#precalculus
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Yeah
that 1 is negative ?
Yep
lol somehow im guessing the signs and its working
It ultimates comes down to X and Y coordinate of unit circle
Well if I have a negative as a theta value, I would add to make it positive
since it's periodic it works like that
so -2pi/3 + 6pi/3 = 4pi/3
And I know that 4pi/3 is in quad iii, where x and y are negative
No
Use the identity
You have to take the square root
?
Ur just plugging stuff in
U know cost = sqrt(22)/5
So u can make a right triangle since in the unit circle cos = x
And we want sin
We know the hypotenuse is 1
So 22/25 + (sint)^2 = 1^2
(sint)^2 = 3/25
sint = sqrt(3)/5
$$\cos^2+\sin^2 = 1 \newline \Rightarrow \cos^2+(\frac{8}{9})^{2}=1 \newline \Rightarrow \cos^2+\frac{64}{81}=1$$
sqrt(17)/9
?
It should be cos^2 = 17/81
I'm not sure how to represent the inverse functions geometrically so my usual tactic of a mental triangle isn't working.
they are cofunctions
Still tho is there a way to visualize inverses geometrically?
No I don't believe
oh yikes
oh fun I remember this
Yea
I'm assuming you are given, unit circle right?
Correct
The first two I can do with that
and the third
and the last
But 4 and 5 are unique, which makes me theorize that there's a simpler way to do it
WIthout calculator?
Yea
Wait, arctan(4/5) means we're asking for the angle whose tangent is 4/5...
So we can draw it as a triangle
with o=4 and a=5
yes
Finding hypotenuse with pythag we get sin(that)=4/(sqrt(blabla))
Fourth one, we can do the same with adjacent and hypotenuse to get csc as h/o
Nah, you have to use calculator
There is no way they are expecting you to find decimal precise, angle values
You sure?
Well, do you know of any way to find the angle?
arcfunctions can be remodelled to decimal-able areas
We aren't concerned with finding the arctangent, we want the sine of the angle whose tangent is 4/5, right?
I've always useda calculator when calculating arctan
So we can almost cheat
By drawing a triangle with opposite side of 4 and adjascent of 5
hypotenuse is easy
we know soh
sine=o/h
So we can skip the angle
Oh yeah you are right
I'm not a pro at this, i'm in fact doing the same stuff as you lol
Similar tactic is usable for the 5th
and the rest we can just brute force anyways :P
And neato
this is just the review :p
Worst case we just end up using a taylor series xD
Oh I see
=tex \sin(x)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^kx^{2k+1}}{(2k+1)!}=x-\frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^5}{5!}...
Cosine is similar but with 2k instead of 2k+1
They're not hard to memorize and if you ever find yourself needing a decimal trig function they're your best bet to my knowledge :P
You had to know that for your trig class?
Oh you've taken calculus?
Oh, are you in 11th grade?
I'm in 1st grade!
I am the first grade
I'm so first that the school wants me to do a presentation for them
53 & 54 pls, not sure how to approach it, tried factoring, reducing to base terms and converting to respective tangents
hi โi

anyways that looks kinda messy
I could try 1/sin^3(x)...
I'm not good at factoring by grouping
oo
I prefer depressing the cubic and applying Cardano's method
I could totally mess with my teacher by doing u-substitution
Well like do what I did
Yea
but replace u with csc
๐
rip luck
Lol
66 and 69, it's the "not in fractional form" part that's throwing me off.
inb4 $$\frac{5}{\tan(x)+\sec(x)}\to 5\div(\tan(x)+\sec(x))$$
technically not a fraction
Oh, those are cute.
They're hiding Pythagorean identities.
Lemme grab LaTeX.
Something like
=tex \begin{array}{rcl}
\frac{5}{\tan x + \sec x}&=&\frac{5}{\tan x + \sec x}\frac{\tan x - \sec x}{\tan x - \sec x}\
&=&\frac{5\left (\tan x - \sec x \right )}{\left (\tan x + \sec x\right )\left (\tan x - \sec x \right )}\
&=&\frac{5\left (\tan x - \sec x \right )}{\tan^2 x - \sec^2 x}\
&=&\frac{5\left (\tan x - \sec x \right )}{-1}\
&=&-5\left (\tan x - \sec x \right )
\end{array}
inb4 69 jokes
inb4 g_69
inb4 TREE(69)
Is that bigger than g_69?
Bigger is an understatement
In fact it actually makes me kinda sad that people don't understand the difference in magnitude between TREE(3) and Graham's number
I've never heard it ;0
@calm thicket requires graph theory. I only know how to recursively approximate it
Okay
So this is gonna be super loose and bad
Define the following:
a+0 = a
a*0 = 0
a^0 = 1
a*(b+c) = a*b+a*c
a^(b+c) = (a^b)*(a^c)
Operations not associative
In a+b, a*b, and a^b, I say b is to the right
We also use infinities
_>
uhuh
=tex H_0(n)=n\H_{a+1}(n)=H_a(n+1)\H_{(\infty\text{ is all the way on the right)}}(n)=H_{\text{(replace last }\infty\text{ with }n)}(n)
=tex H_\infty(2)=H_2(2)=4
=tex H_{\infty+2}(2)=H_{\infty+1}(3)=H_\infty(4)=H_4(4)=8
i.e. pop off the last num until it ends with $$\infty,$$replacing the $$\infty$$with $$n$$
=tex g_n\approx H_{\infty^{\infty+1}}(n)=H_{\infty^\infty\cdot\infty}(n)=H_{\infty^\infty\cdot n}(n)
uhuh
It gets pretty big
TREE(n) is bigger than $$H_{\infty^{\infty^{\infty^{\dots}}}}(n)$$
With n powers of infinity
Btw
This H probably grows faster than anything you can think of
is TREE(4) infinite
@true vigil not according to ZFC
what do you mean
nice
ZFC has a PTO much larger than TREE(n)'s corresponding ordinal in the H function
Meaning it can pull off enough induction over graphs to prove TREE(n) is always finite
Amusing that this is a precal topic.
Well it requires some understanding of ordinal notations
Fairly decent sized notations actually
@true vigil biggest countable ordinal you know?
uhhhh I dunno, is that important? I know much bigger ordinals in ZFC like the ordinal of R, of 2^R, of 2^2^R, ...
Oh wait, were you asking about ZFC's PTO?
TREE(n)'s PTO much smaller =/
Not quite
you need to do induction up to some ordinal
Also ZFC's PTO > all computable ordinal notations
Except maybe Tarnovski's C notation, but that's pretty complicated
Oh yeah, back to the question...
@true vigil idk how to calculate PTOs and it's actually pretty hard
Also the proofs tend to be scary lookin'
You can get lower bounds by taking theories ZFC proves consistent
And finding their PTOs

Why was this in precalc tho
I have the standard form of the equation of a circle; (x-1)^2+(y-2)^2=9, I have to find the intercepts algebraically
I'm trying to find the y-int first
so I set x = 0 and so far I have this
(0-1)^2+(y-2)^2=9
1 + y^2-4y+4 = 9
y^2-4y+5=9
y^2-4y=4
y(y-4)=4
not sure where to go from here
why did u expand the y bracket tho
figured it'd be easier
well
should I not?
yep
so its gonna be +- something + some random number
Right now I just need to isolate the y
um i haven't done a lot of precalc, but try without expanding the y bracket
you already have the solutions to Y as of now but it's not right
yeah work with the bracket
so
if I do it this way
I have
1 + (y-2)^2=9
(y-2)^2=8
y-2 = +or-sqrt(8)
y= +or-sqrt(8) + 2
right?
@tired cedar would it be y= +or- 2sqrt2 + 2?
@timid jacinth Just a note, what you had was valid too
You just didn't realize you had a quadratic in y
But yeah, not expanding the y term is definitely easier
yes yes
Expand
log2x^-2
please help me with this
@autumn verge
yeah
yep
um i think we should use log rules
oh ok
same stuff happens eitherway
i don't like neg powers
so
Ye
Now we're going to use the rule
=tex log_a\left(\frac{b}{c}\right)=log_a\left(b\right)-log_a\left(c\right)
Yes?
yeah
Which gives us
=tex log_2\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right)=log_2\left(1\right)-log_2\left(x^2\right)
You got it from there?
yeah
awesome
yo
how come lim as x-> infinity of sinx / e^x = 0
cause sin x to infiinity DNE riht
but sin x osciallytes between -1 and 1
so techincally its -1/0 or 1/0 ?
is that the case
@fringe stream
Why is the bottom 0?

i mean 1/ infinity ooops
which is 0
๐
and what is -1/infinity?
0
lol

anything over infinity is 0 right
no, but that's a topic for later
well im in calc
yeah, it's a topic for later
โ/โ = 0? 
=tex \infty\in\rm anything?
kek
No
=tex \lim_{x\to\infty}\sin(x)\ne\rm constant

Wait, why are we in #precalculus
because hes in precalc
im in calc
what I've realized is if you use infinity as a number, it's a topic for later
oh ok
So DNE/โ = 0?
Yeah

like how
but its / e^x
Yeah, but this equals DNE too, right?
You're asking, why does the sequence $$\frac{\sin(x)}{e^x}$$ converge to 0?
im guessing idk
So surely we must have $$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\sin(x)e^x}{e^x}=\frac{\rm DNE}\infty=0?$$
bring out the epsilons 
Yeah squeeze theorem is how you should state these things
Thtats what im trying to say

i neeed this squeeze theorom
$$\forall \epsilon > 0, \exists N$$ such that $$\frac{\sin(x)}{e^x} < \epsilon \ \forall x > N$$

Actually that one isn't that bad
Choose N = ceil(-ln(ฮต))
so thats the squeeze theorem?
$$\frac{\sin(x)}{e^x} < \frac{1}{e^x} < \epsilon \implies e^x > \frac{1}{\epsilon}$$
So pick N > ln(1 / epsilon)
ahhh i see
@viscid thistle no
=tex \frac{-1}{e^x}\le\frac{\sin(x)}{e^x}\le\frac1{e^x}
Support the bot on Patreon: https://www.patreon.com/dxsmiley
Noting the upper and lower bounds go to 0
yep
then the middle term must go to 0

squeeze theorem
sorry im in calc
never took precalc so i skipped this
I just know how to solve limits
Well i know it just converges to 1 or 01
-1
and e to infinity is infinity
and i know 1/infinity = 0 therefore
its 0
So like yeah ig its the same
but the squeeze theorem i never learned
1/infinity = 0
--__--

๐
How do I get the inverse function of 2^x?
It's a concept
There's no such thing as 1 / infinity
If you use it in class no one cares but if you do it in here our collective math autism will be engaged
1/infinity
nice sotto
How do I get the inverse function of 2^x?
How?
Yeah, pft, 1/โ = 0
I forgot how to do it using logs
If you wanna do it right, you should write st(1/ฯ) = 0

1/infinity does = 0 wym
Yes i didn't put the lim x-> infinity 1/x =0
but You assuming you plug in infinity for x
therefore its 0
Okay but how come incalc they say its equal to 0
hmm
a limit isn't just plugging the value in
For example, consider a function that is 0 everywhere, but 1 at x = 0
The limit at x = 0 is still 0
Even though you plug in x = 0 and get 1
it's called REAL ANAL(ysis)
what about 1/ infinity ^2
hmm
just stop lol
well its a real question
pft, non-standard analysis
$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{x^2}$$
=tex 0<\frac1{\omega^2}<\frac1\omega
๐
That's 0, you can use epsilon-delta to show it
the virgin squeeze theorem
vs
the chad epsilon-delta
lmao
what i meant to say is lim x-> infinity of 1/ infinity ^2 = 0

Now is that true
LOl
you didn't even use the x
facepalm
either way 1/ infinity ^2 +1 = 0 + 1
๐
๐
that's not true though
how can you have 2 times infinity though
We are just memeing
infinity isn't a number lol
=tex \alpha+\beta=\alpha\cup{\alpha+\gamma~|~\gamma\in\beta}

=tex \omega={0,1,2,3,\dots}=\bbN
๐
Its not tho man
infinity is not a number
Not even in non-standard analysis
ok
where you can have 1/โ
oh dear
are you in hs?
or college
probably doesn't want to introduce the formal rigorous ideas
understandable if you're in hs
And tell us what it means to do arithmetic with this โ

ordinals = plz no subtraction

$$\lim_{x \to \infty} (x - x^2) = 0$$

kek
totally makes sense
I think you're just drunk
I can imagine some kid thinking
"lim (x - xยฒ) = โ - โ = 0 QED"
implying there is a max int
show that int of 1/ (1+x^2) dx converges using limit comparison. Compare to int from 1 to infinity of 1/x^2 dx . (1/x^2)/1/(1+x^2) mult 1/x^2 top and bottom, = lim x goes to infinity of (1+x^2)/x^2 = lim as x goes to infinity of 1/x^2 + x^2 / x^2 = 1/infinity ^2 + 1 = 0+1=1, 0<1<infinity , so int from 1 to infinity of (1/(1+x^2) dx also converges by limit comparison
haha he still uses computers with finite number of bits
@viscid thistle
still hasn't moved on to infinite-bit processors
what
Can you latex it
its easy to read
lol
but sure i can latex
I can't read
want to tell mehow
im new
no im talking about the fancy code
where it highlights it
kinda like this
the limit DNE
$$show that int of 1/ (1+x^2) dx converges using limit comparison. Compare to int from 1 to infinity of 1/x^2 dx . (1/x^2)/1/(1+x^2) mult 1/x^2 top and bottom, = lim x goes to infinity of (1+x^2)/x^2 = lim as x goes to infinity of 1/x^2 + x^2 / x^2 = 1/infinity ^2 + 1 = 0+1=1, 0<1<infinity , so int from 1 to infinity of (1/(1+x^2) dx also converges by limit comparison(edited)$$
Are you trying to evaluate the limit of
xยฒ / (1 + xยฒ)?
Through evaluating the limit of xยฒ / (1 + xยฒ) via limit comparison
I am brutally murdered
when 3 people have been explaining this for 1/2 hour and you still do 1 / infinity
It happens a lot
also you compared to the integral of "1 / infinity ^2"
infinity squared smh
thats what i said
no?
read smh
you said you just compared to "1 / infinity"
come again
you want to compare to the INTEGRAL
not the sequence
You're evaluating the limit of (xยฒ + 1) / xยฒ. Notice you can divide top and bottom by xยฒ to get that the limit is 1

=tex \frac{x^2+1}{x^2}=\frac{1+\frac1{x^2}}1\to\frac{1+0}1=1
:3
You instead try to break up the limit which is a huge no-no because you can't be certain the limits you are creating exist (they actually don't)
(also why I hate people who write 1/โ = 0)
(they tend to be the type of people who do that)
(๐)
oh, so that's how you roast someone 
yeah and its pretty bad notation if you ask me
but its correct
Say, did you get around to telling me what โ was?
define what you mean first, then we can judge its correctness
OH yeah I understand now.
I thought you broke the limit no you did the right thing
๐
I compared that limit to 1/(infinity^2)
then i found that it also converges through limit comparison
๐
Well it's just terrible notation is all we're saying
lacks rigor and can be ambiguous
it's ok, we all did that at some point
๐ you sure?
yes
๐ frankly I'll be taking that as rude stereotyping
I mean there never is a 1/infinityยฒ step.
lim 1/xยฒ + 1 = 1
To write infinity in there implies 1/infinityยฒ is a real number, to which it is not. It also suggests breaking a limit, which didn't happen here, but can happen in other cases.
all I ever wanted was a definition of this infinity
Like lim (1 + 1/x)^x
You'd likely know not to write infinity into this, but if you did you'd get the limit is 1
?
Where the limit is actually e
@pine kindle are you talking about my college admission essays?
oh
no, I already have definitions of "infinity"
Little did he know, he would never get there
kek
PhD in large numbers

how can math majors even compete?
Founder of PhD in large numbers
kek
can't compete when it comes to large numbers I'll give 'em that
you are talking about notation on discord tho lol
if i had enough time in the day to have good notation on discord i would, but as a busy physics major i dont got time
physics


So is this professor/teacher who writes โ like this
is (s)he (or other non-binary gender) a math prof.... or a phys prof?
๐ cuz in rigorous math no-one writes 1/โ = 0 AFAIK
especially without any definition of โ
but this is when take the lim as x-> infinity
but she did write that
1/infinity^2 +1 = 0+1
thats what she said
you missed the question tho
well we dont write 1/infinity = 0
i already said i was wrong with the infinity
well anyways ur still ignoring my question
let me try and write this better so you can see my notes
``Ex: show int from 1 to infinity where f(x) = 1/(1+x^2)dx converges using limit comparison, compare to integral from 1 to infinity where f(x) = 1/x^2 dx.
We know it will converge because p= 2>1.
``
alright
It just looks better imho
ight
would you prefer teaching me how to write fractions
or is this fine for you
im talking about in the way you guys write code in here with the $$
Its gonna take me a while to type this out but i will
also, sorry if i sound dumb guys, this is the way my professor taught me
and if im wrong
please blame my proff
k lol
yeah i always trust them
:P
$$ \frac{1}{1+x^2}dx \text {converges using limit comparison, compare to} \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1} {x^2}dx { \frac{1}{x^2} * \frac{1}{x^2}} \frac{ \frac{1}{x^2} * \frac{1}{x^2}} {1}^{\infty^2} \frac{1} {x^2}dx + {1} = {0} +{1} = {1} \text {so} \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1} {x^2}dx \text also converges by limit comparison. $$
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Problem? \frac{ \frac{1}{x^2} * \frac{1}{x^2}} {1}^{\infty^2}
im multiplying a fraction by a fraction
but that frac multiplied by afraction all together
But the first \frac in the part I mentioned is all alone it seems
Does the last {1} go to the fraction or the ^{\infty^2}?
it goes to the integral i believe
wait where at
nvm ill try something
$${so} \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1} {x^2}dx \text {also converges by limit comparison. }$$
so this works
I can't help but notice that the integral is in precalculus. Might #calculus be a better place?
@thick lichen I got it.
It's pretty straightforward once you have the recurrence relation. The thing that's weird is that which one is the P and which one is the P+1 flips every iteration.
@wind igloo I'll post the solution here so you can check just in case
tell me if you can't read something
that should round the edges of your proof if you miss one or two formal steps
also tagging @zealous shell for this when he wakes up ^ ๐
maybe you went a hard way ๐
Maybe.
I don't think so...
there can be multiple ways to a solution
I don't feel too bad that I didn't get it under 20 minutes then
gotta work though because some people in my class 4 years ago would have
Well, I haven't done formal proofs like this for a class in a very long time.
I can get more coming when I have interesting problems, I'm reviewing my courses ๐
I explicitly found the recurrence relation, and then ground through the algebra to show that multiplying by root 2 preserves the relationship.
It's ultimately inductive.
No I mean do you have a closed expression for p
No.
ok so it's just the existence
I wonder how hard it would be to have the value of p for all n
I have explicit formulae for a and b in terms of a_n-1, b_n-1
a_n = a_n-1 + 2b_n-1
b_n = a_n-1 + b_n-1
IIRC, most recurrence relations can be transformed into closed form solutions...
maybe using some kind of linear algebra magic
But the process requires a differential equation.
can't it be expressed as some kind of linear endomorphism?
A= B*C
where B = (1 2; 1 1)
sorry
A = B*A-1
shit
A_n = B*A_n-1
There's a matrix representation, yes.
Well can't we just calculate B^n then?
shit I gotta sleep
Go to sleep. We can discuss this more tomorrow.
I'll try it tomorrow when I'm in the train ๐
yeah I'll get back to you if I find something
instead of using the law of tangents cant i just solve the missing angle and use the law of sines to solve the missing sides?
oof
@viscid thistle ???
I'm gonna post all the exercises I have trouble with while reviewing all my undergrad courses ๐
$$\text{arcsin}(2x) - \text{arcsin}(\sqrt{3}x) = \text{arcsin}(x)$$
Solve this in $$\mathbb{R}$$
@wind igloo ๐
because you liked the previous one
this one is easier and reminded me of a trick I had completely forgotten about
$$\arcsin(x) + \arcsin(y) = \arcsin(x\sqrt{1 - y^2} + y\sqrt{1 - x^2})$$
you guys know everything by heart ๐ when we solved it we didn't know about this formula we had to have the idea of appying sin to both sides, and finding necessary conditions on x etc
I wish I knew all these formulas lol
can't even properly memorize tan(a+b), cos(p) + cos(q) etc
equation is not solved yet just with that though
Or just take sin() to both sides
yes that's what I did
not equivalent though
but then there is still this $$x\sqrt{1 - y^2} + y\sqrt{1 - x^2} = 1$$ and that's where I was stuck
it ought to simplify
it doesn't there are two intermediary steps to get to the potential solutions
do tell me if you don't want me sharing these little exercises, I just feel less alone revising this way ๐
@viscid thistle 
U just
For the range that depends on the graph
And that's biggest y minus smallest y
for asymptote
Look at the line where the function is appearing to become
then look at the end and graph the line back
@dense zealot how do i know which quadrant they are in
What about it?
how do i find where the lines are going
on both sides of the function, they're closing onto a point on the top and bottom , you just connect these two points make a line and go forever
i know but i'm saying how do i know where they will be
You talking about the asymptotes?
If so, you can determine where they will be by doing simple transformations, a vertical asymptote is made when the denominator of the function is =0, since dividing by 0 is undefined
To shift it vertically, you just add/subtract a constant after the function
Use the multiple angle formulae and sin^2+cos^2
compound angle formula
cos(a+b) = cosa cosb - sin a sin b
sin(a+b) = sina cosb + sin b cos a
tan(a+b) = sin(a+b)/cos(a+b)
for what values of x is f(x) = y greater than 0, and less than or equal to 0
in other words when is it strictly above the x axis
and when is it below or lieing on the x axis
you will have 3 intervals if you can see it just from looking at it
Hai
Hi is there a way to prove two equations using general solutions
*prove two equations are sometimes true, always true, never true
are those one equation?
Two different equations but when plugged into a graphing software, they are sometimes true
However I need to be able to prove using general.solutions somehow...
ohoh
yes
i have experience in the field of teaching
what is it you need help with @ancient hatch @unreal plaza
i see im not wanted
thanks for wasting my time
dohyeong kim brother of dohwan kim from nangok seoul in korea
why is there something unrelated to maths in a math channel??
son of younmin yoo
and why are you talking to yourself
someone kick this dog1
@grand shale
dohyeong kim brother of dohwan kim from nangok seoul in korea son of younmin yoo lover of mark minaj
btw how do you differentiate f(x) = x^2+3x ?
Power rule
fโ(x)=2x+3
Was it the fact that it had 2 terms that tripped you up?
i didnt do nothing
If so just think about everything thatโs in terms of x as another function of x
oh
And f(x) as a composition of those
So f(x) is just a function f of x. dy/dx is the derivative of y with respect to x
Itโs usually implied that y = f(x)
f'(x) is dy/dx righ
oh yeah
So dy/dx = d/dx(f(x)) = fโ(x)
any time
Use double angle formula
Okay give me a bit im helping with someone
hmmm i've never dealt with double angle in this sort of way
but I can try to help
cos(2a)=-7/8
we can use the 2cos^2x-1 to find cosx
So -7/8=2cos^2x-1; add one; 1/8=2cos^2x; divide by 2; 1/16=cos^2x; take square root; cos(x)=+-1/4
And since it says quadrant ii, we can say that the cosine is indeed negative
so -1/4
and then make a triangle out of that and you can find the sin
np
So, Iโve got a test tomorrow and I donโt remember how to solve this. (Itโs also been years since high school math so Iโm very rusty)
very tiny lol
Okay what
@lone bloom do you by any chance play gd?
I'm unaware of what that is.
Oh nvm, just from the name I thought you play gd
anyways i've never dealt with those problems so I am unable to help ๐ฆ
<@&286206848099549185>
It's from something silly a long time ago. I appreciate it though.
Thereโs also this, which I got one answer to but wolfram alpha got a different answer to.
I'd say C, wolfram says E.
I believe it would be E
Because I believe when finding the composition you just plug the g(x) function for x in f(x)?
Is there something that works between the 2 and the root to cancel them, which would leave E?
Yes.
Correct
so e^2ln(1/sqrt(-x)
and you should know that 2ln(x) is ln(x^2)
so it's essentially e^ln((1/sqrt(-x)^2)
and the e and ln cancel
so it's just (1/sqrt(-x))^2
Or 1/-x; -1/x
That makes sense now.
I did the wrong thing to start.
Now I'm feeling that if I just brush up on interest problems I can make a nice C on this test.
Me and Math aren't friends.
oh ic
same here i suppose.
i'm pretty bad as well
i had to review geometry and algebra 2 and 1 bymyself
Everything I'm learning is 100% useless to me. My dream job only involves calculating dosage.
i'm preparing for calculas atm
ic
the stuff i'm learning rn is just to prepare me to get an A on calculas 1
and hopefully i can get A's after calculas 1 as well
The university I'm going to doesn't require vet students to take Calc 1.
ah ic thats good
That's a bomb deal.
calculas isn't worth the effort unless you're doing science or engineering courses
that's pretty good man
This class has been frustrating to the point I've considered just dropping out and being poor for the rest of my life.
damn really
don't stress out too much about it, you won't need to take calculas
at least
It literally causes my brain pain.
well it use to for me as well.
i had to go back and master algebra 1
before it became much easier for me
Ow.
indeed
it wasen't a nice time to be alive
but i managed it. i average an 80 on tests atm
i'm planning on bringing that up to 90
it's possible to get through it without much trouble. you just have to put effort into mastering the basics.
divide sqrt3 on both sides
then you take the csc of it.
And For problem 4 im pretty sure it's B. @lone bloom
just change it then, if you simplify it, it'll be -(2*sqrt3/3)
all you have to do now is go to the unit circle
Are you trying to find degree measures that satisfy?
and figure out which quadrant it's in
yeah ik.
you find the csc of that value on the quadrant
then you find a way to write out all the possible radians
I would divide by sqrt3 first
then take the reciprocal of that giving you the sin(x)=-sqrt(3)/2
Yes exactlyu
ok so the question is asking for csc right? sin is negative on two quadrants. 3rd quadrant and 4th quadrant
you can do that
it's actually the easiest way to see it
imo
Yeah
anyways
yes those are the values you use
you go to the unit circle
and look at it
lol
sin=-sqrt3/2 right
for that value it's negative on 3rd and 4th quadrant
yeah
it asks for all values
so you then add 2pin
which means whenever you add 2pin continiously
it'll always be the same value
because that's where sin is -sqrt3/2
lol


