 was all you had to do since they're not all square free 🤪
Once the hint clicks, fairly obvious yes.
take all those n,n+1, ... mod some x^2, by CRT a solution exists?
Yeah, as long as you pick different (mutually coprime) x for each.
Yes.
and that x that solves the system, is the first of the 100 non square free integers right?
You mean the n that solves the system. But then yes, if you've set it up right.
what do yall do when a proof just sounds so obvious
I thank the author for giving me an easy statement to understand and continue with my day
but its on an assignment
like i have to write the proof
like the thing sounds trivial
Well then just write it down
If you cannot write a proof, then you can't say its obvious
post the question if you want help
could someone help get me started on these? i'm not sure how i could use the division alg for this.
i have other ideas for how to do them, but i'm not sure how the div alg factors into them.
a) if p+2 is prime and p>3, then p=5 mod 6 (bc p=6n+-1 for p>3), so 3 divides (p+1) so 9 divides (p+1)^2 so p^2+2p=-1 mod 9
b) we need to show that 2^n=-1 mod 7 does not have a solution for n. the order of 2 is 3 in mod 7, so we could just brute force show that n=0,1,2 mod 3 are not solutions, but that's not very satisfying imo.
anyone?
idk, seems like what you did was good, i don't know what they're looking for
Hi, I want to try out number theory during my break between semesters (between first and second semester).
I got recommended some german book (Alexander Schmidt Einführung in die algebraische Zahlentheorie), the first chapter is about divisibility and the first exercise of the sub-chapter is:
"show that (2,3,7) is the only triple of natural numbers >=2 such that the product of two + 1 is divisible by the third"
2x3+1=7 and 7 divides 7 and so on.
So I have 2<=a,b,c , also I think the numbers have to be coprime and I know that e.g. c divides ab+1
I tried writing down the definitions, but Im missing a key idea to rule be able to rule out every other triple.
This leads me to a few questions:
Does anyone have a slight hint for the exercise?
Im very much not familiar with number theory. Are there like general tips on how to approach these elementary number theory problems?
Would you consider this exercise as easy? Im asking this because if its a somewhat tricky exercise maybe I should find some easier ones first. If its as easy as it gets, I will just continue with these then and try to get used to it.
Are the triples all supposed to be prime
This holds for all triplets of the form (p,q,2) where p and q are odd primes if that's supposed to be your constraint
@dense stag
Any natural number bigger or equal to 2
c divides ab+1
b divides ac+1
a divides bc+1
These are the contraints.
Maybe it wasnt clear the way I translated it.
This is definitely not easy
not sure if this is the correct channel, forgive me if it isn't but can someone explain why these are equal
just picked ln arbitrarily
a^b = exp(bln(a))
These are like more standard intro nt questions
how do you do 25 without algebra
Just like p * q^-1?
wdym?
I guess reduce to lowest common form and deduce an representation
Well also show that it didn't really matter that we reduced it to lowest common form, because the factors cancel anyway
I have no idea what you're talking about
What book is this from?
suppose x>0 x=p/q for gcd(p,q)=1 for p,q>0. Write down the prime factorization of p and q. Now p and q^-1 will have no common prime factors since gcd(p,q)=1
what does this have to do with 25
A Computational Introduction to Number Theory
and Algebra - Victor Shroup
How does that not give you a factorization for x
I don't think it's that much more effort to show said factorization is unique
ah I see
ngl this feels like an Olympiad problem
As per his wikipedia he went to IMO in his youth, so maybe they are.
Either way as of yet theyre too hard for me.
I think you need some kind of weird trick to solve this
Can you recommend the book you posted the exercises from? I would use that then to do some exercises
Well I started using it today
Can't say anything. So far looks good
Although it's targetted at people who want to get into cryptography
This might be helpful for general NT
#book-recommendations message
Thanks
How to express 11 as the sum of distinct odd primes?
does the sum need more than one number in it
since odd+odd=even you know you'll need at least three numbers
what's the smallest sum of 3 distinct primes?
so it's not possible unless you consider a single number as a sum of 1 number like I said here
But in the text it says it was proven that any integer n>9 can be written as a sum of distinct primes
Maybe it's a single number sum
yeah, in that case every prime is just a sum of itself haha, kind of silly but
Fits the theorem
distinct odd primes?
Yes, that's what it's written
ok cool
yup you're welcome 👍
Now prove that every integer > 9 can be written as the sum of two primes
check out chen's theorem if you've never heard of it before
pathagoraean theorym is the best theory
?
So true
hey, can anyone help me see where i went wrong in my solution (trying to lift, using hensel's lemma) https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/1077102592770973777/1077104802766532618/image.png
everything looks good up til the line where you write a_2, I don't know what you're doing to get that
are you using $a_{n+1}=a_n-\frac{f(a_n)}{f'(a_n)}$?
Merosity
isn't it $a_2 = a_1 - f(a_1)*f'(a_1)$?
nomnom
nope
it's the exact same formula as newton's method
a good thing is you've already checked f'(2) != 0 mod 7 so you know it's invertible which in some sense is where it comes from
i see, 1 sec lemme check my prof's notes real quick
maybe he made a mistake
is what he is doing wrong here? (removed image cuz idk if prof allows to post his notes)
bar must mean inverse to him
ohh
no idea what that notation means, never seen that before
hey can anyone point me to a resource where I can find a more clearer proof of this therorem
I don't get it from if 1=<m<=n then... m=qp^k onwards
firstly, if m is less than or equal to n then how does that assumption bring about m=qp^k
because qp^k is just the largest multiple of p^k not exceeding n
and m is just a generic number that's less than n, it could be 2p^k,3p^k,4p^k for all we know.
for reference || denotes exactly divides and [a] would be the greatest integer not exceeding a (The Greatest Integer Function)
weird, idk where a clearer proof is, but I agree this seems pretty bad
Ok phew I’m not the only one😅😅
any proof other than this will work tbh
well to me it seems almost self evident, so tell me if this is enough of a proof for you:
n! is the product of all numbers from 1 to n, and multiples of p come every [n/p], similarly for p^2 coming every [n/p^2], etc
idk what else they're saying there that isn't just a more verbose way of saying this
but maybe what I've said is too terse lol
does 2x + 7y = 70 have any solution where x is not 0?
x=35 
Thanks
you're welcome
You’re active on this channel you specialize in number theory? @torn escarp
seriously though, this is covered by Bezout's lemma, you can find all solutions to 2x+7y=gcd(2,7) and then multiply through by 70
I don't know if I'd describe it as specializing, I enjoy thinking about nt and end up here more often than I probably should... lol
oh ok lol
what are your thoughts on probabilistic nt it seems interesting too me any recommendations?
not something I know much about, any result in particular you saw that makes you ask?
Nothing special, just already proven theorems proved using tools from probability
like the probability two numbers are relatively prime is 1/zeta(2) = 6/pi^2 (as long as we think of probability as being the one from thinking of the natural density)
I imagine analytic number theory is probably useful
maybe ask in one of the probability theory channels
Will do thanks
Thanks 🙏
hint: what is x divisible by?
...can i just say that a^6=1 mod 7 by Fermat, so (3^n)^6-(2^n)^6=1-1=0 mod 7 so it's divisible by 7 and therefore not prime?
it also looks like 5 divides it but i can't see a proof for why. i can reduce it down to 3^2n-2^2n by fermat again but idk what i can do afterwards
if n is even then a^(2n)-b^(2n)=0 mod 5 by fermat
if n is odd then i think we can also do something with fermat
your argument also works
you can see divisibility by 5 also by reducing to 9^n - 4^n = 0 mod 5
(you have to ensure that the number is never 5 or 7 with those arguments though)
i thought about that first but assumed "there's no way we can just do that right? otherwise this is just trivial" lol. but we can just do that and it works?
i see. 9=4=-1 mod 5 so it zeros out pretty clearly
could you explain what you mean by this? which number do you mean 
ahah i see that makes sense. being divisible by a prime doesn't mean it isn't prime (if it is the prime itself). thank you for your help 🙂
how does this problem work
that's scratch work from prof there but i dont see how to approach this
(also dont get what the work is, not very clear)
CRT?
I guess your prof is just writing down some examples for which at least one of the properties holds. Maybe they want you to spot a pattern
Think about the prime factorization of perfect powers
And yes I think CRT at some point
Let $m=4^n-1$ be a positive integer. If $4^n\equiv 2 \mod{2n}$ then show that $2^{m-1}\equiv 1\mod{m}$.
Goosebumps
anyone knows how to start the proof? i don't think the prof allows proof by induction in this context
maybe it's clearer to see if you substitute n $n=2^a3^b5^c$ and then plug it into each and solve the congruences on the exponents, for instance $a+1=0 \mod 2$, $a=0 \mod 3$, $a=0 \mod 5$. So here you can use the CRT (or sorta just guess) to get $a=15$. Then repeat for $b$ and $c$.
Merosity
Substitute m=4^n -1 in the last expression, the answer follows almost immediately
i got $m\equiv 1 \mod{2n}$ how do i continue from this?
Goosebumps
i was wondering if i should use fermat's little theorem to prove the last expression or is it unnecessary?
any chance you can rephrase this
why's that work
n will have a prime factorization. n=2^a 3^b 5^c * (maybe other primes) where a,b,c are integers (might be 0)
if k is a square, then all the exponents in the prime factorization need to be even
if k is a cube they all need to be multiples of 3
with this you can work out what a,b,c need to be mod 2,3,5
how do we know that those other primes need to be there from the start?
or do we just start with a factorization into 2x3x5 hoping for the best
cause the exponents themselves are 1 and need to be fixed up to be a multiple of 2,3, and 5
other primes are excluded cause p^0 already has 0 divisible by 30
can we walk thru it super quick
we start by letting n = product of powers of 2,3,5 right
yup
we aren't saying that 2,3,5 have to be included (yet). for all we know yet, a,b,c could be 0
if you want you can also write the other primes down
you will just see that they dont end up mattering
so how do we get the "2n is a square" into it
this should have been b = 0 mod 3 right
noooo
we have the same 3 congruences for a,b, and c separately
9 congruences in all
oh 
maybe an important thing to clarify is, N is a perfect k-power iff the exponent on each prime p is a multiple of k
so I'm considering each prime power individually
hrm
for instance, p^3 * q^6 is a perfect cube because it's (pq^2)^3 we just needed to look at p^3 and q^6 individually to see that
no integer power of 5 is going to change the power of 2 for instance
in n = 2^a 3^b 5^c
show me where you get stuck when you substitute in, what do you get after you plug it in?
maybe it helps to write it this way and plug that choice of n in to these: 2n=x^2, 3n=y^3 and 5n=z^5
does anyone need help
I always do, but wtv
I’m struggling to understand why we need to find the inverse of 8 mod 3^2
When we are working in mod 3^4
What I wrote was misleading, I think I am supposed to find it mod 3^4 but in this case it’s enough to find the inverse mod 3^2
Not really. The inverse mod 3^4 is different
Or well I suppose you can lift it or something but that seems overcomplicated
Well, inverting 8 modulo 9 is particularly easy.
And since we're going to multiply the result by 9 anyway, the upper two base-3 digits of 8^-1 mod 81 are going to disappear anyway.
So we get 72 for 9·8^-1 mod 81 immediately.
Inverting 8 modulo 81 is not that bad either, though -- we immediately notice that 10·8 == -1 (mod 81), so 8^-1 modulo 81 must be -10.
Multiplying that by 9 gives -90 == -9 == 72 again.
another trick that can work mod $p^n$ for arbitrarily large n is to use a geometric series, $$\frac{-1}{8} = \frac{1}{1-9} = 1+9+9^2+\cdots \mod 3^n$$
Merosity
i mean if it was 2 or 0 mod 4 then it would be even
and the only even prime is 2?
so it has to be 1 or 3 mod 4 no?
idk then
I found it pretty cool that when u halve numbers 0 or 2 mod 4, u get even or odd numbers respectively
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prefix: View bot prefixes and set a personal prefix.
support: Sends the link to the bot guild
feedback: Send feedback to my creators

