#help-4
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no, no, i explained myself badly
what i mean is that given the multiplicative unit 1+I
if by adding multiple copies of 1+I i can only get the elements 0+I, 1+I and 2+I
then we have an extension (though it could fail to be a field) of Z_3
if its in Z_3 thats garenteed right
uh, yeah, because that's basically equivalent to asking the projection morphism is injective
Anyway, going back to taking the quotientby <p(x)>
given what we've said so far
ok
What might
$$
\mathbb{R}[x]/\langle x^2 + 1\rangle ;
$$
be isomorphic to?
wait
one sec
im still trying to understand why there is a solution
actually ill solve this
ok so we have (x^2+i)
and all the remainders are
Nanigov
les then deg 2
ok i got scared
coooooolll
ok so
uhhh
yeah
les then deg 2
so all the remainders are coificents right
no
its x+r or r
indeed
not hte last part
but r is basically 0*x + r
so we have
$\mathbb{R}/ \langle a^2 + 1 \rangle = {0, x+r, r}$
and there are infinately many r
BOSS
because it just cant be a multiple of 1 right
so there are like infinate cosets?
0.1 + I and 0.2 + I would both be seperate cosets
There are infinitely many cosets but consider the polynomial
ax + b
it's class isn't x+r
im tempted to just use the first iso therem and evaluation homomorpism to show its iso to R
oh nvm
so you're missing a couple remainder classes
ok
oh
you are right all remainders have to be lineal or constant
but in general lineal polynomials don't have to be monic
$\mathbb{R} [x]/ \langle x^2 + 1 \rangle = {0, ax+b \mid a,b \in \mathbb{R}}$
odd notation but yes
ah
for the brackets to show up write a \ before them
wahts the proper way
i forgor one sec
just ax+b with a, b in R
since you can just take a = 0 for the constant polynomials
oh ur right
c is just a=0
ok cool
interesting
wait do u have another example
ill solve it correctly
this is helpful loll
wait wait, you've not gotten to the punchline here
so all your elements look like ax+b
or well their equivalence classes
yes
now i ask you
what is special about x (or its class rather) in this quotient
what must x + I satisfy?
nope
BOSS
remember, each ax+b is a different coset
the coset of x+1 is different from the coset of 2x + 3
oh there has to be a way to get to 0
you know that [x^2+ 1] = [0] since by definition x^2 + 1 is in <x^2 + 1>
actually idk that was just a guess
hmm
o
oh yes
yeah
but what does taht say about ax+b
uh huh
idk
ok
fair fair

let's retrace your steps, because you did have the right idea at the start
ok
So we know the quotient R[x]/<x^2+1> is going to consist of (the classes of) all remainders of polynomial division by x^2 + 1
yes
and all remainders will look like
ax+b
through the division algo as R[x] is a field so its just all elements less then deg 2
indeed

wait also
these are all possible remainders right
doesnt mean it is a remainder
oh
nvm
yeah, but it's not too hard to come up with a polynomial that gives it as a remainder
but good catch
so does every ax+b exist?
as a remainder
the division algo garentees that there is a r(x)
yeah, through the polynomial x^2 + ax + (b+1)
so if we mod it out would every possible r(x) be an equivilance class
since it's equal to 1*(x^2 + 1) + (ax+b)
ok sure
so in genral every possivble r(x) would be its own equivilance class
making up the quotent ring
ok continue
yes
Okay now just because of how the operations on the equivalence classes are defined
[ax+b] = [a][x] + [b]
So we know the quotient R[x]/<x^2+1> is going to consist of (the classes of) all remainders of polynomial division by x^2 + 1
with remainders ax+b which make up the equivilance classes
ok slow down so
ax+b means a is its own coset
same with x
same with b
cool
(ax+b)+ I = (a+I)(x+I)+(b+I)
yup
Now to make things a bit nicer, consider the fact that [a] = [b] if and only if a = b (assuming a and b are real numbers), because
[a]-[b] = [0] if and only if a-b is a multiple of x^2+1
but the only constant multiple of x^2 + 1 is 0
but yeah, it is all multiples of x^2 + 1
ok so
[a] = [b] if and only if a = b (mod x^2+1)
sure
so
oh
in ur example they have to be the same mod the ideal generator
u asked me a while ago
but sorry continue
ye
yes
which is equivalent to saying a-b is a multiple of x^2 + 1
yes
but the only constant multiple of x^2 + 1 is the constant polynomial 0
so a-b = 0 so a = b (in R)
wait
x^2 + 1 is the constant polynomial 0
yeah
a-b = 0 so a = b (in R)
oh
woah
yup
ok what does that mean for us
this is just a small sidenote to say that the only constant representative of the class [a] is a itself
ok
so if i were to write (and this would just be notation)
[a][x]+[b] = a[x] + b
there wouldn't be any ambiguity
BOSS
and the only constant representation of a+I is a, or a is the only constant in a+I
so we might as well write (b + I) as simply "b" since that's the only constant that would represent it
cool
this is just so the notation looks better
okay now all our elements look like
[ax+b] = [a][x] + [b] = a[x] + b
so we are legit jsut working with constants of r
basically yeah
so this is an extention field of R
as it contains all r+I = r, and then more
subring or base field
well both mean the same thing
oh?
since a field is a ring where everything just so happens to be invertible
fair fair
okay now here's the coup de grace or however you spell it
we know that, by definition
bet
[x^2 + 1] = [0]
ok
so [x]^2 = -1
ok
hm?
so what is our ring?
yes
$$
\mathbb{R}[x]/\langle x^2+1\rangle \cong \mathbb{C}
$$
Nanigov
wait
so
for any
F[x] / \langle x^2 + n \rangle
its isomorphic to F[\sqrt{-n}]
Indeed
:D
ok wait wait wait
i got a
good application for this
warm up problems i didnt get before
but now
look at A3 lmao
i was lost but now i understand
mhm
ok so really quickly
the explanation goes something like
lets say we have $\mathbb{Q}[x]/<x^2-2>$
BOSS
then we know that every remainder is under deg 2, so again ax+b where a,b \in Q
then we know that if
a -b = 0
then a = b as the only constant in [0] is 0
so we know a = b or thats the only reepresenation of the coset
so then with that
we jnow
[x]^2 - 2 = 0
x^2 = 2
x = sqrt2
which means this is iomorphic to Q[sqrt2]
@slim summit
correct
and the isomorphism is given by [a][x]+[b] -> a*sqrt(2) + b
the whole business with the only constant representative of [b] being b itself guarantees that mapping is injective
and it's obviously surjective
oh this works because thats the only way x^2 = 2 as 2 is the only element in the equivilance class
oh
so all they proved here
is that there is an extention field
where we have a zero \alpha?
yes
humf
Basic, but it does allow you to like, all of modern Galois theory
idk how it works in thsi example ngl
but
could just be me
ill work it out again
o7
using the example we just solved
notice that the important part of [a] = [b] iff a = b depended on the fact that you can't multiply (x^2 + 1) by anything other than 0 to get its degree down
ok
wait does this work only in fields
^^
like F[x]/<p(x)>
yeah
Z[x]/<x^2+1> is also Z[i]
cancelation law
and no other things can be 0
ok wait
let look at this spesific example
also important to note F[x]/<p(x)> won't always be a field since p might not be irreducible
yeah
but you'd still get an isomorphism to F[\alpha] with \alpha some root of the polynomial, it just won't be a field
its a PID and integral domain
but not a field
wait no
thats F[x]
my bad
ok wait so
for
$\mathbb{Z}_2 [x] / \langle x^2 + x + 1 \rangle$
BOSS
We basicly know this element is irreduceable
so
this is a field
which is why this applies
because no zero devisors
so for any prime and maximal ideals this would work?
because then its at least an integral domain
ok so let me just speedrun this example really quickly
i still dont completelly get what this means
but
oh
we are getting an extention of Z_2 tho not Z_2 x right
yes
ok so
$\mathbb{Z}_2 [x] / \langle x^2 + x + 1 \rangle$ has all elements r(x)+I such that r(x) has deg less then 2
BOSS
Yes, though remember stricktly speaking you have to prove the other inclusion
$\mathbb{Z}_2 [x] / \langle x^2 + x + 1 \rangle = {0, 1,x+1,x}$
BOSS
but that's easy just make up a polynomial that obviously has that remainder
doesnt the division algo garentee existance?
we can just add 0,1,x+1,and x to x^2+x+1 to show it tho lmao
yeah basically
yes but it would be better to phrase it as the projection morphism is injective
since the only element of Z_2 that maps to 0 + I is well, 0
ok the goal here is to construct a field extension of Z_2 containing an element α such that p(α) = 0.
so
we are solving for x^2+x+1 = 0
right
yeah
ok so
[x^2]+[x]+1 = 0
[x^2]+[x] = 1
as 1 is the only constant in 1+I
uhh hmm
yes
should i lwkt just factor this out
you don't need to solve it tho actually
like just the fact
[x^2]+[x]+[1] = [0]
already tells you that this is a solution
by definition
now you might not be able to "solve for [x]" but you know it satisfies the equation [x]^2 + [x] + [1] = [0]
so it's already a solution automatically
i domnt notice that alpha ^2 + alpha +1 = 0
that's because p(alpha) = 0
so like by definition alpha^2 + alpha + 1 = p(alpha) = 0
are you familiar with presentations of groups by any chance?
uhhh
if not it doesn't matter i just thought tha tmight've helped a lil lol
probably but i forgot the topic name because its been a minute since group theory
so you know when you write the dihedrals as like
<r, s | r^3 = s2 = e, rs = sr^-1>
?
yes
the equations on the rhs are referred to as "relations" which is to say equations these elements satisfy by definition
here the element alpha by definition satisfies the relation p(alpha) = 0
rotations + idenitity and then that multiplied with the reflection up front
ok yeah i dont understand that
id have to review lmao
ok wait
yeah dw abt it
This is where my logic kinda gets lost
it was just in case
I understand what E is and what its an extention
i dont understand why E has a zero
or like has to have a zero
based on what we did we proved taht certain quotent rings have zeros
but here let me set
x^2+x+1 =0
and we have elements {0, 1,x+1,x}
uh
hmm
so you know {0, 1, x+1, x} is a field (because the polynomial you took the quotient by was irreducible), and you'd like to know what the operations on that set actually look like
yes
yes
ok so
we know that 1 is the only constant in 1+I because lets say if a-b=0, then as the only constant in I is 0 we have it so a = b
with the equivilance classes
so we have it so
[x]^2 + [x] = -1
yes
well now it would be nice as i said before to know what the operations of the field look like
like yes
x*(1+x) = x + x^2
ok
but that's not an element of {0, 1, x+1, x}
so we need to find out which of those three it's actually equal to
wait what is this
oh
nvm u just factored out an x
ok continue
x*(1+x) = x + x^2 = -1
ah
so we've found that
x(x+1) = 1
so that's one product, ideally we'd like to complete the whole multiplication table like this
same for addition
my book did it
but wait
why does
there have to be a root
like how do we know for sure it contians a root
OHH
ok
yeah we did that
ok cool
ok then
h
thats the addition tables
lmfao
mhm
yeah
$\mathbb{Z}_2 [x] / \langle x^2 + x + 1 \rangle \cong \mathbb{Z}_2(\alpha)$
based on the logic we used before
BOSS
ok
and [1] to 1
yeah
and extending that linearly
just to go over why this holds
its what we did before
with R[x]\x^2+1
yes
np
this was incredibally helpful lmao
ill read over that again but yeah explanations make sense
it feels nice to actually show some understanding after i've spent the whole day banging my head against (funnily enough) Galois theory lol
well Kummer (lmfao) theory in particular
lmfaoooo
i think we do like
a smige of galious
to link everything together
my book as an interesting order of things
Galois is really cool tbh, it's just working out particular examples that can get a bit annoying, since it can involve knowing alot of trivia about finite groups basically
hmm
luckly we just had like 10 mins on it but i do wanna take a class on it later
that Artin?
ANTONIO BEHN
10 mb lmao
THAT'S A PROFESSOR OF MINE WHAT
Chile
YEAH???
lmfaoo
i mean i knew he was really well connected because i've seen his CV but DAMN
anyway he was my Linear Algebra I professor some years ago
this was published in 2022
soooooo
you may have had him the same time lmao
ok im gonna go back to learning this to prepare
tysm

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✅
LMAO
are you still here
yeah?
LSGJNA
we arnt doing ideal opperations anymore?
fuck my cafe is closing
one sec
ill brb
wahts o7
a salute
yeah we are (ill write x for alpha)
(1+x)(1+x) = 1^2 + 2x + x^2
we know 2x = 0 since we are in characteristic 2 so
(1+x)(1+x) = 1 + x^2
but since x^2 + x + 1 = 0 (because it is a root of that polynomial) we know that 1+x^2 = -x
but again characteristic 2 means -x is just x
so (1+x)(1+x) = x
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for B I used IVT instead
and took the derivative of h
does this still work
someone help
pls
I have ap exam in like 10 hours
,rccw
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Is it correct?
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
Why me?
Because you are helpful thats what your role says
What’s the original question?
I need it to check if your calculation meets the requirement of the question
Like, need to do without expansion
It is determinant
@river shale
Anyone?
.close
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Let G, A, and I be events.
Let ¬A be A's complement.
Let P(A) be A's probability.
Premise 1: P(G | A) - P(G | ¬A) > P(I | A) - P(I | ¬A)
Premise 2: Something stating that G and I are highly symmetrical events.
Conclusion: ∀x(P(g_x | A) - P(g_x | ¬A) > P(i_x | A) - P(i_x | ¬A)), where g_x is an element of G and i_x an element of I such that g_x and i_x are symmetrical in the relevant sense.
Note that ∀x(P(g_x | A) - P(g_x | ¬A) > P(i_x | A) - P(i_x | ¬A)) doesn't need to be true for all ways of dividing G and I into subevents g_x and i_x. But, I just need one way of dividing G and I into subevents g_x and i_x such that ∀x(P(g_x | A) - P(g_x | ¬A) > P(i_x | A) - P(i_x | ¬A)).
Question: What should premise 2 be? In what sense should G and I be symmetrical for the conclusion to follow?
@boreal solstice Has your question been resolved?
@boreal solstice Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185> anyone whose good with probability theory around? Curious to hear your thoughts :) <3
Hi my name is Eshan and I am doing my bachelors in statistics
I can help you 🙂
Curious to hear your thoughts on this problem @midnight pier !!
It sounds like advance set theory problem
Also, I don't have enough knowledge on symmetrical events so I cant help much in this
Try using the properties of conditional probability
Use multiplication theorem and set theory @boreal solstice
@boreal solstice Has your question been resolved?
I don't think this is well formulated, because there's the trivial (and related subdivisions) where you just take the division to be the event itself
further, if you divide into events independent of A, such as C and C's complement, then you automatically get that the right side is zero.
You can take this even further by taking I = A^C, and then you have a negative number
what's the purpose of this?
I've also never heard about "symmetrical" events as a formal definition
@boreal solstice Has your question been resolved?
HOL UP WASSUP MAN
what do you mean symmetric in the relavant sense?
also P(G|A) - P(G| -A) looks pretty weird, what are you trying to do with this?
@boreal solstice Has your question been resolved?
can anyone confirm this is 16.71m?
yup got the same thing for the perimeter.
perfect thanks 🙂
@boreal solstice Has your question been resolved?
@turbid moon apologies for the unclarity. Here is a clearer version of at least the first part of my question. Would be curious to hear your thoughts!
Let s be an event. \
Let i be an event and $i_j \subset i$. \
Let x be a number. \
Let P(i) be i's probability. \
Premise 1: $P(i) = x P(i_j)$ \
Premise 2: ???? \
Conclusion: $P(i \mid s) = x P(i_j \mid s)$ \
What does premise 2 need to be to make this inference valid?
! If in Oxford, see my about me
Ye, the question was kind in what sense G and I have to be symmetric in order for the inference to be valid, but apologies for not making that clear. I hope this version of the first part of my question is clearer
the intersection between s and i has to be isomorphic to the intersection between s and i_j, but how does one put that formally and how does one prove the conclusion from that?
! If in Oxford, see my about me
Please ignore the below
! If in Oxford, see my about me
ignore the below
! If in Oxford, see my about me
So, I have events i and d, which are partitioned into jointly exhaustive mutually exclusive events i_j and d_j (we chose our event space such that i_j and d_j are also events for all j).
Now, I want to say that the relation between i and {i_1, i_2, ..., i_n} and between d and {d_1, d_2, ..., d_n} is isomorphic, i.e., i is related to {i_1, i_2, ..., i_n}, like d is related to {d_1, d_2, ..., d_n}. How does one say that formally?
Improved version:
So, how can we just that to infer \ $\forall j \exists w_j (P_e(i_j \mid s) = w_jP_e(i \mid s) \wedge P_e(i_j \mid \neg s) = w_jP_e(i \mid \neg s) \wedge P_e(d_j \mid s) = w_jP_e(d \mid s) \wedge P_e(d_j \mid \neg s) = w_jP_e(d \mid \neg s))$ from \
$\forall j \exists w_j (P_e(i_j ) = w_jP_e(i) \wedge P_e(i_j ) = w_jP_e(i ) \wedge P_e(d_j ) = w_jP_e(d ) \wedge P_e(d_j ) = w_jP_e(d ))$
(please ignore the subscript e)
! If in Oxford, see my about me
this has to be true for all events i_j which are a subset of i?
yes
this is I think the clearest formulation of my question
but, then I basically need to know that the intersection of i and s, d and s, i and ¬s, and d and ¬s is 'random.'
Like doesn't favour i_j's with high j over those with low j
how does one express that formally?
why cant i just take i_j = s intersect i and this is wrong, or s has 0 intersection with i, or s contains i?
What do we need to know s and ¬s such that one can validly infer
\ $\forall j \exists w_j (P_e(i_j \mid s) = w_jP_e(i \mid s) \wedge P_e(i_j \mid \neg s) = w_jP_e(i \mid \neg s) \wedge P_e(d_j \mid s) = w_jP_e(d \mid s) \wedge P_e(d_j \mid \neg s) = w_jP_e(d \mid \neg s))$ \ from \
$\forall j \exists w_j (P_e(i_j ) = w_jP_e(i) \wedge P_e(i_j ) = w_jP_e(i ) \wedge P_e(d_j ) = w_jP_e(d ) \wedge P_e(d_j ) = w_jP_e(d ))$
(please ignore the subscript e)
this doesn't work. s is unrelated to i_j and i.
so for what i_j do you need this to be true?
! If in Oxford, see my about me
we are given s is independent of i_j and s indepent of i?
no
so wdym s is unrelared to i_j and i
I am just saying that you cannot relate i_j and i, like this i_j = s intersect i
sry should have clarified
you need P(s|i) = P(s|i_j) and P(s|d) = P(s|d_j)
I cannot say that. i_j is a proper subset of i
What do we need to know s and ¬s such that one can validly infer
\ $\forall j \exists w_j (P_e(i_j \mid s) = w_jP_e(i \mid s) \wedge P_e(i_j \mid \neg s) = w_jP_e(i \mid \neg s) \wedge P_e(d_j \mid s) = w_jP_e(d \mid s) \wedge P_e(d_j \mid \neg s) = w_jP_e(d \mid \neg s))$ \ from \
$\forall j \exists w_j (P_e(i_j ) = w_jP_e(i) \wedge P_e(d_j ) = w_jP_e(d )$
(please ignore the subscript e)
! If in Oxford, see my about me
so? why does that mean you cant say that?
This is absolutely beyond me 😭
this is the necessary condition for what you're asking for; also I'm not sure how the second sentence relates to the first
can you prove that?
furthermore, "proper subset" when it comes to events isn't very different from "subset" in the sense that in many probability spaces, one can make a proper subset by simply taking out a few outcomes that have measure zero
That is, you claim that
To validly infer
\ $\forall j \exists w_j (P_e(i_j \mid s) = w_jP_e(i \mid s) \wedge P_e(i_j \mid \neg s) = w_jP_e(i \mid \neg s) \wedge P_e(d_j \mid s) = w_jP_e(d \mid s) \wedge P_e(d_j \mid \neg s) = w_jP_e(d \mid \neg s))$ \ from \
$\forall j \exists w_j (P_e(i_j ) = w_jP_e(i) \wedge P_e(d_j ) = w_jP_e(d )$
It's necessary that it's false that $i_j$ is a proper subset of i?
(please ignore the subscript e)
what does the wedge mean with respect to probability measures?
oh nevermind it's a parentheses thing; you're using it as logical and
! If in Oxford, see my about me
yes
can you simplify the notation and use some more english in it? It's really painful to read this sort of nested quantification, and it's unnecessary
no?
what does proper sbuset have to do with P(s|i) = P(s|i_j)
and P(s|d) = P(s|d_j)
P(i) = P(i | s)P(s) / P(s | i), so rewriting the conclusion that you want [P(i | s) = xP(i_j | s)]
P(i | s)P(s) / P(s | i) = x P(i_j | s)P(s) / P(s | i_j)
This gives that P(s) / P(s | i) = P(s) / P(s | i_j), which simplifies to:
P(s | i) = P(s | i_j)
I'm still completely lost on what you're trying to do
you have to worry about a few cases (because of division by 0), but yes
Let's start from a more basic point.
How does one prove
$P_e(i \mid h \cup w) = \frac{P_e(i \mid h)P_e(h) + P_e(i \mid \neg h \cap w)P_e(\neg h \cap w)}{P_e(h) + P_e(\neg h \cap w)}$?
(ignore the subscript e)
! If in Oxford, see my about me
Well, we know that $h \cup w = h \sqcup (\neg h \cap w)$
! If in Oxford, see my about me
$\frac{P_e(i \mid h)P_e(h) + P_e(i \mid \neg h \cap w)P_e(\neg h \cap w)}{P_e(h) + P_e(\neg h \cap w)} = \ \frac{P_e(i \cap h) + P_e(i \cap \neg h \cap w)}{P_e(h) + P_e(\neg h \cap w)}$
! If in Oxford, see my about me
Thus the real question is how does one prove
$P_e(i \mid h \cup w) = \frac{P_e(i \cap h) + P_e(i \cap \neg h \cap w)}{P_e(h) + P_e(\neg h \cap w)}$?
(ignore the subscript e)
! If in Oxford, see my about me
Let's rewrite:
$(P_e(h) + P_e(\neg h \cap w)) * P_e(i \mid h \cup w) = P_e(i \cap h) + P_e(i \cap \neg h \cap w)$
$(P_e(h) + P_e(\neg h \cap w)) * P_e(i \cap (h \cup w))/P(h \cup w) = P_e(i \cap h) + P_e(i \cap \neg h \cap w)$
<@&286206848099549185> does anyone know how to prove this, using $h \cup w = h \sqcup (\neg h \cap w)$?
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$(P_e(h) + P_e(\neg h \cap w)) * P_e(i \mid h \cup w) = P_e(i \cap h) + P_e(i \cap \neg h \cap w)$
$(P_e(h) + P_e(\neg h \cap w)) * P_e(i \cap (h \cup w))/P(h \cup w) = P_e(i \cap h) + P_e(i \cap \neg h \cap w)$
$(P_e(h) + P_e(\neg h \cap w) - P(h \cap (\neg h \cap w)) * P_e(i \cap (h \cup w))/P(h \cup w) = P_e(i \cap h) + P_e(i \cap \neg h \cap w)$
$P_e(h \cup (\neg h \cap w)) * P_e(i \cap (h \cup w))/P(h \cup w) = P_e(i \cap h) + P_e(i \cap \neg h \cap w)$
$P_e(h \cup w) * P_e(i \cap (h \cup w))/P(h \cup w) = P_e(i \cap h) + P_e(i \cap \neg h \cap w)$
$P_e(i \cap (h \cup w)) = P_e(i \cap h) + P_e(i \cap \neg h \cap w)$
$P_e(i \cap (h \cup w)) = P_e(i \cap h) + P_e(i \cap \neg h \cap w) - P(i \cap h \cap i \cap \neg h \cap w)$
$P_e(i \cap (h \cup w)) = P_e((i \cap h) \cup (i \cap \neg h \cap w))$
$P(i \cap (h \cup w)) = P_e( (i \cup (i \cap \neg h \cap w)) \cap (h \cup (i \cap \neg h \cap w)) )$
$P(i \cap (h \cup w)) = P_e(i \cap (h \cup w)) )$
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fixed
$P_e(i \mid h \cup w) = \
\frac{P_e(i \cap (h \cup w))}{P_e(h \cup w)} = \
\frac{P_e((i \cap h) \cup (i \cap \neg h \cap w))}{P_e(h \cup (\neg h \cap w))} = \
\frac{P_e(i \cap h) + P_e(i \cap \neg h \cap w) - P(i \cap h \cap i \cap \neg h \cap w)}{P_e(h) + P(\neg h \cap w) - P(h \cap (\neg h \cap w))} = \
\frac{P_e(i \mid h)P_e(h) + P_e(i \mid \neg h \cap w)P_e(\neg h \cap w)}{P_e(h) + P(\neg h \cap w)}$
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That's why I quit math, too much sweats
yeah bro this is crazy wth and this person has undergrad role too 
Premise 2 could be (Premise 1) => (Conclusion)
Logically that's the weakest possible statement under which the argument would be valid
It could also be 1=0, which is the strongest possible statement under which the argument would be valid
are either of those answers satisfactory?
the statement i gave was such that
Premise 1 => (Premise 2 <=> Conclusion)
so slightly stronger
premise 2 can't reference itself, otherwise it's not well defined
or ok you mean this is your premise 2?
yeah that's probably the best there is, though it's still really bizarre
that is not premise 2, premise 2 is a statement such that the statement i gave is true
hi guys i will create telegram group for calc2, 3, 4, 5,
is there anyone who wants to join that group
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Yes
Im not advertise that group for fun
@boreal solstice Has your question been resolved?
in all fairness, a lot of what's been written so far is imo overcomplicated and ill-defined
so don't get discouraged lol
for readability purposes, can you please stick to one notation (sets or logical operators) and not use * for multiplication in LaTeX? It makes what you're writing insanely hard to follow
also I have no idea what you're doing here; your equality comes almost immediately from the fact that probability is additive over disjoint sets
I'm not going to write with i, h, w because I honestly can't remember which is which, but you have:
$P(A | B \cup C) = \frac{P(A \cap (B \cup C)}{P(B \cup C)}$ by the definition of conditional probability, and then since
$A \cap (B \cup C) = (A \cap B) \uplus (A \cap B^C \cap C)$, you have by additivity your desired numerator and likewise for the denominator $B \cup C = B \uplus (B^C \cap C)$.
Saccharine
I still completely fail to see what you're trying to accomplish here, and it smells iffy
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apologies.
my question was confused
will make sure to do so next time
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Evaluate: $\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sin(x^n)}{(\sin x)^m}$, when $n < m$
i got the answer for this a while ago but now I'm getting something with factorials
never mind I'm just dumb
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im getting 72 and wanted to see if i was wrong
i made pairs of numbers which satisy the conditions that sum of first 2 = sum of last 2 while 7 being the greatest digit present so i got pairs like 74-65 74 being 1st 2 didgit 65 being last 2 you can arrange this is 8 ways and i found 9 such pairs
from there i got 72
What are the 9 such pairs you found
i dont think theres more
Looks good
Now how many ways are there to arrange 4 unique numbers
That’s not right
72 sounds right
i get what youre trying to say
its 8
2 ways to swap first 2 digits, same for last 2, and 2 ways to arrange the blocks of 2
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i want to confirm if my proof is correct as it seems a bit circular
prove that gcd(a,b) = gcd(a-kb, b)
let (a,b)=d and (a-kb,b)=e
d|a and d|b thus d|a-kb since (b,a-kb)=e d|e
e|a-kb e|b thus e|a and e|d
=> d=e
What is (a - kb'b)?
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idk every prop of gcd but could you send us the proof in a notebook or latex? @lost marlin
it was supposed to be a ,
How did you conclude this?
e|a-kb e|b thus e|a and e|d
Oh.
So e is a common factor of a and b.
And d = any common factor * k.
d = ek.
So e | d.
And d | e.
So e = d
yes
Yes, it is correct.
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why does it become 3(10.8t+3.6 on the bottom, i wouldve thought it wouldve just been 3?
it does not, this is completely wrong
so would 3 on the bottom be correct?
no
this is a very severe kind of mistake
it is not really salvageable even in part
where did you get this?
in general $\int [f(x)]^n \dd{x}$ is very much \textbf{not} equal to $\frac{[f(x)]^{n+1}}{(n+1)f'(x)}$. at all.
Ann
question is to find volume of revolution from this previous question
yeah my lecturers worked example
ok so your lecturer is feeding you utter lies then lmao
like for real this is pure nonsense.
what part is wrong?
in general $\int [f(x)]^n \dd{x}$ is very much \textbf{not} equal to $\frac{[f(x)]^{n+1}}{(n+1)f'(x)}$. at all.
an exception can be made if $f(x)$ happens to be a linear function --- but in your particular case, it's quadratic, so no dice at all.
Ann
is this not chain rule
no.
if you differentiate it i think it works out
there is u-substitution but in OP's example there isn't really any workable way to do it.
i just found a note from chain rule integration - (ax+b)^n+1/a(n+1)
so that covers it
so its right?
that is the integral of (ax+b)^n.
its right yeah
the stuff inside the power must be a linear function for that rule to work.
but in your case the stuff inside the power is a quadratic function.
quadratic functions are not linear.
the note i found answers my question ill leave this to you lot
but for a quadratic there remains a t
i will reiterate:
its to do with u sub right?
i guess somewhat.
I think the problem is going to be much clearer when the original post doesn't crop out the surrounding page. It is more likely that there is context missing, even though I can't imagine what that would be, than an instructor writing gibberish of that magnitude.
it's unimaginably gross incompetence imo.
i would not go so extreme for just that @vocal tusk
true
would u agree with this
unless i somehow missed that this is one of those signature dead-pan-delivery jokes and/or japes.
unc does not play around 🗿
op just send the video already
i think an error of this magnitude, if it is repeated and can't be attributed to a momentary brainfart (however large), should put the professional fitness of the teacher into great question.
wait wdym somewhat
i am not interested in elaborating on any relationship between this mistake, the bullshitness of the rule used, and u-substitution.
mb
ok now i don't understand you.
i was joking
u := what
well not a 3 at the bottom
what are you trying to do
i think the best way is to just expand the square and integrate each term
inside the brackets
are you trying to justify why the wrong thing is right
you get like
$\int \frac{u^2}{10.8t+3.6} \dd{u}$ and then you cannot proceed
Ann
oh yeah ofc
since OP has departed,
if nobody else has any closing remarks, i'm .closing this now
I don't feel that strongly about this either way, but I don't think such off-the-rails discussion should be humored without creating another channel.
ok in that case
Uh yeah we should close this channel
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could somone explain completing the square better to me?
,tex .cts
riemann
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I need help with a geometry question:
Given a circle (O;R) and a point A outside the circle. From A, draw two tangents AB and AC to circle (O) (with B and C being the points of contact). Draw diameter BD of circle (O). Let H be the intersection of two lines AO and BC. Draw line CK perpendicular to BD at K.
Let I be the intersection of AD and CK. Prove that HI is perpendicular to AB.
got a diagram?
i got one
but the picture is really blurry so you cant make out the points and stuff
you're right
can you draw it yourself? sorry for having such a blurry picture lol
<@&286206848099549185>
@modest tundra Has your question been resolved?
Big hint: Try proving CKB similar to ABD
okay
the angle BCK is not equal to DAB
thats what i figured out the first time i look at the question lol
i need something that leads to it
but KDC is not 90 degrees though?
im still confused sorry
how can you prove this statement
IKD is 90, the triangle ODC does not have any 90s
so it cant be similar
HDC and KDI
i need another angle to complete it
similar to idc and hcb
HCB case... thats not a triangle
anyone can reopen the channel if interested... im leaving this problem for now
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I have a logic question, I'm not sure if this Discord is the correct one for it, but I'm trying my luck (It's more of a Logic question, which I guess is related to math)
I'm trying to understand and be able to demonstrate the following questioning about simultaneous resolution.
Let’s say we have a common pool that currently holds no token.
Two actions happen simultaneously:
Player A attempts to take a token from the common pool.
Player B attempts to add a token to the common pool.
What would the end state be?
Thank you very much for your input! 🙂
Clearly B gets frustrated with A and this ends in a brawl
All joking aside, this feels like its missing some rigid rules
One token gets replaced? If player b is not taking the token from play A
I'm wondering because, if B can take the token from the pool, it would mean that A has resolved its action already, which would mean it wasn't resolved simultaneously.
I'm afraid I don't have much more rigid rules to add to this. Just wondering if there is a field about handling logic events like this and a way to explain them.
@simple pebble Has your question been resolved?
@simple pebble Has your question been resolved?
@simple pebble Has your question been resolved?
there is this problem which is somewhat related
but its not really a logic problem from the start
its just an ill-posed problem
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is it possible to use synthetic division with something like this (x^3 +2x -5)/(x^2 +1) or does the numerator x have to be to a degree of 1?
1.yes
2. you will do -2 to the powers in the result instead of 1
ok that's what I thought but chatgpt seemed to think that wasnt allowed. Thank you!
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but for non linear divisors i prefer long division
Can you DM me an example?
I'm curious, I was ever only taught that it works on linear factors
i don't think it would work with my example if ur confused because I did x^2 +1 so it's roots aren't real
Yeah
I mean, if you wanted to I suppose you could do it on an expression that has integer roots
yea
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why is it C? I don't get it
Did you do the sum or nah
The following error occured while calculating:
Error: Undefined function ln
,w 80/ln(9)
nah i did integral and was trying do estimate
40 looks about right for overestimate but 60 is lil too much
Try it out then come back
😭
yo but how? im not given height should i plug in like everything in f(x) to do it like 0.5 * f(0.5)
You are given the height
Remember how riemann sums work?
Ok
$$0.5\left(f\left(0.5\right)\ +\ f\left(1\right)\ +\ f\left(1.5\right)\ +\ f\left(2\right)\right)\ =\ 60$$
ruby
yep
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I have tried to demonstrate that given two integers a,b with a not equal to zero, then for (ax + b) mod n doesn't exist two equal results for all integers x in interval [0, n).
To demonstrate that i tried this:
But if x1 and x2 are different, in the interval [0, n) there aren't value that are equal for the module of n
But there is something wrong in the prove, in fact if we take for example
I can't understand what is wrong in the prove, because for me i only applied some properties of modular arithmetic
Sorry if the question is stupid
wait a minute, this doesn't even seem true
