#geometry-and-trigonometry
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A = a*h_a/2 as we all know, same thing for b and c
So 1/h_a = a/(2A)
But since a < b + c (triangle inequality) we have that
1/h_a < (b + c)/(2A) = 1/h_b + 1/h_c
@thin wasp
Yep, thanks
๐ฎ
The median to a 10cm side of a triangle has length 9cm and is perpendicular to a second median of the triangle. Find the exact value of centimeters of the length of the third median.
We were specifically told NOT to use the law of cosines
I found the sidelengths of the triangle
So what I suppose I could do, is draw a perpendicular down from the centroid to the 10cm base
then calculate the area of the triangle using heron's formula, which would be a pain to do cause I've got multiple surds
and then show that 10*(that perpendicular)/2 = (Area of the triangle/3), and thus calculate the perpendicular length
and then use pythag/similarity
Nvm got it ^
could i have something to prove
of what nature?
prove that a dog is topologically a sphere
Do spheres have hair?
But a dog isn't topologically a sphere, I don't think. It's a torus,
Wow, deep conversation
here is the solution if you were curious -_- https://i.warosu.org/data/sci/img/0089/00/1494491021652.png
Ahh, math memes
iโm fuckin dying
oof

Iโve got this
In the triangle ABC denote the angles at the respective vertices by a, b and c
PC is tangent to the circle and touches one of the vertices of ABC so by the alternate segment theorem (you might want to look this up) the angle BCP is the same as the angle a
So the angle PCQ has size a + c/2 because CQ bisects c
Whatโs more, we know that a + b + c = 180 degrees
But also b + BCQ + PQC = 180 degrees, but BCQ = c/2, so we must have that PQC = PCQ = a + c/2
This shows that PQC is isosceles so PC = PQ
@coral kiln
ty @twin prawn
๐ฎ
What have you tried
uh
ye
so the three rules to solve PBCX are opposite angels are sup, exterior angle = opp interior and <XPY = <YBC/<PXY=BCY
can't seem to get any tho
@twin prawn
@coral kiln you need to prove it by proving <CXP = <CPB
As a chord subtends equal angle anywhere on the circumference...here BC being taken as the chord
And then it is pretty easy to prove
Hint:use property of rhombus's diagonals
There is triangle ABC with all acute angles(Point B is up,A is on the left and C is on the eight ). The length of the height from point B is 7, The length of the height from point C is 9. Then we draw median from A to side BC then marke point M. Then we draw point symetric to point M relative to line AC then name it P.then we draw point symetric to point M relative to line AB then name it Q. Fine the perimeter of quarilater APMQ.
Please help <@&286206848099549185>
@main totem sorry for the late reply; I just saw this. Assuming AM is 8, as it is in the diagram (but not your explanation), the answer is 7 + 9 + 8*2.
But 7 is height of triangle
oh 7 as part of the answer?
Yes
Can u please xplain i am dumb
Yes
what's the ratio of similarity?
1/2
3.5
@hollow edge thank u very much ur a legend
lol
HOW DO I DO THAT THING
angle BDC is 44
yeah it will be
and inscribed angles dont change their measure no matter where you put the middle vertex bit
as long as its still on the circle ofc
or rather "in a circle, two inscribed angles with the same intercepted arc are congruent"
my brain is frozen
i am taking summer geomrtry class
i dont understand anything outside of algebra 1
Angle bac is half of that arc
We already gave that answer
It's okay we still love you <3
hi. Is this shit even true?
I have counterexample. Let B be (0,3) and let E be disjoint union of (0,2), (0,2), (1,3),(1,3),(1,3)
and let p map number t to number t in (0,3)
then p^-1(1.5) has 5 elements but p^-1(0.5) has only 2 elements
this is so annoying
how can u be so sure? points in B are evenly covered by intervals (0,2) and (1,3)
oh shit they're not
what is the preimage of (1.5, 2.5)
it's disjoint collection of open sets, but not all of them map homeomorphically to (1.5, 2.5)
want a hint?
no ๐ I meant this one you gave me
I meant to say that generally I cant prove shit without someone giving me hint
alright
geometry is killing me also, what do i need to do to get this?
@manic grail also same, trying to get into precalc because I know alg 2 and alg 1 so if i learn geometry I can do that
yah
nice, thanks for the help
Can someone confirm that when they talk about the circles being externally tangent. they do not refer to the angle APB being 90 degrees. (I don't know all the terminology for English mathematics) <@&286206848099549185>
cause if it is 90 degrees that means that the solution to this (2+1)^2 = (2+r)^2 + (1+r)^2 should give you the radius...
but I get the incorrect answer...
Noe it doesnt mean that
External tangent means that there exists a particular tangent
When when drawn
Meets A at one point and B in the other
Internal tangent means that there exists a particular tangent line
Which when drawn
Meets the two (semi)circles at the SAME point
@opal blaze
ok
Hello. What is the usual order of describing a triangle. Should the points be given clockwise or counterclockwise. Would be great to get some references as well. Thanks
I don't think there is a strong convention
@torpid perch You should think of the unit circle. so counterclockwise.
ok thanks
usually counterclockwise is the positive direction in mathematics
because x and y are in a counterclockwise direction in that order
problem:
I tried extending PQ and LM to meet, and connecting tangency points in hopes of finding something with similar triangles - but I couldn't go from there(edited)
there's a coordinate bash solution here:
but I'm looking for a geometric solution
if someone has a hint, please ping me.
<@&286206848099549185>
I think this is how you do it
@eager pendant pythagorean with 10 and 26/5
don't forget x2 since it's half of LM
What is the notation used to define a gradient between two points?
is it โf โ(arrow)f or just โ?,
like say if I had a line on a grid, and the endpoints marked A and B,
straight line,
scalar function.
Guys i have a little hard problem that i cant solve can anyone The smartest person in this server help me out?
So i need to prove thar triangle BAD = triangle AED
<@&286206848099549185>
BC or AD is not diameter btw
warning not to scale
This looks like it can be done pretty sufficiently with congruency theorems and tangent-secant theorems
I ma de a mistake lol
It says prove that they are similart..
Im so dumb i cant eve read right
Could still try tangent-secant theorems
I don't have too much time right now, but I will help out later if I can
Just try to find relationships between angles or sides.
Triangles are similar if all corresponding sides are equal, a pair of corresponding angles are equal or a corresponding angle and the two sides that share its vertex are equal (however in the last case they would also be congruent, so it doesn't look like it will work here)
What is the notation used to define a gradient between two points?
is it โf โ(arrow)f or just โ? or neither???,
like say if I had a line on a grid, and the endpoints marked A and B,
straight line,
scalar function.
<@&286206848099549185>
=tex \frac{\Delta x}{\Delta y}
The gradient is just the tangent of the angle between the x-axis and the graph of your function for linear functions
It's just that I came across this =
Definition
The gradient of the function f(x,y) = โ(cos2x + cos2y)2 depicted as a projected vector field on the bottom plane.
The gradient (or gradient vector field) of a scalar function f(x1, x2, x3,... xn) is denoted โf or โโf where โ (the nabla symbol) denotes the vector differential operator, del. The notation grad f is also commonly used for the gradient. The gradient of f is defined as the unique vector field whose dot product with any unit vector v at each point x is the directional derivative of f along v. That is,
some people use 'm' to denote gradient
=tex m =\frac{\Delta x}{\Delta y}
I mean
like if you wanted to be technical
You can literally put anything instead of m
Assuming the variable is viable
In the context
In vector calculus it is generally accepted to use nabla as the symbol for the gradient
grad f
Just as you would denote divergence by $$ \Nabla \cdot $$
Rendering failed. Check your code. You can edit your existing message if needed.
ow
=tex \Nabla
Is the gradient applied to a scalar f(x,y,z)
Rendering failed. Check your code. You can edit your existing message if needed.
$$ \nabla $$
Is the gradient applied to a scalar f(x,y,z)
There we go
for gradient
Could someone help me with this?
I tried arranging it symmetrically, and I managed to get a solution via a tedious coordinate bash
But I'm not even sure if that's right, and I'm wondering what would be an easier way to do it
<@&286206848099549185>
um
this might be a possible method
probs not the easiest
use ptolemy's theorem
set the diameter to d
d^3 - 7 d^2 - 2 * 20^2 d = 0
that wasn't as messy as I expected
d (d + 25) (d - 32)
diameter is 32, and radius is 16 @eager pendant
actually I canceled out (d + 7) at one point
so it should be
d (d + 7) (d + 25) (d - 32)
this would be my method
Hm.
I find it interesting that you assumed the two 7 length sides were adjacent.
And yet, you get the same answer if you do not make that assumption.
well
thinking in terms of arc length
they should all have the same circle
since they would "fit" all the segments the same way
and you can abuse the fact that the question implies that it doens't matter
True
false
@hollow edge is there a way of doing it without ptolemy?
idk
any ideas anyone?
the reason ptolemy is useful here is that it uses the fact that it's an inscribed quadilateral
Given triangle ABC with a right angle at B, D is a point on AC such that BD is an altitude to AC and F is a point on BC such that AF is the angle bisector of angle A. If AP=12 and PF=8, find tan(<BAF) and find PD.
I've tried using the angle bisector theorem and made a few fruitless constructions. I know that the three right angled triangles are all similar to each other and that ABF is similar to ADP but I don't know how to start
Diagram for reference:
Is this pure geometry? Or can we use trig?
I mean, I'd prefer a purely geometric solution but if you can solve it using trig I'd be interested to know how you did it
Well, with trig I'd be looking at double-angle formulas
Yeah, I know tanx=sinx/(1+cosx)
or at least i think its that
but still, I dont know how I'd go about finding sin BAC
Well, in ABF, I know angle B and AF. So I can use Law of Sines to get angle BAF.
angle BAC is then twice that.
yeah
3:4:5 triangles
Ah. Nice.
you can get AB:BF using the angle bisector theorem
yep
which is the tangent you're looking for
using that you can get DP from triangle ADP
(last two because of similarities again)
did that work?
i dont understand the context of 345 triangles here. like, i can eventually prove that AB:BC:AC = 3:4:5 through a convoluted but i cant see why its relevant here
well it's not really important
just a note because it's a special case
3:5 sin always means it's a 3:4:5 triangle
not used here, it's just a note because it's a special case (pythagorean triangle)
hm, can you elaborate on
you can get AB:BF using the angle bisector theorem
ik BF/AB=FC/AC
but how are you using this?
Hm. I have completely forgotten the angle bisector theorem...
given triangle ABC with angle bisector AD, BD/DC=AB/AC
Yeah. I'm looking at the wiki page. :)
I think you'll want to apply the angle bisector theorem to ABD.
One sec. I need a piece of paper. I can't do this in my head. :)
@hollow edge Could you elaborate on how you used the angle bisector theorem?
How did you know AB:AC=3:5?
(as a side note, thanks to you and samantha for helping. im sorry if my persistent questions are bothering you in any way)
What's clear is that I am not actually awake enough to do math.
np
gn
quick question
im writing an essay within n-spheres
and i was wondering how to best give a quick introduction
as im working within a wordcount
could you guys give me a list of things to include so i dont miss anything
@severe folio
Essay at what level
Theres a ton of stuff in maths about spheres
What do you want to covee?
@hollow edge for what it's worth, I found a solution without ptolemy
let's see it
It's 20-7-20 arcs
Since you know the 7 is parallel to the diameter, you know that from the center to the perpendicular is 3.5
Equalize the height of the perpendicular
And solve.
That's how I solved it, originally.
hmm nice
@mint sandal its for an extended essay within the IB so it should roughly translate to grade 12 - university level
ye?
Any good with Compound Area?
no just simple area
That's just 2 rectangles added together
for compound area
at the top of the assignment it says "round to the nearest whole number" so if i got 37, would it be 40
37 is a whole number
im retarded, i give up
The answer is 37 though...
A sad story
Hi. Is [0,1) union {5 } (as subspace of R) homeomorphic to disjoint union of [0,1) with single element space?
yeah
check that the function which sends [0,1) to itself and {5} to some other singleton is a homeomorphism
Hi. Could anybody help me in questions-3 ?
Does anybody understand celestial mechanics? I don't have a question yet but I'd be nice to know
Celestial mechanics in the planetary orbit sense?
@zenith ember Yeah! Kepler Problem, Hohmann Transer Orbit, Sundman Inequality, etc
I kind of do.
nice โค , it's nice to know.
It's a topic I rarely hear questions about
It's taught like a mathematics course unfortunately. But yes, it's extremely physicy
Unfortunately?
My opinion is not too well founded, I still need to study more. But the notation seems to feels somewhat unnatural, not very well chosen. A lot of intuition that could come from physics, an extra simplicity gained from using physics concepts seems to be somewhat disregarded. For example conservation of energy is proved for the gravitational case rather than as a property of conservative forces. Don't trust me though. I might be wrong
I see
I thought it was nearly impossible to predict long-term orbits due to the three body problem
But now I hear thereโs a whole file devoted to it
Field*
I mean sure. But you can always add extra restrictions. Like a 2 body problem. Or for example moon-earth-sun is a three body problem and I think the mass of the moon is considered approximately 0 and that helps out. (unless I misunderstood my teacher. Because it does seem weird to consider the mass of the moon to be 0 when the earth is not so, so radically heavier than the moon)
Well yeah. She told me a very interesting thing today. If you have a satellite around some body (say the earth). Orbiting in an elipse. And you want the satellite to orbit in some other different ellipse. How can you change from one to the other?
If the problem is too hard you just have to avoid it. All you can do for the hard cases is get approximations. And you do have to develop some fancy math for those approximations, like perturbation theory and stuff
Numerical analysis
Hm. Just imagine one ellipse on the solar system, and another ellipse on the solar system. I'm trying to find a video
They're homotopic to each other so they're already the same, topological answer
Well, that makes sense
@fallow edge I wish I could find a better example but this is one
This LabRat video is a companion to the classroom lesson that can be found at LabRatScientific.com in the future. It briefly discusses the concept of how to ...
I just find it to be a super elegant solution. I thought it was cool
If you really want an intuition for that stuff... play Kerbal Space Program.
https://xkcd.com/1356/ <-- It's funny, because it's true.
I do actually play that
Iโve heard that it has fixed spheres of influence though, so itโs definitely not a perfect simulation
True
Is there a simple equation for lines in 3d space?
Like for planes there's y=mx+c
Or do you just use parametric equations for 3d
In 3d, it is far more likely that any two given lines do not intersect than that they do.
In the diagram A is the point (-1,3) and B is the point (3,1). the line L1 passes through A and is parallel to OB the line L2 passes through B and is perpendicular to AB the lines L1 and L2 meets at C. Find C
ye
A light weight satellite orbiting around earth elliptically MUST have earth as on of is focci? Right?
It's just keplers laws for two bodies
Yes.
Thanks mate!
<@&286206848099549185> How can you find the area of a regular pentagon. without using trigonometry to solve for angles with no exact value? (or rather no calculator)
(1/2)a*p
Where a and p are apothem and perimeter respectively
If you know the length of one of the sides, multiply it by 5 to get your perimeter, and with that its pretty easy to find the apothem with triangles
But that involves trig :/
well, you could do stuff with golden ratios
could you do something with the length of the points to the center (or centroid)?
if you can find that without trig, sure
You can get the exact value for sin(72) and cos(72) without a calculator.
It's just tricksy
@zenith ember http://puu.sh/AZLBY/96148487fa.jpg
I'm not sure how I could do this. it's a triangle that has 150 degrees in the inside
how would I know what the side angles are?
I feel like I'm forgetting some key formula
@hollow edge
the question is whether the angle is bigger than 30 or not
yeah
not entirely sure. it appears to be smaller
but
I can't prove it
i mean
d is the only alteernative imo
but it's strange logic
since triangle has 150
visually, you can draw a 30 degree line from the very beginning
u cannot have any angl 30 or greeateer
cause if one side is 30 or more
then 150 + 30 + third angle = 180
impossible
so 25 is the only one that would work
but it sounds janky as fuck
lolz
yeah i think you got it
the answer must be within the range 0~30 degrees
and D is the only one
lol
happens a lot in math where the answer ends up being a lot easier than expected
i hate questions like that
how do i do this
like divide by 2 see where that takes you
@grim lion haven't done geometry in a while, but you could've tried making a parallelogram using the parallelogram law
how the goemetrical shapes have an equation. like circle,parabola,ellipse.
What do you mean?
they are the set of points that satisfy an equation @static bronze
i mean how can they formulated the equations from the geometry of shapes on what,which bases they are deriving the equations.
the definition of a circle is "the set of points that are a fixed distance away from the center"
the equation for distance is sqrt(x^2 + y^2)
let's say the center is the origin
and the "fixed distance" is r
then the set of points that distance away can be represented as "the set of points satisfying the equation sqrt(x^2 + y^2) = r"
What is the difference between a vector and a line segment?
You can use a vector to represent a line segment. Not all vectors are line segments
Why. Any question in mind?
I'm learning how to be a game developer.
And there's something about vectors.
Now what's the difference between magnitude and length?
Vectors have an addition, you can take any two, add them together, and get a new vector
Line segments can't do that
So you cannot add two lengths and get one length?
yeah but thats a scalar quantity
1 dimensional
not good for game development haha
if you go north 1 meter and go east one meter after that, the total distance you have traveled would be 2 meters, but as a vector you would take the shortest path
Hi can I get a rigorous definition of a pseudo vector?
I need a couple of hard geometry finals practice tests pls send if u guys found any
What level? (Uni, high school, middle school) etc.
I have a 40m sphere. On an 'infinite' graph, what are the possibilities of a 1x1x1 brick being in the sphere. I hope I've explained this clear enough. I need a function/formula for always getting the brick in the sphere. If anyone could help, that'd be great.
^ Imagine it in the same space as kind of like 3B1B's Putnam problem
Point Z is on side PR of triangle PQR such that m<PZQ = m<PQZ, and m<PQR - m<PRQ = 42. Find m<RQZ
quick sanity check: for the last sentence, we would need the regular value to be in F(U), not just R^m (so we need a non-trivial regular value).
consider the contrapositive with n=1,m=2 and F(x)=(x,0). then (0,1) is a regular value, contradicting their conclusion that there are no such regular values
you're correct
Hmm... Middle school, Lemme check if I have any
(The maths taught is quite advanced compared to most countries)
Nope.... I think I threw all of them out
can someone give me a quick rundown of vectors?
The vectors live in a vector space.
okay
but like what EXACTLY are they
the stuff online doesnt really help me grasp the whole concept
look at the wiki page for euclidean vectors
that's probably what you want, but vectors are more general than that
real answer is that first you have a vector space, then vectors are elements of the set the vector space is defined over
ok...
how would you show vectors on paper?
and what are they used for?
like ik its used for physics and geometry but
do you know if you want to know about euclidean vectors (like in hs physics) or general vectors like in math?
And everything can be a vector space that satisfies certain criteria.
OK, those you can draw as arrows, add them by connecting tip to tail, and multiply with scalars by stretching them
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vector_space - look for "axioms"
To qualify as a vector space, the set V and the operations of addition and multiplication must adhere to a number of requirements called axioms.
o
the point of euclidean vectors is to have a direction and a length/magnitude
Don't go all formal right out of the gate...
yeah those axioms are satisfied by euclidean vectors, but they are also much more general
and euclidean vectors have a dot product as well anyway
in physics
representations?
of things moving
like
lets say you throw a ball
and you wanted to represent that on a 3d graph
would you use a vector?
Yes
uh kinda?
and if you want to calculate the amount of force needed for it to higher you could mess with the vector?
you would use a vector to represent the velocity of the ball at any single point in time
or the force acting on it
No
hmm ok
Not euclidean vectors
you represent the trajectory as a sequence of vectors, not a single one
although you don't actually use vectors for position really
Eh. Sometimes
ok
more like a function from time to position, which is just undecorated R^3
(cause adding positions is meaningless)
okay
I mean, vectors in 3d graphics are used for positioning objects.
thats what i need it for actually
im learning some programming and im trying to use vectors
This is a big topic...
yeah i just wish there was some place that would simplify it
what is and isn't a vector is a mathematical distinction, which goes out the window in CG
And I think it's worth learning properly.
okay
alright ill check it out
thanks for the help
i guess sometimes advanced is too advanced
There is also a 3blue1brown series on the essence of linear algebra. I haven't watched it, but I've heard others say it is good.
That may be helpful.
oh yeah actually 3b1b is excellent for this
^^^
alright thanks
Just watched that first video. Pretty good intro.
yeah I love that series
Anyone here familiar with the discontinuous action of a group on a manifold? I'm trying to work out how this induces a differential structure on the quotient manifold and I'm having some trouble with a technical point.
so this is the relevant part of do carmo, my question is with the very last claim. I can see why this is true:
=tex \text{for each } p_2 \in X_2(W) \text{ there exists a unique } g \in G \text{ such that } \pi_1^{-1}\circ \pi_2(p_2) = gp_2.
I'm having trouble proving that's there's one g which makes this equality hold on all of X_2(W). Anyone have any ideas?
If p_1 and p_2 are equivalent then there is g such that p_2 = gp_1.
yeah I get that. I want to say pi_1^{-1} \circ pi_2(p) = g(p), but how do I know it's the same g in the entire domain?
how does one act with an entire group G on a point p?
is the result the set of points {gp | g in G}?
also what is pi | U in this context?
so we have a group G, acting on a manifold M. We first require that the map taking p to gp is smooth for each g in G
we're considering a discontinuous action, which means that for each point p in M, there is a neighborhood U such that g(U) is disjoint from U
this basically makes the action faithful
then we quotient out by the orbit of the action, so p1 is equivalent to p2 if p1 = gp2 for some g in G
we call the set of equivalence classes induced by this relation M/G
pi is just the canonical projection from M to M/G, so pi | U is the restriction of pi to an open set U in M
Okay yeah I do see the concern, do Carmo does it for a point and just says "It follows easily"
always a trap lol
So we already know that pi_i is continuous, yeah?
I'm wondering if that coupled with the fact that the action of G is discontinuous does it
So like, you sorta say okay, assume that for a different point also in that neighborhood g' is what does it for you, then somehow take tiny neighborhoods where g and g' send it to disjoint stuff
I think so
and we also know g(U) and h(U) should be disjoint if g is not equal to h
Err, for some small enough U, yeah
g maps a n'hood U of p_1 diffeomorphically to a n'hood V of p_2 (excuse my differing notation).
If for some other point q in U we have hq in V, then g^(-1)hq is in U. So by discontinuity, h=g.
oh I see it
(essentially what you guys were saying above, just slightly different phrasing)
Well that's a convenient way to show that RP^n is a manifold
Np, good practice for me. I didn't take any good formal manifolds courses in undergrad so I mostly taught myself this stuff, and often skipped the somewhat technical/dreary stuff like this.
Sorta same, my difftop prof didn't really want to get too technical so everything was in R^n, etc
And he'll be teaching big boy difftop next year, wonder how that'll go
Yeah my first geometry course was classical diffgeom of curves and surfaces in the style of do carmos book with that title pretty much, so more emphasis on computations of curvature etc. abstract manifold stuff was all on me to learn when I needed it.
I remember it being a headache to get used to the way of thinking
but after "getting" the way charts and invariant objects work its nice, and you don't get bogged down anymore.
Makes sense
wait so are the distance between these two points 6, or sqrt(37)? because using the formula its sqrt(37) but logically 6 makes better sense.
but 0^2=1
o wait fuck
yeah just realized
jesus i can be stupid sometimes, thanks @ebon vapor
= p
So obviously a Straw has one hole, but if you took a straw and poked a needle through it (two layers of plastic) then how many holes would a straw have?
3
Because the one hole goes all the way through, similar to the one it started out with
Shrink the straw into a donut
It's still the same p much right?
1 hole going through
now the holes made by the pin will create two holes on opposite sides of the donut
Unlike the original hole they're in no way connected
Ok
If that makes sense?
So then does that mean that a t-shirt has 3 holes then? If you had a fabric that you could stretch and bend to your hearts desire then could you not form this 3 holes straw into a shape resembling a t-shirt?
Urm yeah
I guess so
in a topological mind set
If you're ignoring all of the weird creases and stuff
and you make the tshirt into a tube
with the two arm holes being holes in the sides of the tube
So then topologically speaking a t-shirt only has 3 holes then
I guess so
do the other holes go through the shirt completely?
Yea
Then yes
Ok thank you
Another question, if somebody got shot with a bullet, but it doesnโt go all the way through, is it still considered a hole
Because I got into a debate about this with my dad
Or
More exactly
In topology
"A hole in a mathematical object is a topological structure which prevents the object from being continuously shrunk to a point. When dealing with topological spaces, a disconnectivity is interpreted as a hole in the space."
So no
It's more of a crater type thing
Well he said that a straw has two holes, so if the bullet goes in you thatโs one, and if it goes all the way through you youโd had two
Exactly
technically the human body is genus 1 cuz the the digestive system runs continuously to two openings
"technically"
But it can be continuously deformed
All life on earth, begins as the sacred topology: the torus.
Although now That I think about it this might not be 7
Why not
The only thing that would change that
Is if the holes don't pass out on the other side
You donโt know if the hole is the back is two small holes aligned with the front, or it could just be one big hole in the back
Maybe
If this is a question given to you though
From some school or whatever
You'd hope they wouldn't leave ambiguities like that
No, i saw it online
ah oke
Could be
lmao
Anyway @shadow anvil and @jagged oracle thanks guys
np
A friend of mine just actually raised an interesting point
If you consider the shirt to be homeomorphic to a sphere
Then it has 4 holes
(A normal shirt not the one with holes)
i suppose it depends whether you consider a straw to be a sphere with 2 holes or a torus
Is it thicc
i can see the logic for both
Yeah
I guess you could take either route
What would be correct though
I guess torus tbh given it's a shirt
It's gonna have thickness
Just found this
Or rather my friend did
ah, so really we need to find how many holes are in a t-shirt because it's made of cloth
lmao
many
But are they actually holes
The fabric isn't a continuous sheet
They're actually just ropes winding
and tangled
but now
This is scaling way out of control and nobody really cares ๐
So I'm going to walk away
So then taking into account the thickness of the cloth strands, what would the collection of cloth be homeomorphic to? Can we ignore the holes in the shirt at this micro-scale?
Both
Torus and sphere
I'd say torus though
Is the winner
just because thickness
but still
Either works
Yeah thatโs what I think as well
easiest way for me to think about T-shirt problems is to take the waist hole and stretch it out all the way to infinity, so the shirt is now a flat plane with some holes in it, maybe with shirt arms reaching up to some of them
if you do this, a T-shirt clearly has n-1 holes where n is the number of different openings (ie, equivalence classes of paths you could take from over the shirt plane to under it which are homeomorphic without intersecting the shirt)
Think I asked this a couple days ago but here we go again
On an infinite 2D graph with a circle plotted on it, points are randomly dotted against the whole graph. How can I make it so they are always dotted inside the circle?
consider only points with radius less than that of the circle?
how are you generating points
Solved ^
Let PA and PB be tangents to a given circle with P outside the circle. Draw a line through A parallel to PB such that it intersects the circle again at C. PC intersects the circle once more at D. Prove that AD extended bisects PB.
(prove PM=MB here)
<@&286206848099549185>
this is cool
@rugged moat why? angle bisector isn't the same as a median
jazza well in an isoceles triangle yes
@hard gale I think he meant in the diagram here
Also, PAB is isosceles but the line comes from the vertex A not p
Actually, what happens if you extend AC to D such that DAPB is a parallelogram
or rhombus in this case
And then extend DB and AM to meet at X
How could we prove that PMA is congruent to BMX? That would imply PM=MB as desired.
Please ping me if you can help
PAM BAM
nice
sry I went out for something for a bit
I'm guessing you use the fact that PAM = ACD
I got to AB = BC
Equivalent to proving angle APB = acos(1/4)
why
no
the answer doesn't depend on the angle
you could construct this with any angle for APB
AP . BP = ||AP|| ||BP|| cos(PAB) = 2Lcos(PAB). 2Lcos(PAB) = 1/2 L => cos(PAB) = 1/4 ?
no @rugged moat I don't think so
y tho
angles have a literal meaning
the arc length along a unit circle
length (or ratios of lengths) are real
@tiny sphinx I don't follow
define L
PB?
Dot the vector A - P onto the vector B - P.
||A - P|| = L
||B - P|| = L
(A - P) . (B - P) = 2Lcos(PAB)
2Lcos(PAB) = L/2 => cos(PAB) = 1/4 => PAB = acos(1/4)
PM?
length isn't imaginary
no lmao
y tho
Sure, I can't comprehend it
t!wiki Euclidian distance
But it should mean something
๐ | ** https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euclidean_distance **
the idea of "length"
We can just say that it is not a concept definable by Euclidean geometry?
that's like saying "2.3 stair steps" should mean something
Maybe
I think I have come up with my goal in life
To prove that imaginary angles and lengths exists
congrats now your life is meaningless

@tiny sphinx where tf did you get 2L
you dot vectors, not scalars
I think my mistake is assuming the line is perpendicular
||A - P|| is a scalar
That's a typo
where did 2L come from though
Dot the vector A - P onto the vector B - P.
||A - P|| = L
||B - P|| = L
(A - P) . (B - P) = L^2cos(PAB)
L^2cos(PAB) = L/2 => cos(PAB) = 1/2L => PAB = acos(1/2L)
This is wrong though
shouldn't that be L^2
where'd you get L/2
how can you say that the dot product is equal to the length of PM?
Only if AM is perpendicular to AC, right?
I don't know what you're saying, but I'm convinced I made a mistake anyway
I mean the equality depends on what "unit" you use for length
Equality of what?
it doesn't hold if you scale the entire thing
of your equation
that seems to be randomly put together
g/s works?
Or should I use V/m
All I can intuit is that APB is an isosceles triangle, but I can't even prove that.
It just seems that if it's not, PA and PB wont be tangent
it is
you can prove it by using the center
and proving that two triangles are congruent
PAO and PBO
when O is the center
therefore AP = BP
How do you prove they're congruent?
I see that ABO has two sides of length r
Oh
I see
PAO and PBO both have sides of length r and... k
And I guess we can assume PO bisects APB
So SSA
Wait
Why can I assume that
Tangent lines make right angles to radii
Oh, so I get those two right angles
It implies that PAO and PBO are also right angles
So the triangles both have right angles and have sides of length r and PO
SSA
Don't think SSA, because in general that's similarity, not congruence.
But for right triangles, we can use Pythagoras to find the missing side.
If two triangles are similar and have two sides of the same length, then doesn't the last side have to be the same length?
well
It says SSA applies to definition of congruence
Oh, no it doesn't
you need additional information
"The SSA condition (Side-Side-Angle) which specifies two sides and a non-included angle (also known as ASS, or Angle-Side-Side) does not by itself prove congruence."
Right. That was my point
I remember it due to the ASS ordering.
But since the angle in question is a right angle, we know the sides are equal as you said due to the pythagorean theorem
Yes
I'm working on it
How do you know AB and BC are equal?
Hm, I got that AB and AC are equal by a different way
I think I'm done for now. Let me know if you figure it out
Kinda just procrastinated not figuring much out
After drawing AB, CB, and DB and angle chasing a lot with the inscribed triangles and all, we've got a lot of similar triangles
which i think combining that w/ ptolemys might do the trick?
eg, we have that MDB and BPC are similar
and PDM, CDA
AMB, BMD, CBD
How do you get that MDB and BPC are similar?
One sec, I'll go back and retrace my steps
I do see that ABC is similar to PAB
oh oops, i think i typoed that one
ugh why is my handwriting bad lol
ok total similar trianlges i see: PDM~CDA, ABM~BDM~CDB, PBD~BAD~PCB
and thena lso the PAB to BAC
Looks right, but I haven't proved all of those
Anyway, I think your strategy is right
You can use the quad ACBD to apply Ptolemy's theorem
yeah
i just don't wanna bash out the similar triangles w/ ptolemys
but something there should end up cancelling
I'm sure at some point you can get 2MB = PB
i just wonder if there's a cleaner way
yeah its just a matter of getting there
i wonder if it would be possible to just snow from teh similars that pm = mb but idk if that'll be possible
I didn't know about this theorem. I wouldn't have figured it out
Oh, yeah, maybe you can show PM = MB too
I'm sleepy
I'm going to check back for the spoiler when I wake up ๐
By circle geometry I assume he means the alternate segment theorem
<@&286206848099549185> Could someone help? My question is posted above
maybe tangent-secant theorem? idk if things will simplify down though
i think it'll work out if you can prove that CD = 2AD (or PD = 2MD), but i can't see how to prove that
@thin wasp what was your approach exactly?
I have a geometry problem. I found a paper for computing the soft shadow of a sphere occluder and sphere light analytically here: https://sourceforge.net/p/stellarium/mailman/attachment/CALF0saQECTyXqoS%3D%3DG1g54zE2medxgTQiju-Awdv3aqU2zg%2Bhg@mail.gmail.com/2/
To determine how much the light is occluded from point p, the method projects the spheres onto a hemisphere of radius 1 around p, scaling the spheres by their distance from p. From here, it treats the spheres as circles on a plane and computes the overlap.
I am interested in finding the area overlapped by the intersection of two spheres (purple volume) and a sphere light. How can I extend the above method to solve this problem? I'd like to know alternative easier methods too.
?
What are you trying to do
h needs to be equal to g
yeah
Why a circle?
because they need to have the same length and a circle is shows you all the points a certain distance apart from each other.
Then triangle CAB is congruent to triangle ACB
Hence angle CAB is equal to angle ACB
It says 2 sides in the exercise?
...
Im talking about 2 triangles
CAB and ACB
They are equal
Because 2 sides are equal
ohh





