#advanced-algebra
1 messages · Page 2 of 1
not familiar with universal algebras. idk how true this is in general, though. im sure you could argue that things like field extensions give you a lot of info.
i feel like in topology it can go both ways; quotient spaces can tell you quite a bit, but similarly if you know about what spaces the one you are interested embeds into
Field extensions yes
But I have the intuition that quotients of an algebra in general tell more about it than the subalgebras
i can see that
Well it’s like
Given you have a first iso theorem
Quotients of an algebra tell you about mapping out of it
Subalgebras tell you about mapping into it
Yes
Since every homomorphism can be decomposed as a quotient, followed by an isomorphism, followed by a subalgebra inclusion
Quotients can be studied using congruence relations and that admits a much richer theory than subalgebras so I'm probably biased
Sometimes I like to visualise this as a spider diagram
I know model theory has a lot to say about embeddings, so maybe it's just smt algebra
Where your algebra has a bunch of outgoing “quotient” arrows
And incoming “subalgebra” arrows
Like a spider
🕷️
And then to map one algebra to another, you just have to find a quotient of one that matches a subalgebra of the other
Then it still depends on the isomorphism chosen
Mhm
The quotient and subalgebra are canonical, but what actually determine the mapping is the precise isomorphism chisen
Mhm mhm
Obligatory @woven loom ping
Lmao
thanks guys!
is the last condition saying that there is just any arbitrary split extension? it means the obvious SES is split, right?
i agree that if there is some split exact sequence 1 -> N -> G -> H -> 1, then G is the inner semidirect product of the image of N and the image of H in G
but is the existence of a split exact sequence 1 -> N -> G -> H -> 1 equivalent to saying that there is a split exact sequence of the same form where N -> G is the inclusion and G -> H is a left inverse of the inclusion H -> G is exact?
unironically this is what I use Obsidian for (although I'm really bad about updating my Obsidian with things I find so I still miss alot)
I'm trying to understand how we can apply LES in homology to derived functors. after taking projective resolutions of M' M and M'' in 0->M'->M->M''->0, don't we need the Pi's to be connected in SES's too, so that we have a SES of chain complexes and then after applying the functor we can use the LES in homology?
You use what Weibel calls the horseshoe lemma
I.e. that you can get a SES of projective esolutions from the original SES
@limpid horizon
Do we need to repeatedly use lifting property of projectives sort of thing?
Yeah to prove that lemma
Woe
i guess what i am asking is, is there an example of a group G with two subgroups N and H such that G is isomorphic to the an outer semidirect product of N and H, but is not the internal semidirect product of N and H?
I suppose you mean "an" outer semidirect product of N and H
yes, sorry
i guess like, you make the action trivial? and just take a normal N such that NH isn't G or N and H have non-trivial intersection?
Z2xZ2 is isomorphic to some outer semidirect product of Z2x1 and Z2x1 but is not the inner semidirect product of em
:P
lol
does that answer this question?
It means that precisely the canonical SES splits
Hm nevermind I see what you're asking
yea, like, if i have any such splitting, does the cannonical one split?
well, i mean the map N -> G is the inclusion
i don't care what the map G -> H does outside of N
Yes, it answers the question, you need specifically for the projection map in the split SES to be the identity on H
Only then is G the inner semidirect product of N and H
It is lmao
but the map N -> G doesn't need to be the cannonical inclusion?
or does p also need to kill the right copy of N in G?
yea, it has to be latter. otherwise, we can use the same example with Z2 x Z2 and just swap the factors that Z2 x 0 goes to
The map from G to Q could be thought of (at least in some of the contexts where this arises) as a map that "forgets" part of the data stored in an element of G. So elements of G "extend" elements of Q with more data. (An OK-ish example: let G = Gal(L/K) and Q = Gal(E/K) for L/E/K and L/K finite Galois extensions. Then G → Q literally forgets what an element of G maps all the elements of L\E to.)
But this is a bit vague and at the end of the day it's just language: you can think of it as an arbitrary choice of words they made for saying "let G be a group with a normal subgroup isomorphic to N such that the quotient is isomorphic to Q".
IIRC this is actually a special case of that (but with N not normal, so Q = G/N is just a set), where G is the group of unit quaternions and N is the subgroup of unit complex numbers.
The last condition should mean that there exists pi: G → H st (i) the thing they wrote (where N → G is the inclusion and G → H is pi) is an SES (ii) the SES is split by the inclusion map H → G specifically.
Let ( P ) be an irreducible polynomial over ( \mathbb{F}p ) of degree ( d \geq 2 ) that, over ( \mathbb{F}{p^n} ),
for some fixed ( n > 1 ), has a root ( \alpha ). Is it true that the degree of the minimal
polynomial of ( \alpha ) over ( \mathbb{F}_{p^n} ) is ( \frac{d}{\gcd(d, n)} )?
Slomenist
Yes, I think this follows from F_p^n(\alpha) having degree lcm(d, n) over F_p
Why Q can't be a finitely-generated Z algebra?
Meaning there is no surjective Z-algebra morphism between Z[x1,...xn] and Q, n is any natural number.
I can prove it for n=1. But the proof for n>1 isn't too neat. Is there an easier way to see this? Some elegant argument?
Pretty sure you can do like: given a map, you can find a finite set of primes S such that x_i is sent to a_i/b_i and b_i is only divisible by stuff in S. Then the image is contained in Z[1/S]
I remember a funny proof which i think works: if Z[x1,...,xn] -> Q is a surjection then the kernel m is maximal, and by the theory of Jacobson rings m cap Z is maximal. But then m cap Z contains a nonzero prime p of Z and so p= 0 in Q
That was illuminating. Thank you.
How does one develop the mathematical maturity to come up with such proofs? How are you able to?
Lol im thinking the same thing
I dunno if im good enough to continue it anymore tbh
Going to go out on a limb and say : practice and experience
I’m sure when you started your UG you’d say the same about the proofs you write now, learning is a lifelong thing
It also kinda goes both ways, I regularly look back at problems I did 6+ months ago and wonder how tf did I come up with that?
You just kinda need to be thinking about these things enough
Nah I'm just built different
holy fawk...
But ye idk it's just some experience of playing around w these objects and things
And luck
Even if you're very knowledgeable and experienced there are some problems you just don't get, just because of chance
Fair, I failed to consider this
i think just keep building your bag of tricks
problems that aren't just straight from the definition usually rely on a certain construction,observation or more generally a "trick". the more u see those the more u get better and u keep building this bag of tricks.. eventually you may even create your own tricks 😄
Is the following result true?
Let $G_1, G_2$ be topological groups and $U \subseteq G_1 \times G_2$ an open subgroup. Then $U = U_1 \times U_2$ as sets, where $U_1$ and $U_2$ are open. Is it true that $U_1, U_2$ are (sub)groups and $U = U_1 \times U_2$ as groups? If not, does it change anything if we additionally assume that $U$ is normal and of finite index?
jp
Why is U = U_1 x U_2?
Because $G_1 \times G_2$ carries the product topology.
jp
Right but not every open subset of the product topology is of the form U_1 x U_2
Those just form a basis
Oh shoot, I see. I need to refresh from my topology lecture. Thanks.
Np 
This is also true for groups: not every subgroup of a product of groups is a product of subgroups
Though it's certainly true that the product of subgroups is a subgroup
Every ideal of a product of (commutative?) rings is a product of ideals though
it also works for subrings?
me only knew about ideals, and never thought about subrings
i'm aware of a result like this for (prime) ideals
Or ideal maybe sorry
product of primes is not a prime
yeah
because it's an ideal sheaf on Spec 
alg nt is a lot about studying subrings of the ring of algebraic integers
ooh cool
but you can equivalently say it's studying nice ring extensions of ℤ
but yee rings good 
"used" might not be the best word because it's the type of object we're looking at. if you study rings, then naturally you would want to study maps of rings, and thus in particular maps which are injective.
but whenever one studies a nice algebraic object, it's also nice to see if it acts on something. in this case, studying modules over a ring are also very nice, and a special class of modules are the submodules of the ring itself which gives you the ideals.
they have more structure so we can play with them a lil more.
and this is a good moment to put the shameless plug about prime factorization of ideals in a dedekind domain
:p
ah gotcha
yea my bad i guess by "used" i just meant like the word itself
i should read some alg nt sometime
yea i just don't wanna give false hopes >.<
there's some cool geometry in it too
what do you mean by this
Sometimes you just simply don’t see the path. There could be a clever trick you just never spot, something like that
I’ve heard the name quite a lot, but what is “higher algebra” about, big-picture-wise?
I assume it’s somehow related to higher category theory
The term usually means doing algebra with oo-categories like derived categories (which you can think of as enhancements of abelian categories) and the oo-category of spectra (which is a homotopy theory thing)
Like there are many precise analogues between this oo-categories of spectra and the category of abelian groups, so you can consider rings, modules etc
More generally you can study oo-operads, monads and things
What is a derived category
how much homological algebra do you know? like chain complexes or stuff
0 unfortunately 😭
Hm i do not really know how to describe this well then sorry
but the upshot is that given an abelian category A you can associate a category D(A) and often it is more convenient to work in the latter - derived categories are super important in lots of algebra and related subjects (and have been for over half a century)
Oh ok I looked up the def
Seems reasonable enough…?
Functors out of the derived category naturally correspond to functors out of the category of chain complexes which send quasi-isomorphisms to isomorphisms
I assume
So I suppose you’re trying to capture the idea of “functors that only depend on the homology groups” without destroying the structure of the chain complexes…?
yeah like you often want to remember more about the chain complex than just the groups so you have to use this notion of quasiiso
But still the idea that, if two chain complexes have the same homology, and moreover this is witnessed by a chain map, then your functor should give isomorphic outputs?
Ye
That actually seems pretty well-motivated
Hm what are derived functors then
I see on Wikipedia that derived categories are useful in the study of D modules, do you know anything about that? (I only know the basics of homalg and of D-modules so even if you do I may not follow lol)
This sort of situation is arguably at the heart of homotopy theory
What situation?
Basically they take functors which aren’t exact and make them so, more specifically it tells you how far your original thing was from being exact
(Idk what being exact is)
Ah
Like having a bunch of equivalences you want to invert
Ah sure but that’s just, like, localisation right
Indeed but doing it in a controlled way and stuff
Preserving finite limits and colimits
Finite limits and finite colimits, or finite lim is and arbitrary colimits?
The former
Is there some paper or website with a table of second cohomology groups of irreducible modules of finite simple groups?
Anyone have any good resources on an infinite dimensional geometric algebra? I can't seem to find much thats very useful
- You're a category theory fan, but haven't heard of derived functors before?
- In this context, being exact means “sends exact sequences to exact sequences”. Derived functors measure how far a left (resp. right) exact functtor fails to be right (resp. left) exact.
- yes, what’s the issue?
Also I know what exact means now dw
I said this because @fierce steeple said something about limits and colimits, but if I recall correctly, that's an unrelated notion of exactness.
Yes it’s equivalent in additive categories
You can define “exact” more generally as preserving finite limits and finite colimits
How does one compute all the “invariant tensors” of a group?
I remember one of my physics courses using the result that all the invariant tensors of SO(3) can be built up from the kronecker delta and the Levi-civita epsilon
I’m not quite sure how one would prove this
How would one go about proving the diagram chase lemmas in homological algebra (Snake, 5-lemma, zigzag etc) for an arbitrary abelian category
The proofs I've seen in Mod_A always pick elements but thats not possible in a general category
Like for 5-lemma you pick an element of C' and chase it around the diagram until you reach a preimage in C
There are a few different ways you can do it.
You can use something like Mitchell-embedding or the Yonedas embedding to reduce it to abelian groups.
Or you can use pullbacks and pushouts and universal properties where you would normally use preimages and images
These notes contains such a proof of the snake lemma for example
https://opperman.folk.ntnu.no/HomAlg.pdf
(page 45)
Just to draw the parallel here, even if you surrender,
The crucial idea here is that, since a2 is the cokernel of a1, then a2-hat will be the cokernel of a1-hat.
Once you have this, everything is just a normal diagram chase. The map i3-hat just describes all those elements that can be chased from Kerf3 to A3 back to A2.
Then the dual situation happens at the bottom. A map to this pushout that vanishes when composed with b2-hat is really a map to Cokf1, since that's the kernel of b2-hat.
Yeah as Pseudo says, it's the same thing in additive categories. I said that definition cause it works more generally and I thought Pseudo would like it more lol
Ah...
you were correct :>
Hi, I know this isn't exactly the proper channel for it however I'm doing a course on groups and rings and I really need help with some set of problems
if anyone got time to help me i'd be very grateful, it should be pretty elementary
For intro algebra the channel is the groups-rings-fields one
And you can also just post whatever question u have there
If you have a Lie or algebraic group $G$, you can find the left $G$-invariant vector fields on $G$ by differentiating the action of $G$ on itself by left translation, denoted $\lambda_g : G \to G$ for each $g \in G$. Then every left $G$-invariant vector field $X$ can be recovered from its value at the identity $X_e \in T_eG$, and conversely, every vector $v \in T_eG$ can be uniquely extended to a left $G$-invariant vector field $X$ such that $X_e = v$, simply by setting $X_g = d\lambda_g(v)$, where $d\lambda_g : T_eG \to T_gG$ is the differential of the aforementioned $\lambda_g$.
Similarly, you can find all the left $G$-invariant differential $1$-forms on $G$ by taking elements $w \in T_e^\star G$ and setting $\alpha_g = (d\lambda_{g^{-1}})^\star(w)$, where $(d\lambda_{g^{-1}})^\star : T_e^\star G \to T_g^\star G$ is the dual of $d\lambda_{g^{-1}} : T_gG \to T_eG$. And, again similarly, you can find the left $G$-invariant tensor fields on $G$ by taking elements of $T_eG \otimes \dots \otimes T_eG \otimes T_e^\star G \otimes \dots \otimes T_e^\star G$ and applying the appropriately tensored $d\lambda_g \otimes \dots \otimes d\lambda_g \otimes (d\lambda_{g^{-1}})^\star \otimes \dots \otimes (d\lambda_{g^{-1}})^\star$.
If you want a concrete coordinate representation, then I guess you need to fiddle with the structure constants of the Lie algebra structure on $T_eG$, but this is more differential geometry than abstract algebra anyway.
Eduardo León
How does this show that Hi(_ (x) C) are the right derived functors of that
and why do we need to show that its 0 for any injective R mod I
Tbh, im just trying to figure out what i even need to figure out atm
I guess, what does it take to show a functor is the same as the right derived functor of blank
Ok smth to do with delta functors
@rose mirage et al: is there a ring-theoretic interpretation of Clifford theory? I imagine there may be some way to extend Clifford's theorem (and other results in the theory) to twisted group algebras, or perhaps semisimple algebras with a group action. Curious if you know.
I ask you specifically, Wew, because I imagine this is how it works for blocks
well for blocks it's kind of annoying - there are nice results about restriction of Brauer characters to normal subgroups when those characters belong to a block B of G that "covers" a block B' of a normal subgroup (specifically, B covering B' is equaivalent to all irreducible constituents of chi in B restricted to N lying in a G-conjugate of B') but there's no guarantee this happens in general (it's only guarenteed to happen afaik when G/N is a p-group, then for any block of N there is a unique block of G that covers it)
I'll think more about the semisimple case
quickly scanning https://www.researchgate.net/publication/226508357_Twisted_group_algebras_and_Clifford_extensions it seems like it could be useful for you
Why is that line true
The “and so” makes me think it has something to do with m adic topology. I havent learned that yet so idk
It follows from the paragraph above
like the idea is that if a family F generates the m-adic topology, you can just use the "opens" to detect when things are annihilated
Ok, so I do need to read up on m adic topology for this?
Atiyah-Macdonald chapter 10 has some stuff on I-adic topology
ig if you don't know what I-adic rings are you should probably look into that
it's in any commutative algebra text
I recommend matsumura
Thx guys
Is (x^k) the ideal generated by x1^k, x2^k … etc
Yeah
ye it seems they are using notation (s) for sequences s and then this fits into that
and then Ry to Rxy "adds" x to the localization, and Rz to Rxy is 0. so in C2, the differential in total will result in (r1/x^n1)/y^m1 - (r2/y^n2)/x^m2 in that Rxy component ?
so Rx to Rxy is just r/x^m to ... what element of Rxy?
Im sorry if im all over the place. For some reason this has been very difficult for me to parse
Just as r goes to r/1 in a localizationc r/x^m goes to (r/x^m)/1
Or in this case just r/x^m
Which can be identified with an element of Rxy? Is the multiplicativity closed subset generated by x and y? I thought it was generated by xy so denominators are like (xy)^m
Yeah but you can just clear the y^m in the top
So yeah if you want you can throw in some power of y in the numerator and denominator
Actually not even needed, since in R -> R_x you can identify r with r/x^0 = r/1
Similarly for Rx -> Rxy, use the map in up of localization
It means this but both x and y are invertible in R_xy
The inverse of x/1 is y/xy
(R_x)_y is isomorphic to R_xy
If this isnt clear, do this exercise from Atiyah-Macdonald chapter 3
ill do it. thanks
Regarding ideals and modules, I have heard that modules are a sort of generalization of ideals. So why do we still dive into the theory of ideals, and not just talk about modules? Is there a clear example where it is helpful to think about these sets as ideals rather than modules?
Because ideals can be multiplied and modules cannot
Also ideals are a special case of modules in the way that fields are a special case of rings, they’re still interesting on their own and have specific interesting properties.
It’s not a generalisation in the sense that it makes studying ideals obsolete or anything, it’s not like you’re studying a specific object as opposed to a general one if that makes sense (like studying Z/5Z as opposed to any ring, or Z/nZ)
It's a generalisation in the sense that the submodules of R are ideals, and can fruitfully be considered as such
Much like how universal algebra is a generalisation of specific algebraic structures, it doesn't make sense to treat, e.g. groups, purely from the lens of universal algebra, and disregard the properties that make groups "groups"
I’m trying to read Humphreys’ book “Introduction to Lie Algebras and Representstion theory but I’m having trouble understanding the family C_l which begins on the bottom of page 2.
to start, how is f(v, w) defined?
Standard construction sending a matrix M to a bilinear form given by (v,w) -> v^TMw
Thanks!
What exactly is the bracket operation here? Is it [f(x(v),w)]= f(x(v),w)-f(w,x(v))
Take J a subset of S (simple reflections). I want to prove that the parabolic subgroup (S_n)J = S_n x S(n-k)
The textbook I'm reading even says it's Stab([k]) which I don't get either
So consider the root system A_{n-1} with Weyl group S_n, generated by S = { (1 2), ..., (n-1 n) }. Then for any subset J ⊆ S, if S \ J = { (i_1 i_1+1), ..., (i_{k-1} i_{k-1}+1) } (1 ≤ k ≤ n, 1 ≤ i_1 < ... < i_{k-1} < n), then the subgroup of S_n generated by J is the subgroup of permutations which preserve each of the set {1, ..., i_1}, ..., {i_{k-1}+1, ..., n}, which is isomorphic to S_{i_1} ⨯ ... ⨯ S_{n - i_{k-1}}. To see this, in one direction note that each element of J preserves the mentioned subsets of {1, ..., n}; and in the other, note that (for j = 1, ..., k, where i_0 := 0 and i_k := n) J contains (i_{j-1}+1 i_{j-1}+2), ..., (i_j-1 i_j) which are a set of transpositions generating the group of all permutations of the set {i_{j-1}+1, ..., i_j}.
In terms of Dynkin diagrams, in J some of the vertices have been deleted, turning the Dynkin diagram of A_{n-1} which is a path graph on n-1 vertices into a disjoint union of path graphs, which corresponds to a direct sum of smaller A_* root systems, or in terms of Weyl groups, a product of smaller S_*'s.
Where can I read about this?
I feel like over text makes it really hard to understand stuff
Especially this
This gives a better understanding for some reason
Suppose G is a commutative algebraic group defined over Z. Suppose that for all number fields K, G(O_K) is a subgroup of G(K) and that H^1(K, G(K))=1. Can you say G is a product of GL_1's?
IDK this is something you just work out by hand AFAIK
Or rather I don't know any resource that specifically covers this properly
Perhaps one could look up: lecture notes "parabolic subgroup" A/_n
or something like that
Let A be a DVR with residue field k. If B is a local artinian A-algebra with residue field k, is B automatically a fg A-module?
Note that this is false without the residue field hypothesis, because you could take B to be a big extension of k.
(Also, I'd be interested just in the case where A = Z_p !)
I think I have an argument if A = Z_p. If B is as hypothesised, then we have a sequence F_p -> B/p -> B/m_B = F_p. So B/p = F_p x C for some ring C, but since B/p is local (as B is), we must have C = 0 i.e. B/p = F_p. But then note that each of the F_p-modules p^nB/p^{n+1}B is finite, so B is finite and in particular finitely generated over Z_p
i.e. putting it all together, B = Z/p^n for some n >= 1
I would suspect the result still holds if the residue field of B is a finite extension of the residue field of A, though I think this follows because B is an algebra over the witt vectors of its residue field and then you run a similar argument
If B is artinian it will have finite length as a B-module.
The length is equal to
sum_i dim_k m^i/m^i+1
where m is the maximal ideal. So it has the same (finite) length as an A module.
The argument works the same replacing the residue field with a finite extension.
You also don't need local, as long as B modulo the radical is finite dimensional
Very nice
Does this work for noncommutative B?
I assumed B was non-commutative
I guess there you need to worry about what artinian means lol - let's say left and right
Very cool thanks
You just need one side (whichever you're asking about it being fg for)
Thankss
Also this is of course false lol.
I don't get this exercise. Doesn't r vanish at a prime ideal p precisely if r is in p? So we simply have that r vanishes identically iff it is in every prime ideal. That doesn't seem to me to indicate that it is nilpotent (well, besides it being in (0) maybe, but then r is just 0...)
Could someone clarify?
The nilradical is the ideal of nilpotent elements. One can show that the nilradical is the intersection of prime ideals in a commutative ring
Yes, I know that
So r vanishes identically iff r is in every prime ideal iff r is in the nilradical
Oh
Welp
Even when you wrote it I was like what does this have to do with anything
lol
Yeah, that makes sense. Thanks
But R_xy doesnt match the formats here does it? Because S = {1, xy, (xy)^2, …}
Its not of form ST where S = {1, x, x^2…} and T = {1, y, y^2…}
So how are we applying that exercise here
Again im assuming the notation R_xy means you localize at the subset generated by the single element xy
what's the image of T in S^{-1}R?
Elements of the form t/1 with t in T
right
let's denote this new set U
what do elements of U^{-1}(S^{-1}R) look like?
elements of the form (a/s)/(t/1)
Im
Guessing its a/(st)
yeah
so now this is an element of (ST)^{-1}R
so now we have a map $\varphi : U^{-1}(S^{-1}A) \to (ST)^{-1}R$ which maps some $(a/s)/(t/1) \mapsto a/st$
anamono
verify this is an isomorphism
What im confused about tho is applying this in our situation because R_xy is not like (ST)^-1R
What i said here
the exercise isn't saying anything about the sets themselves but the localization of the ring at the set
maybe i'm misreading your question let me see
Sorry, yea i tend to get mixed up with the little details 😭
To apply exercise 3 we need S and T and we’re saying something about the localization at the set ST. But in the example of cech complex you said (Rx)y is isomorphic to Rxy by exercise 3
But i am confused on how we are applying exercise 3 in this case
It's sort of clear it doesn't matter cause inverting (xy)^n for all n is the same as inverting x^m y^k for all m,k
Yeah i can get behind that, but as it was before we couldn't directly apply exercise 3 right?
without first noting that i guess
okay i see what you're saying
it was this
@fierce steeple this is exercise 3
What is the "it" about here?
(Rx)y is isomorphic to Rxy
I mean like why can't you use exercise 3
Because for Rxy the subset is {1, xy, (xy)^2, ..} which wasnt something like ST with S = {1, x, x^2..} and T ={1, y, y^2..}
Sure but then this
Anyway I should say like this is all much clearer if you think of localisation in terms of what it does i.e. universal property
yeah i mentioned that here but i wasn't sure if that was getting through
Like for any ring $B$, restriction along $A \to S^{-1} A$ induces a bijection ${$ maps $S^{-1} A \to B} \to {$ maps $A \to B$ sending $S$ to units$}$
Prismatic Potato
And then if you unwind what maps out of (R_{x})_{y} or (UT)^[-1} R look like etc it's fine
yeah that's my bad i shoudlve phrased this in terms of the UP
Oh thats what u meant with up lol
yeah
I aint even gonna lie i need to now parse how youre using the UP
I havent thought in terms of up much yet
New for me
Let f : A^n -> A be a function where A is the universe of discourse of a p-structure G (where p is a signature).
I'll call a function f p-representable iff there exists a p-term q such that G(q) = f (where G is also the interpretation function of the p-structure G)
Notice that there exist functions that are not p-representable in general (there may exist countably many p-representable functions, but |P(N)| functions)
Are there any resources on anything like this? Has anyone seen anything like this?
Ignore the blue line
Should be Rx to Rxy right
U can use up here to show (Rx)y iso Rxy?
Yeah sorry
lol I was in a car and didn’t feel like doing that but ty
for cech complex, the map from like Rx -> Rzy is just 0?
is it even possible to have a map Rx -> Rzy since x is not invertible in Rzy
oh these are R-mod homs not ring homs
the map is 0 by definition, see the last line
ok thx
I'm trying to prove iii. Is it easiest to show injectivity and surjectivity instead of constructing an inverse? The inverse is not immediate to me
Well it is easiest in all of them to use the universal property of the tensor product
Then you will see more intuitively why they are true
I used the universal property to get c)
But in iii) the inverse is actually not bad. To give a map out of a direct sum, you just need to show where each summand goes, and then it comes from te,soring the maps M,N -> M (+) N by P
Well I guess I can construct some bilinear map from (M \otimes P) \oplus (N \otimes P) to (M \oplus N) x P
What I mean is you want to also show the maps are isomorphisms using universal properties
Oh I think I see
Like for example in i) the point is that a bilinear map M x N -> P is the same as a bilinear map N x M -> P
So M (x) N and N (x) M have the same universal property
So something like consider the injections $\iota_M, \iota_N: M, N \to M \oplus N$, then there are maps $(\iota_M \otimes 1), (\iota_N \otimes 1): M \otimes P, N \otimes P \to (M \oplus N) \otimes P$. So we can consider the coordinate wise map $(\iota_M \otimes 1) \times (\iota_N \otimes 1): (M \otimes P) \times (N \otimes P) \to (M \oplus N) \otimes P$ which is (hopefully) bilinear and induces a map out of the tensor product (which is hopefully an inverse to the given map)
okeyokay
Never mind
We don't even need the universal property here I think, we can just map it coordinate wise out of the direct sum
Nvm
Oh we add them?
Ye
Fascinating
Thank you
Am I doing something wrong? $(m \otimes p_1, n \otimes p_2) \mapsto (m, n) \oplus p_1 + p_2 \mapsto (m \otimes p_1, n \otimes p_1) + (m \otimes p_2, n \otimes p_2) = (m \otimes p_1, n \otimes p_2) + (m \otimes p_2, n \otimes p_1) = (m \otimes p_1, n \otimes p_2)$ if and only if $m \otimes p_2 = 0$ and $n \otimes p_1 = 0$
okeyokay
Idk what ur first step is there
Well we have $(m \otimes p_1, n \otimes p_2) \mapsto (\iota_M \otimes 1)(m \otimes p_1) + (\iota_N \otimes 1)(n \otimes p_2) = (m, 0) \otimes p_1 + (0, n) \otimes p_2 = (m, 0) + (0, n) \otimes p_1 + p_2 = (m, n) \otimes p_1 + p_2$ right?
okeyokay
I think this is the right map since the other order of composition works
I must have done something wrong in my calculations
Do you see where I went wrong in my first step Potato?
Ig what I mean is like it is hard to pass what is going where to me cause the domains aren't written
Sorry
The first map is from $(M \otimes P) \oplus (N \otimes P) \to (M \oplus N) \otimes P$
okeyokay
That second equality doesn't hold
Also like some bracketing is missing
Are you saying the second equality doesn't hold here?
Ye
Oh is it because of the definition of a free module
They're just formal linear combinations or something
So we don't add them component wise
I have thoroughly confused myself
Yeah (x) is bilinear
Never mind I'm dumb
We can just apply it to (m, 0) (x) p_1 + (0, n) (x) p_2 straight from there
Bruh 😂
Alright thanks you saved my life
Np
But yeah the argument is had is basically like
Consider what a map out of each side means in terms of bilinear maps
Ye, I feel like it's good practice with working with the universal property
what book is this from?
any recommendations for prerequs before talking this? I’ve had Undergrad Group, Ring, Field, and Galois Theory
You could probably jump right in if you've taken a course in abstract algebra
I'm sure knowledge of some point set would be good for intuition in the exercises which is where you'll do most of your learning
Since a lot of exercises involve Spec
But I'd say you're good to go
Ive had some pointset from analysis and reading Munkres first two chapters but admittedly would like to go further in munkres
oh boy
Honestly I'd just say you could start yeah
Where do you see commutative algebra the most?
Algebraic geometry and algebraic number theory
I'm mainly reading through Atiyah as a prereq for Hartshorne
I would say should know the stuff in at least the first few chapters of atiyah macdonald for alg top
I havent learned alg geo yet either i wonder if ill end up liking it
i still really like commutative algebra so im hoping so
man i did point set topology like last sept-december but its been so long since i thought about topology
im taking diff geo this upcoming semester. should be nice cuz i know nothing about that
I feel like I dont ever remember the top stuff but when I look at a textbook Im like “I dont need to look at this” so Im conflicted if I should move on or review
haha i feel u
for me there is like an endless list of things i want to review
in algebra for me rn cuz thats what i study the most
i want to review like all those ring theory proofs that would be found in like the first chapters of dummit and foote and be able to just know them off hand
that would be nice
i feel like for most of them i probably remember the gist of it though
Pro tip: think of integers, but noncommutative!
noncommutative?
i aint even gonna lie one thing that i still like cant see proprely is why if order of a in G is n then order of a^m is n/(n,m)
there are a lot of little things like that that got lost on me a bit along the way
idk if you actually want a proof but the funny way is WLOG assume G = Z/nZ and then it becomes the statement that mn = gcd(m,n).lcm(m,n)
This was nice thank you
Dope that is a funny way lol
ya that did the trick for me
i think usually they apply division algorithm to prove it right?
I mean that's just basically the proof right
Yes lol
Yeah my joke is more just like
Psychologically easier to think about Z lol
Let J = S \ {s_k}. I'm trying to understand the minimal coset representatives of (S_n)^J. Why do you get the set {x in S_n | x_1 <...<x_k and x_(k+1) <... <x_n}
Even then what happens if J was something else other than S \ {s_k}? Say we take S_6 and J = {2,3,5} then how does (S_6)^J look like?
I am confused by what your S_6^J means
Symmetric group
But the minimal coset representative
And what is S \ {s_k}
Idk just there seems to be some notation I am missing or something.
The fundamental theorem of symmetric functions says that for every $f_{\text{sym}} \in \mathbb{Z}[x_1, \ldots, x_n]^{\mathfrak{S}_n}$, there is a unique $f \in \mathbb{Z}[x_1, \ldots, x_n]$ such that $f(e_1, \ldots e_n) = f_{\text{sym}}(x_1, \ldots, x_n)$.
My understanding is that Waring had an incomplete proof in 1770.
Is the first complete proof due to Gauss in 1876 or is there an earlier one known?
Spamakin🎷
Yeah I proved it in 1875
when can we get a fundamental theorem of fundamental theorems
If y is invertible, then xy = 0 implies x = 0. It follows that the resulting ring is just the localization of k[y] at y
Ah i misread your question, my bad, in that case x is invertible which implies y is 0
Yes i believe so
Localization commutes with quotients so this is the same as quotienting k[x,y,y^-1] at (xy) but y is a unit it in the ring so you're just quotienting by (x) which gives you k[y,y^-1]
Yeah just another way to express localizing at a single element
Also this should hold for any ring
Wait are you sure you're localizing at the prime (y)/(xy) or at the set {1,y,y^2,...}?
Wait no I think im talking nonsense
You actually get K(x) as in the fraction field I think
Oh well it doesn't matter I think
I think it does, because you're also inverting x-a for every a
So you get like k adjoint x
I think this might not be true, because the ring localized away from (y) contains 1/(x-1) which is not in k[x] localized at x
Then your claim isn't true I think
Okay, that makes more sense
The context of this is showing how a ses of modules 0->C->C'->C''->0 gives rise to a ses 0->Hom(B,C)->Hom(B,C')->Hom(B,C'')->Ext1(B,C)->Ext1(B,C')->Ext1(B,C'')->...
it does this by taking projective resolution of B and then forming that diagram there, then using the LES in homology theorem
my question is how do we know that diagram commutes. I understand the rows are exact because you can get them from applying Hom(Pi,-) where Pi is projective
going up is precomposing and going right is postcomposing
in more categorical language Hom is well-defined as a bifunctor
What are some examples of the restricted product of topological groups/rings other than adeles and ideles?
left R-module 
You just see that each square commutes by definition of the maps
Seems to me it should be isomorphic to k(x)
Could anyone please help me with this problem:
Let D_n= { a,b| a^n, b^2, abab} be the nth Dihedral group. If n is odd, prove that D_2n isomorphic to <a^n> × <a^2,b>.
I don't know exactly what you know about groups, but a sufficient condition to showing that the product of two subgroups is a direct product is that both are normal and they don't intersect.
So if you can show these two things you just need to show that a^n, a^2 and b together generate D_2n
Thanks! I ended up using a similar method to solve it just now
This question I asked in #algebraic-geometry also could work here.
N.b. I am actually meaning to ask about finite groups of Lie type here
Would probably be groups that satisfy conditions from lie groups but are not literally a lie group
Finite groups*
OK, maybe I can be clearer, I mean finite reductive groups, i.e. fixed points of a Steinberg endomorphism of a reductive algebraic group over F_p
In the case of this I don't know exactly
But I might point out that lie type probably means something like a finite reductive group that satisfies the lie (reductive algebraic) group conditions
Again I don't know this branch of rep theory haha
I just placed my thoughts here
My issue isn't about the definition of a finite reductive group... I do know this 😭
Lie type you mean?
"groups of Lie type" is a term of art which arguably does not have a precise definition, see e.g. https://mathoverflow.net/questions/136880/definition-of-finite-group-of-lie-type
I avoided it deliberately by using the term "finite reductive group" instead
mh_le
For that J I believe you get x_2 < x_3 < x_4, x_5 < x_6
hmm
how about the map x -> x^J? What if x = 7125346 and J = {1,2,4,6}
@cloud karma
Well you arrange x_1 x_2 ... x_k in an increasing order and similarly for x_{k+1} ... x_n
so x^J = 1273546
uhh how
noggin

In J, 2 and 3 correspond to the first 3 numbers {7,1,2}, 4 is (4,5) so you have {5,3} and finally {4,6} for 6
now you just rewrite the sets in increasing order
oh that's it?
yeah lol
this so easy idk why it wasn't obvious
noggin failed
So this is just exploiting a nice property of Hom functors basically?
Yes
Yes it’s that it’s a bifunctor which someone said
Ok yea thanks
How exactly do left exact functors preserve kernels and right exact preserves cokernels?
Still am just not exactly sure what is being preserved when say, a ses 0->A->B->C->0 gives 0->F(A)->F(B)->F(C) upon applying F
And same for right exact
(Also, exactness at C here isnt necessary right)
you have a left exact sequence like 0 -> ker(f) -> A -(f)-> B, so when you apply a left exact functor you get 0 -> F(ker(f)) -> F(A) -(F(f))-> F(B) which is also left exact
then you can show by the axioms of an abelian category that F(ker(f)) = ker(F(f))
for right exact you have a right exact sequence A -(f)-> B -> coker(f) -> 0
and you do the same thing but with a right exact functor
A-(f)?
$A \xrightarrow{f} B$
anamono
Ty
that's what they mean by A -(f)-> B
Im not really sure what this showed
anamono
Yea
when you apply your left exact functor F you get an exact sequence
[ 0 \to F(\ker(f)) \to F(A) \xrightarrow{F(f)} \to F(B) ]
anamono
yea
when we say the "functor preserves kernels" it means $F(\ker(f)) \cong \ker(F(f))$
anamono
so that's what milky milk milk said
in an abelian category left exact functors preserve kernels
same thing holds for a sequence $A \xrightarrow{g} B \to \operatorname{coker} g \to 0$
anamono
ok yea so it just comes from the definition of this being exact
thx
who tf is hchan
oh shit sorry knee jerk reaction
thats ok hchan helped me earlier in groups rings field
he's active here too so i get the blues mixed up
anyway this just comes from the fact it's left exact
this is what the real statement is
this is what it means to "preserve kernels"
and this left (right) exactness property of functors is what makes 0th homology equal to the functor evaluated at the object right
in the derived functors setup
yeah I should've been more straightforward with it but the left exact sequence is exactly the definition of the kernel of a morphism so you get your result
do you mean the 0-th derived functor?
and thats a very nice thing because it what makes us continue exact sequences
not quite, but also not sure what youre asking here
yea
yeah i said 0th homology which i guess is being unspecific but these derived functors are always still some homology right
right derived functors basically tell you how far away a left-exact functor is from being right-exact
derived functors should be cohomology tho
kk
this depends on if it's left or right
i havent bothered thinking about if something is homology or (co)homology yet lol
probabl worth doing
what you do is (for right derived) you take an injective resolution of your object, and you take the cohomology of the complex attained by applying the functor to this resolution
(assuming your category has enough injectives)
I always like to imagine we're in R-Mod 🤩
this is also assuming the functor is covariant tho right. If its left exact contravariant you would need a projective resolution?
this is something i was thinking about. Left exact functors would have right derived functors, but constructing them via projective or injective resolution just depends on variance of functor?
yeah
Ok, i feel like finally a lot of this is clearing up for me. Last thing I have no idea about is why computing Ext^i(A,B) gives the same result whether you do so by taking projective resolution of A and computing right derived functors of Hom(-,B), or taking injective resolution of B and computing right derived functors of Hom(A,-).
i dont really remember the proof but this can be found in any standard textbook
This is called balancing Ext
I believe with Ext specifically (maybe all bifunctors?) you can do some ad hoc argument
But in general I believe you use a spectral sequence and the two different horizontal / vertical filtrations to compare
Typically everything is framed in terms of functors being covariant. And then contravariant functors C -> D are just covariant functors C^op -> D
Or just ur global convention
I think the "balancing" argument is just the spectral sequence proof in a special case lol
Yeah but you can do it without ever saying the word
Ye
I feel like hm
There are a few things in hom alg where ad hoc proofs are given but a spectral sequence thing would be quicker rlol
But idk the best way to deal w this
I mean also like UCT for example and stuff
for any natural number n, an n-category is also a 1-category right?
hm if you take equivalence classes of 1-cells then probably...?
what definition of n-category are you using
idek, this is a dumb question sorry idk highter category theory. ig there's no natural way then
like i assumed for 2-categories the objects are functors and functors are natural transormations so it's a 1-category
n-categories can be viewed as more general as there is more structure. You can neglect some of it to get a 1-cat, but can also view as a 1-cat as an n-cat
Not sure what you mean
"The objects" of what
the 2-category
Idk you seem a bit confused as to what these are, like you seem to be wording this as if there is only one 2 category or smth
You are probably thinking of Cat as an example of a 2-categpry, where for any two objects (i.e. categories) you have an associated functor category, which is a 1-category
ah yes
Yeah, i continue to mull over contra vs covariance and every time people here tell me “its just always assumed covariant from Cop”
So then, “canonically”, right derived functors are always constructed using injective resolutions ?
maybe canonically isn’t the right word (ie there are several choices of injective resolutions hehe) but yes.
for example with taking the right derived functor of the contravariant functor Hom(-,A): Ab^op -> Ab, to compute
Ext^i(B, A),
you take an injective resolution of B in Ab^op, which is a projective resolution of B in Ab
you can take your favorite injective resolution since the derived functors you get are all isomorphic
same for projective resn
yup no objections there, but you’re making some initial (very large) choice and you only got your hands on your derived functor up to isomorphism. Are there occasions where you can choose things canonically? I guess for sheaves you got something like the godemont resolution (not injective but is acyclic)
oh i see what you're saying, idrk then
i guess there's natural choices of resolutions in some settings but idk if there's a universal "canonical" choice
Well I should say like there is a lot of canonicity here: given any two injective resolutions M -> I*, J** there is an induced homotopy equivalence I* -> J* unique up to chain homotopy, and so in particular a canonical isomorphism H^*(F(I*)) -> H*(F(J*)
And yeah then you need choices to construct them as a functor but there are canonical isomorphisms between any two choices
This is very common in category theory though - for example taking limits of a certain shape (provided they all exist) is a functor defined up to canonical isomorphism, in the same way
Generalising the Godement resolutions, there are very often (co)monadic resolutions, the basic example being how you can resolve a module in a stupid way by using R^M -> M and continuing (and the Godement resolution is another one)
Generally these will just be acyclic resolutions
oh nice!
Isnt Hom(-,A) contravariant along Ab->Ab?
wouldnt Hom(-,A) on Ab^op->Ab be covariant
oh yes that’s right
I usually will say a contravariant functor and write A^op -> B the associated covariant functor, though maybe the language is slightly bad
I guess in my head there are only covariant functors and I call a functor contravariant if it’s from a familiar category with an op on it lol
yea it is very clear to me how no one thinks about this later on
but then I’ll run into trouble if I’m defining functors out of CRing/AffScheme hehe
im still kind of new to using category theory in algebra
yup for sure
This is a funny thing. In smth I'm writing I need to write Spec as a functor {commutative rings} -> {schemes}^op and it feels wrong
haha
The point is just that you can use the equivalence to get the others from one. There are right-derived functors for covariant lim to lim preserving and contravariant colim to lim preserving functors, and left-derived functors for covariant colim to colim and contravariant lim to colim functors. Hardly anyone wants to deal with all four of them when most arguments for one apply to all of the others by adding op's to the domain and/or codomain category.
If F is not left exact, its possible that even for A-g->B, F(kerg) is not a subobject(?) of F(A)?
I guess so, right? Because it doesnt preserve kernels
I set up my question weirdly, i should just be asking that if F is not left exact, subobjects may not be preserved under F?
Ye and then that is sort of immediate by this
Yea it may not preserve subobjects immediately by the fact that it may not preserve kernel
your original question is a bit stronger but also correct: the functor (-) (x)_Z F_p is not left exact, and sends Z to Fp and Q to 0
I feel like any intro to left/right exact functor should mention this stuff. It makes it way more intuitive to understand the point of it
Isnt the stronger question if F preserves subobjects in general?
Yeah this is nice example of functor not preserving subobjects
Actually I guess, can you do this purely in ZFC? Like to pick a specific injective resolution for each module can’t be done with just normal choice right?
don't you have the same problem with defining the limit functor that Potato mentioned
for abstract complete categories
I guess so
Hm
Well, consider how that needs you to pick a class worth of em
Namely, resolutions for things of arbitrarily large sizes
(Which you’re screwed by regardless of being a skeleton or not)
But you’re fine for some like, skeleton of bounded dimensions involved or wtv
Now, if there were some highly canonical choice, you might be saved, but I’m not aware of one
You can pick a projective resolution for all modules M simultaneously by P_n = Free(...(Free(M))...) (n+1 Free's). Essentially this is because "every module has an epi from a projective" can be done canonically. If there's a similar "canonical" injection of any module into an injective module, it can be used to canonically construct an injective resolution (albeit often not a convenient one).
And I believe if we write M* := Hom_R(M, ℚ/ℤ) for any ring R and left/right R-module M, then (Free(M*) → M*)* ∘ (M → M**): M → M** → Free(M*)* is such a canonical injection.
that doesn't sound exact
It's a composition of two injective maps, so is injective (and the maps are injective because Q/Z is cogenerating).
There aren't really any other exactness conditions to consider
i meant the P_n thing
Ah, there's just missing a ker in there, i.e.
Free(ker(Free(..)))
hm, i guess so
Hey guys. I tried asking a question about linear algebra on the corresponding channel, but nobody answered. Do you mind that I ask it here?
Depends on the linear algebra
Can you check out the question in the linear algebra forum and tell me if I should post it here or leave it there?
I think it belongs in #linear-algebra , but you should write it in latex, because it's kinda hard to parse what you've written
will do
Suppose i have a 1 dimensional Noetherian local ring A (in fact it is a localization of a k-algebra of finite type with k alg closed but im unsure if this will be relevant). in this case there is a bijection betwee the minimal primes of A and the minimal primes of its completion. can we upgrade this to a full correspondence of the primary decompositions of 0 in each ring, respecting multiplicity?
Huh, and I guess this canonically gets you chain maps on these resolutions right? So you don’t have to pick specific ones.
I feel like it ought to be functorial, so yes, but don't feel like verifying that.
I think it’s clear, send generator on m to generator on f(m) iteratively
I don’t think so. If A is reduced but not analytically reduced, then the primary decomposition of 0 should just be the intersection of all the minimal primes. This should (if I understand correctly your setup) correspond to the nilradical of A^ which isn’t 0, so you didn’t get the primary decomposition of 0 in A^
And I think you can have this? Idk, I guess I don’t know for certain if there are examples of non-analytically reduced rings of dimension 1
I think something like this must be true because analytically isomorphic singular points on curves are equivalent via embedded resolution
what is “something like this”
So their irreducible components are in bijection with one another and that preserves multiplicity
The statement about primary decomposition?
So what is multiplicity here?
Perhaps the finite type ness over k is important
That is confusing me a little
Is the primary decomposition of I always like
Via symbolic powers of the minimal primes?
Cuz otherwise I can’t really think of what you mean by multiplicity
Uhh so geometrically what's going on is this is corresponding to a curve embedded in a surface and I'm really studying the ring O_X,P/(f) where f is a local equation for C
So I have two such curves C, C' in two surfaces X, X'
Now the completions of the local rings of each curve are isomorphic
So in this case there is a bijection of the minimal primes = irreducible components
Yup
Although I’m actually not even familiar with this result lol
It super isn’t true in general I think, but I guess the dimension 1 does a lot of work for you?
Yeah
But then what’s going on after?
Ummm maybe this notion of multiplicity is only relevant after the blow ups
Like what’s the multiplicity here
But anyway what has to be true is that successively blowing up these singular points on each curve, the irreducible components of the total transforms are in bijection and that bijection preserves their multiplicity as divisors
Okay so this is what I don’t understand
So perhaps multiplicity is not meaningful for the base
If your thing is sufficiently fucked up, the whole divisor thing falls apart
I was thinking of this in terms of like factorizing f
Okay okay I see
But… I need to think more but like
Something feels funny to me
Like say A is your ring
And say it’s nonsingular in codim 1, that’s just saying it’s a DVR almost
Then I think the ring is super nice and probably things push through
Isn't A already a local ring of dim 1
Yeah but if it isn’t reduced then it will have some shitty xodim 1 singularity
And then the whole divisor thing kinda falls apart
Ic
Maybe we can assume the curve is reduced
Uhhh
Okay no I confused myself
But okay, let’s say X is nice and whatever
Then f definitely can be written as like, a bunch of stuff with multiplicities
But…
🤔
Like okay here’s where I’m confused lmao
In a general dim 1 local ring, I don’t see how the notion of multiplicities of the irreducible components cutting out 0 makes sense like…
The way you do it before wuotientinf is like
Push f through the valuations of O_X,P where P is the generic points of the components of V(f)
But then once you quotient by f like, how do you even see that anymore?
Ya feel me?
But also like doing this gives you the decomposition of f? But I guess it might not be the primary decomposition because you’re taking powers and not symbolic powers, but I think things are nice enough they agree anyway
Anyway I am just kinda puzzled atm
But it might be Skissue
well i thikn it should be detectable by the primary decomposition where i want to hope that everything is the same as a prime power decomposition
and that it corresponds upstairs to a factorization of f
into irreducible components
Yeah so that’s the thing, idk abstractly how you’d recognize that the primary decomposition is into powers of primes

Like admittedly you do know A is the quotient of a like
Smooth 2-dim k-algebra
(Localized)
And that does something at least
But like, f can be all sorts of fucked up
tbc
So I think you should be able to make A as totally fucked as you want
this is the notion of equivalence that im trying to show holds if analytic isomorphism between the two points holds
so maybe the preserving multiplicities bit theyre referring to only holds for the reduced total transform and we can just assume C is reduced
Yeah I think here everything is always reduced
maybe it just works out idk
So in my brain
do they mean that the non reduced total transforms have corresponding components with the same multiplicity
or are they literally saying to throw that information away
Okay no I’m now convinced
Reduced means all multiplicities are 1
😵💫 😵💫
I just odnt understand what "preserving multiplicities and incidence" means then
I feel like that’s about multiplicities of like
Self intersections
Of the singularities
Oh my god they mean multiplicity of the singular point
In abstract algebra, multiplicity theory concerns the multiplicity of a module M at an ideal I (often a maximal ideal)
e
I
(
M
)
.
{\displaystyle \mathbf {e} _{I}(M).}
…
im stupid
Like this
And this can be read off the Hilbert polynomial
Which won’t care about completion
Chmonkey W again
That sounds interesting but i cant understand it yet lol
i did my bach thesis on mixed multiplicities
waow
teissier had some minkowski-type inequality and he proved it and used it in ag
smth to do w milnor numbers but unfortunately i can't read french
Tbh i think homological algebra is really interesting
I read somewhere that someone said its dry on its own
I just joined. Haiii. I understand nothing here and I love it 🥹. I've found my place
Welcome dopamine giver
GIVE ME DOPAMINE NOW GIVE IT NOW
The fact that sending that message is what gave me dopamine 🤯
Mind = Blown
(Ok ill stop)
I don’t see how a direct product of sofic groups is sofic?
Like it doesn’t seem immediate
I’d want to do something like F -> S(n) x S(k) -> S(n + k) where the first map is induced by soficity of the two product groups, but that doesn’t satisfy (iii)
S(n) x S(k) -> S(nk) works
What is S(n) here?
Symmetric group on n elements
Then what does d(x, y) refer to in point (ii)
d(x, y) = |{x(i) =/= y(i)}|/n
Shouldn't that make d(phi(g), e) = 0 then if there are no fixed points
Fixed
I see
You have
(a+b) / (m+n) <= a/m + b/n
so for a product of groups GxH and a finite subset F you can pick phi for epsilon/2 and the projection of F onto G and H.
Then combine them into a map -> S(m)xS(n) -> S(m+n)
That’s what I thought, but it doesn’t work because if you have some (g, e) then that’ll have fixed points
If you do -> S(mn) instead then it works
how is t transcendental?
by definition?
wdym
yes
it doesn't satisfy a polynomial equation over C. Note also that C is algebraically closed
they are simply stipulating that t is transcendental
doesn't it satisfy t-t = 0? isn't t like, already the variable of the polynomial?
I think I'm confused with the definition of transcendence
right. Transcendence is relative to a base field. They are talking about transcendence over C
oh ok I was being stupid
wait do the meaning of a "transcendental function" is different?
like, just the term "transcendental function"
idk, I think people might mean different things by that phrase, I don't think it's very standard terminology
yes so in that case they are talking about transcendence over the field C(x)
OHHH
damn my brain fried so much over this I wasn't able to eat
I'm 1 hour late
thx crocodile
Does Ado's theorem (on finite-dimensional Lie algebras admitting a faithful representation in some gl(V)) generalise to infinite-dimensional Lie algebras?
Are Milne's notes a good intro for comm alg?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3031/cayleys-theorem-for-lie-algebras
this might answer your question
Thanks, this is what I was looking for 
i think you better ask your questions about sets in discrete math/proofs and logic
Can I have a hint for this problem please? We can tensor with the right half of the sequence to get $A \otimes M / \ker (\pi \otimes 1) = A \otimes M / \text{im } (\iota \otimes 1) \cong A/\mathfrak{a} \otimes M$, but I'm a little stuck trying to show that $A \otimes M / \text{im } (\iota \otimes 1) \cong M/\mathfrak{a}M$
okeyokay
Or you can just category theory sledgehammer, namely left adjoint preserves colimits
but well exactness is a weakened continuity condition so this is prolly what ultimately happens anyways
There’s an isomorphism A (x) M -> M given by multiplication. Under this isomorphism the image of that map is exactly aM
No, you need to recognize aM as the image of a map. Can’t just completely category theory that one away unless you define aM in some other way
Okay but that’s the same thing cuz of exactness?
oh
I see what you mean actually
Hmmm
I would need to think more if it’s obvious that this kernel is aM.
You can say it contains it easily, but then…

Probably clear, but saying a specific tensor is not zero is always kinda MonkaS
I mean a (x) M is just aM and then the map aM -> M is just inclusion so the sequence is exact after tensoring ( exactness on the right/middle comes from right exactness of tensor product). Maybe a bit handwavy
Maybe this is not quite right and you have to instead identify the image of the composition a (x) M -> A (x) M -> M with aM
Yes this is definitely wrong
No a (x) M is not aM in general
Okay sorry you realized that
It requires something like M being flat
can't you just use this diagram?
that’s what I was saying lel
and then there's some hom alg lemma which says there's a map from A/a (x) M to M/aM which is an isomorphism since the left two are
oh
.
Ye lol
oops
Chmonkey is right and only thing needed lol
A more interesting question is when this is an iso
When what is an iso
I mean it’s exactly a Tor group being zero
isn't this actually equivalent to M being flat
If it holds for all ideals
oh yeah i was thinking holding for all ideals
You don’t need that, it just follows because cokernels of isomorphic maps are isomorphic
Which… actually I guess follows from 5 lemma
yeah
But I don’t like to think of it that way
i mean 5 lemma doesn't tell you about the existence of a map A/a (x) M to M/aM, but that's not hard to see
Yeah
anyway in this case i think you need four lemma and not five lemma
but i guess it doesn't matter too much
Just put the chips in the bag bro
Just put the kernel in the bag bro
you're literally a potato i'd have to kill you to make chips
sorry potato that was very toxic of me. lapse of judgement i just got super defensive and threw my phone and broke it. wont happen again
Bro took 2 mins to follow up cuz he had to grab his laptop to type that
If A:V->V is a linear map and the induced linear map on the k blades $\wedge_k A: \wedge_k V\to \wedge_k V$ is not full rank does that mean A is not full rank?
HausdorffT1
blades? dafok
I don’t know the lingo. Whatever elements of the form $v1\wedge…\wedge vk $ in the exterior algebra of A are. There is a vector space worth of these elements.
That should follow from \wedge_k being functorial
Since being full rank means the map splits
Oops sorry, that would be the converse of what you asked.
Edit: wait no it is what you asked. I read it wrong the second time
Or just like A is an iso so it induced an iso
Which is the contrapositive of ur ting
Oh there is an exact sequence $0\to V\to_A V\to 0 $ and the functor mapping this exact sequence to another implies that the induced map of A is also an isomorphism. Nice that’s a cool application of exact sequence.
Sure, the exactness isn't really the relevant part. But the fact that functors preserve (one sided) inverses.
In this case it's actually an isomorphism, but the argument would also work for a map V -> W
Vakil only uses this "ideal of denominators" construction in one other place: the proof of Algebraic Hartog's Lemma. Are there other cool uses of this construction?
In CA and/or AG
I found something on stacks (02P1) called "ideal sheaf of denominators" https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/01X1
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
Basically the same construction
It's a special case of ideal quotient
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ideal_quotient
In abstract algebra, if I and J are ideals of a commutative ring R, their ideal quotient (I : J) is the set
(
I
:
J
)
=
{
r
∈
R
∣
r
J
⊆
I
…
Relevant to fractional ideals, which is something that comes up as an invariant
(e.g. ideal class group)
oh yeah that's true i forgot it's an ideal quotient
okay thanks
yeah ive seen that before a lot actually, eg local cohomology
You know local cohomology ??
Ideal quotient……..
Real ones call it colon ideals
i am learning about local cohomology
Real
Im still not sure what the motivation for it is though
i know some properties of it now like how it depends on the ideal but only up to radical
its an algebraic geometry thing right because if a prime ideal does not contain I then the localization is 0 or something right
when you localize the submodule l-torsion(M) at P
not well by any means but my prof taught it in a topics course
Well its formation commutes with localization, and I becomes all of A. And clearly A-torsion is nothing
Does that first part mean, localize M at S then take I- torsion elements of that is the same as taking I-torsion elements and then localizing at S?
Do you mind spelling out a bit more what youre saying?
Yes
S^-1H^i_I(M) = H^i_IS^-1A(S^-1M)
ok cool thanks, whats the benefit of this?
were you trying to explain why what i said here was true or smth?
I mean, to know how something behaves at each point essentially tells you how it behaves entirely. Something something A -> Prod A_p over all p is faithfully flat
So you can reduce almost everything to the local case which is highly desirable
oh ya localizing at a prime ideal produces a local ring, i forgot about that
ik yall would go mad at tht
is that a particularly nice property for algebraic geometry?
No i mean it is valid
Lol
It's a nice property in comm alg in general tbf
Yea i know it is but i dont really remember or have seen why yet
often common to reduce to local considerations
I know there are local properties so that if smth is true in all localizations then its true in whole thing
is that the vibe ?
What lemma is this? I was aware of the five lemma
Can we implicitly use the five lemma by extending the diagram with a few more squares of 0s lol
technically five lemma doesn't tell you about the existence of the map
but that can be shown by diagram chasing using the fact there's surjectivity
five lemma tells you that it's an isomorphism
Yeah I'm just trying to find out what the middle map even is lol
I have no clue if I'm on track here but I'm thinking about constructing a bilinear map from A/a x M -> M/aM then using the universal property
Okay I think that works, I showed it's well-defined and bilinear
Now if commutativity holds then the five lemma applies...
Let $g: A \otimes M, \mathfrak{a} \otimes M \to M$ be the isomorphism $a \otimes m \mapsto am$. The following diagram is commutative with exact rows, by Proposition 2.18:
[
\begin{tikzcd}
{\mathfrak{a} \otimes M} && {A \otimes M} && {A/\mathfrak{a} \otimes M} && 0 && 0 \
\
{\mathfrak{a} \otimes M} && M && {M/\mathfrak{a}M} && 0 && 0
\arrow["{\iota \otimes 1}", from=1-1, to=1-3]
\arrow["1"{description}, from=1-1, to=3-1]
\arrow["{\pi \otimes 1}", from=1-3, to=1-5]
\arrow["g"{description}, from=1-3, to=3-3]
\arrow[from=1-5, to=1-7]
\arrow["h"{description}, from=1-5, to=3-5]
\arrow[from=1-7, to=1-9]
\arrow[from=1-7, to=3-7]
\arrow[from=1-9, to=3-9]
\arrow["g", from=3-1, to=3-3]
\arrow["\pi", from=3-3, to=3-5]
\arrow[from=3-5, to=3-7]
\arrow[from=3-7, to=3-9]
\end{tikzcd}
] The map $h$ is defined as follows. There is a bilinear, well-defined map $A/\mathfrak{a} \times M \to M/\mathfrak{a}M$ given by $(a + \mathfrak{m}, m) \mapsto am + \mathfrak{a}M$. Such a map induces an $A$-homomorphism $A/\mathfrak{a} \otimes M \to M/\mathfrak{a}M$ given by $h(a + \mathfrak{a} \otimes m) = am + \mathfrak{a}M$, which we take to be $h$. Since all vertical arrows save the middle one are isomorphisms, the five lemma shows that $h$ is an isomorphism, as desired.
How does this look?
okeyokay
a (x) M is not isomorphic to M
the quotient in M/aM comes from the fact that a (x) M has image aM in M
i do think this appproach with five lemma etc is overkill
What would be easier?
universal property of quotient
Well you have I (x) M -> A (x) M -> A/I (x) M -> 0. You can identify A (x) M with M, and also replace the left term with its image in M (as that doesnt affect exactness), which is IM
And then yeah youve exhibited A/I (x) M as the cokernel of IM -> M
Lots of things can be written down as “X is true if M is 0” where M is some module. Like you are flat if all Tors are 0 against stuff or like surjective iff cokernel is 0. If you can write it that way, you can say M is 0 if and only if M_p is 0 for all 0, so if the formation of M commutes with localization you immediately get that X is true if and only if it’s true at all P
FLIP SOME PAGES
So good
Who out there flipping them pages
Thats great, thanks
another nice reduction to local case is that an integral domain A is integrally closed <=> A_p is integrally closed for each prime ideal p <=> A_m is integrally closed for each maximal ideal m
Tbh, I still am not sure in what sense something like Ext^i(A,-) is a functor
a functor from RMod to RMod?
Given B->C what is the map Ext^i(A,B) -> Ext^i(A,C)?
Let's say I have some nested root formula, is there a way to compute whether or not it can't be the root of a polynonial of degree N
IDK off the top of my head what algos are out there, but I think programs such as mathematica can find minimal polynomials of algebraic numbers
So perhaps trying to find algorithms for computing minimal polynomials would be a start
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1001.0649 like some googling found this
and perhaps someone more knowledgeable than me would know of actual reference texts
Take injective resolutions of B and C and lift the homomorphism to a map up complexes
I(B) -> I(C)
(such a lift is unique up to homotopy).
Then apply Hom(A,-) and take ith homology
Ah ok, how does this relate to the long exact sequences for Ext?
Or if you're working with Yoneda-Ext:
For an i-extensions
B -> E1 -> ... -> Ei -> A
take the pushout along B->C
i've always wondered if there was something like the yoneda Ext for tor
Given a short exact sequence
0 -> B -> C -> D -> 0
the horse shoe lemma says you get a short exact sequence of complexes
0 -> I(B) -> I(C) -> I(D) -> 0
which is pointwise split because the objects are injective.
Then apply Hom(A,-) and take the long exact sequence in homology
I think there shouldn't be just cause yoneda ext is so connected to maps basically


