#help-49
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I forgot, and therefore corrected it afterwards.
!15m
is that -cos(x+1) ?
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@somber folio is that -cos(x+1) ?
No.
@somber folio multiply and divide the lhs by sinx-cosx+1
secx+tanx=1+sinx/cosx
try to make the left hand side that
multiply 2 side by sinx - cosx + 1 ?
WHAT
?
whats A?
x
Not very helpful.
You need to conjugate the denominator, essentially.
that means you need to mutiply cosx on 2 sides
yeah
on rhs u get 1+sinx
u want to manipulate the left hand side
y isnt the @somber folio not replying
@somber folio Has your question been resolved?
how ?
wait
sec x = 1/cosx
tan x = sinx/cosx
oh ok
@jolly pike whats your answer ?
Not very helpful.
Let me.
blud provided evidence 🥀
My teacher said it coudn't be done by multiplying the numerator by its conjugate.
I shall never trust him.
Thanks y'all, especially joshuva (and Nguyen Hoang Bach).
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!nosols
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.:this
Hello, I hope someone can help me with this assignment
This is what I have gotten to.
The assignment has to be done without CAS or calculator etc. Yet I had to look up that phi(2)=0.9772, so Im not sure if I have shown correctly as the assignment wanted. But to my understand there's no way to actually calculate the probability 0.9545 without a calculator, or without looking it up in a table?
it's because you're going to have some integral of $e^{-x^2}$ sort of form, and there's no nice closed-form representation of that over some arbitrary interval
00100000
The normal outcome is 0.9545, that's just an accepted fact that we're told and it says so in our books
which makes it really hard to calculate by hand
but we have nice tools to transform our distributions to normal dsitributions with mean 0 variance 1, so we have tables of this
and also calculators can just use numerical tools to approximate the value well
yes, so that's why im asking. I THINK I have done it correctlt and that maybe the assignment is just not worded so well? Because it kinda says that I have to SHOW that the probability = 0.9545
well, the probability does not equal 0.9545
that's almost certainly a false statement
it's approximately that probably
but I doubt it's exactly that
your work looks good to me 👍
In the interval from mean value - 2 x variance to the mean value +2 x variance, the area under the graph is indeed 0.9545. This is the normal outcomes.
that's probably not true. it's probably not a rational number
This is true. it covers most of the area beneath graph for the bell curve for the normal distribution
more precisely it covers 95.45% of the area.
okay I understand what you mean 😉
sure, you're right, it's not exactly that. And it's not so important either But yes you are correct.
note that this integral is an equivalent expression for this
oh, it's good that we're on the same page. my apologies, I thought you were under the impression that the exact value was that
Yeah the first equation you have we call in my language the "denseness function" and the second one the "distribution function". I dont the english terms
"=" is a very strong symbol to use usually
you would generally only use it for an exact value
probability density function and cumulative distribution function, respectively
sometimes shortened to "pdf" and "cdf"
ya, it's just a little besides the point I think, while technically not wrong. It's always good to remember, so as to not claim otherwise.
look here form our collection of formulas:
Stated as 95.45%; its not really the point whether it is EXACTLY precise. So yeah it is a close approximation.
Thanks for the help!
🙏
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there's just a delay to allow time for reopening, in the case of accidental closure
there's a grace period for reopens and also bc rate limiting
sorry
just leave it alone, it'll close by itself in 10 min or so
no worries
ty
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$\int_{-a}^a\int_{-\frac ba\sqrt{a^2-x^2}}^{\frac ba\sqrt{a^2-x^2}}1\dd y\dd x=\int_{-a}^a\frac{2b}a\sqrt{a^2-x^2}\dd x$
pirateking0723
now if i want to try to do something like $x=a\cos\theta$, will the bounds of integration be from $0$ to $\pi$ or from $-\pi$ to $\pi$
pirateking0723
if it is the latter then i know that i cant do this sub since in cos isnt bijective on the interval [-π,π] and so i cant use it as a sub i was informed earlier
if it is the former then i can certainly use it since cos is bijective on [0,π]
so what would the bounds be and why
well i am not convinced that it is from 0 to pi
but when i tried it i got πab as the answer of the integral
which is the area of the ellipse
wait let me show you
Is this not an ellipse tho?
so from here this is $=\frac{2b}a\int_{\pi}^0-a\sin\theta\sqrt{a^2-a^2\cos^2\theta}\dd\theta=2ab\int_0^{\pi}\sin^2\theta\dd\theta=ab\int_0^{\pi}1-\cos(2\theta)\dd\theta=\pi ab$
it is
pirateking0723
So what’s wrong the integral?
i am not sure that i understand your question
this integral is correct no ?
Yes
alright so then comes this
Me being lazy I would replace the integrand with just a lol
Yup
alright so then whats wrong about this
,w int from 0 to pi (1 - cos (2 theta))dtheta
this is crazy right ?
Seems to be no mistake?
because i thought that the bounds should be from -pi to pi ?
why are the bounds from 0 to pi and not from -pi to pi
[-1,1]
U would go from (-1,0) back to (0,0) and to (-1,0) again
the same as a [0,pi]
That’s the whole circle!
but you traverse it 2 times
So the area is doubled
well thats what we want
we want the area enclosed by the whole ellipse no ?
You’ve already accounted for that
which is from -pi to 0 then to pi
from 0 to pi is only the top half unless i am tripping
ah i see
Let’s say u do smth different
first i integrated wrt y from the top of the ellipse to its top
after that i only need half a rotation and not a full one
i see
give me a sec i might have another doubt
i want to check something rq
aight
if i instead try the sub x=asinθ then the bounds would be from -pi/2 to pi/2 right?
then so does -pi/2 to pi/2 right ?
,w integral from 0 to pi of [(acosx sqrt{2^2 - 2^2sin^2x})] dx
yes
0 to pi doesnt work
the sin cancels out
this should work too
thats what i thought...
i mean
sin is always positive there
however
the added substitution
acos(theta)
is an asshole
and ruins my integral
$2ab\int_0^{\pi}cos^2\theta\dd\theta=ab\int_0^{\pi}1+\cos(2\theta)\dd\theta=\pi ab$
pirateking0723
so start here, next do x=asinθ
set the boundaries to be 0 and pi instead of -pi/2 to pi/2
dx=acosθdθ
ah wait
$\sqrt{a^2-a^2\sin^2\theta}=a\abs{\cos\theta}\neq a\cos\theta$ over the whole interval $[0,\pi]$
pirateking0723
bruh
one more thing
cos is periodic of period 2pi so the above integral over any interval of the same length with "distance" 2pi from the other interval is the same ?
Yes
It can be 2pi to 3pi, 4pi to 5pi, etc
Eventually
During the evaluation step
Cos(3pi) = cos(pi) anyway
I’ve seen an integral problem involving periodicity of sinx
It asks for smth like
I(n) = $\int_{-\pi n}^{\pi n} |\sin x| dx$ for $n \in \mathbb{Z}$
k
@safe oriole Has your question been resolved?
ohhh wait let me think about this for a second
$\int_{-\pi n}^{\pi n}\abs{\sin x}\dd x=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}n\abs{\sin(nx)}\dd x=2n\int_0^{\pi}\abs{\sin(nx)}\dd x\=\begin{cases}2n\int_0^{\pi}\sin(nx)\dd x,\text{if}\ n=2k+1, k\in\mathbb{Z}\-2n\int_0^{\pi}\sin(nx)\dd x,\text{if}\ n=2k, k\in\mathbb{Z}\end{cases}\=\begin{cases}4,\text{if}\ n=2k+1, k\in\mathbb{Z}\0,\text{if}\ n=2k, k\in\mathbb{Z}\end{cases}$
let me recheck my work
pirateking0723
alright this is my final answer
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can i get some help with 4
let f(x) = 7cos(x) + 4, find Im(f) and thr maximums in the interval [π,3π]
🤔
The function looks entirely real to me...
-# I'm assuming Im(a + bi) = b.
wdym?
Im(f)=image of f
image i mean
not imaginary part

I recommend first finding the maximums and the minimums of f(x).
,w derivative of 7cos(x) + 4
,w -7sin(x) = 0
$$x = \pi n$$
Use this to find possible critical values on $x \in [\pi, 3\pi]$, then test for their $f(x)$ values.
@night hawk
n is within [1,3]
So find $f(\pi n)$ for all $n \in [1, 3] \cap \bZ$.
@night hawk
$$yeah$$
girlyboss90
mate cos(x) image is [-1,1]
-1 <= cos(x) <= 1
-7 <= 7cos(x) <= 7
-7 +4 <= 7cos(x) + 4 <= 7 + 4
@night hawk
I assumed you were doing it the Calculus way because you were differentiating the function and setting that derivative equal to 0.
-1 <= cos(x) <= 1
-7 <= 7cos(x) <= 7
-7 +4 <= 7cos(x) + 4 <= 7 + 4
-3 <= 7cos(x) + 4 <= 11
f(x) = 7cos(x) + 4
Imagen(f) = [-3,11]
well, inquality is mlre elegant
and faster
and cosine has a known image, so this inequality i think is valid unless I made some mistake
,w range of y = 7cos(x) + 4, pi <=x <= 3pi
,w range 7cos(x) + 4
how do I find the maximums?
f(2pi) = ?
f(3pi) = ?```
well
first, one second
f'(x) = -7sin(x)
,w sin(x)=0
how do you know sin(π)=0 , sin(2π) = 0, sin(3π)=0
You would have to use the Unit Circle.
no
we know sin(0)=0
is there any identities we can use
I guess you could use analyze how each cycle of the sin wave works. But it's overkill compared to memorization or the Unit Circle.
sin(0)=0
sin(π)=0
@night hawk
k ∈ Z
π <= 0 + 2kπ <= 3π
π <= 2kπ <= 3π
1 <= 2k <= 3
1/2 <= k <= 3/2
k=1
@night hawk
,w maximums of 7cos(x)+4 in [pi,3pi]
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,w Maximize 7cos(x) + 4 on the interval [pi, 3pi]
,w Find all local maxima of 7cos(x) + 4 between pi and 3pi
,w critical points f(x)=7cos(x)+4 where x in [pi,3pi]
,w Minimize 7cos(x) + 4 on the interval [pi, 3pi]
,w Find the global maximum and minimum of 7cos(x) + 4 on [pi, 3pi]
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let PA and PB be tangents to a circle with center O, where A and B are on the circle, a line from P intersects the circle at C and D, and intersects AB at Q, prove that PQ^2=PC×PD-QC×QD
im guessing your supposed to play with poap somehow?
@viral dagger Has your question been resolved?
it's definitely a combination of QC * QD = AQ * QB
PC * PD = PA^2 = PB^2 and so on
yeah but i feel like you need to change PQ^2 to something for it to fall in place
.close gtg
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here by derivative i got 2x+b=0 so b=-2x and x=-b/2
and by condition we can assume that it is symmetric about line x=2
so you can find b.
no need at all
you only need to compare values of f at various points against each other
Ohh
f(1) will be
1-4+c =-3+C
f(2) will be 4-8+C=-4+C
Not understanding
Depends on the sign of c because c can be zero positive and negative
That won't matter
How can I compare?
2>1
2+c>1+c
So u understand by adding or subtracting a constant the inequality doesn't change?
Yes..-8>-9
Hmm
yes, comparisons survive subtraction of same number from both sides
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aide grand oral maths
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Just to be sure. The way to do this is
$\lambda(x,y)=(-3y,x)$ and I attempet to solve that , right
wai
wai
which gives \lambda^2=-3, which doesn't make much sense...
.. why?
A real valued linear transformation has real eigenvalues, no?
yes, I meant from R^n
well thats simply not true
for example a rotation by any non-multiple of pi will not have real eigenvalues
so the eigenvalue is (3i)?
you can see this easily geometrically, since no vector will be parallel to its image after rotation
how did you get \lambda = 3i from \lambda^2 = -3??
I took the root of both sides?
apparently you didnt
because it should be \lambda = \pm\sqrt{3}i 😄
you will get two solutions
right, but none of the eigenvalues are real?
sure
this is still wrong, though
eigenvalues are ±3i
..., you just agreed they are ±\sqrt{3}i
why
because \lambda = ±3i implies \lambda^2 = -9
oops
that is not the original equation... 😄
$\lambda = ±√3 i$
wai
yes
Okay. Thanks
there are no real eigenvalues for this
I guess the more correct way to do it would be to show T -\lambda I is injective for all \lambda
no?
hmm
,w solve -3y=ax; x=ay for a
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but keep in mind- the transformation T itself will not have any eigenvalues, since the scaling factor must be from R (by definition of eigenvalue). so the final answer is- there are no eignevalues
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read this @twilit field . i also found the same question here https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1987042/find-eigenvalues-of-tx-y-3y-x
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Thanks!
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If the direction of velocity is along acceleration then velocity will increase in the that direction. why?
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$\int_1^{\infty}\qty(\frac{\ln(x)}{x})^{2024}dx$
;(
\begin{align*}=\int_1^{\infty}\frac{(\ln(x))^{2024}}{x\cdot x^{2023}}dx\ \overset{u=\ln(x)}{=}\int_0^{\infty}u^{2024}e^{-2023u}du\ \overset{v=2023u}{=}\frac1{2023}\int_0^{\infty}\qty(\frac{u}{2023})^{2024}e^{-u}du\ =\frac1{2023^{2025}}\Gamma(2025)\ =\boxed{\frac{2024!}{2023^{2025}}}. \end{align*}Is this correct?
,w integrate (ln(x)/x)^{2024} from 1 to infty
1 to infinity
but still, doesn't work
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I think It's right
Ok
why gamma function though
unnessary (I don;t now it, hence I hate it)
;(
use \newline
I should have used \begin{align*} but whatever
yea that too
It looks right but shitty?
i verified it numerically for smaller powers, it works
;(
Ok!
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Is this correct? Or does g have to be surjective as well?
wait, I'm confused by the question's wording
what's it asking you?
is h = g o f?
are g and f surjective? 
we have surjective composition h o g o f and we are supposed to say if f, g or h have to be surjective
do we know anything about h, g, or f?
aha, I see
g need not be surjective.
consider A = {a}, B = {b_1, b_2}, C = {c_1, c_2}, D = {d}
we can have f(a) = b_1, g(b_1) = g(b_2) = c_1, and h(c_1) = h(c_2) = d.
then the composition h o g o f is surjective, because h(g(f(a))) = d, but g isn't surjective
you're right that h needs to be surj though
Then just h has to be surjective right?
yeah
okayyy
what if the composition h o g o f was injective?
which one of the functions would have to be injective
wouldnt it be h only again?
unfortunately, this isn't the case 
h could be injective on the image of g o f, but not injective on all of C
likewise, g could be injective on the image of f, but not on all of B
f however, f needs to be injective 
if it weren't, then we could find two elements a_1 and a_2 in A with a_1 neq a_2 but f(a_1) = f(a_2)
and then we'd have that h(g(f(a_1))) = h(g(f(a_2)))
injectivity of the composition would force us to have a_1 = a_2, which is a contradiction
injectivity of h on the image of g o f and injectivity of g on the image of f are needed for the composition to be injective, but they don't guarantee that h or g themselves are injective
okay thank you

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given a cone of equation x^2/R^2+y^2/R^2=<z^2/h^2, where R,h>0. isnt the projection of this cone onto the xy plane just the point (0,0,0)?
because its projection onto the xy plane is exactly the set of points (x,y,0) that satisfy the above equation right ?
no, the projection should be the set of all (x,y) which (x,y,z) satisfies the equation for some z
so it is set of points forming the disk given by x^2+y^2=<z^2R^2/h^2 where z is a constant ?
In this case it would be entire plane if z is unbounded
not exactly a constant
No z is the third axis in most cases
more like a parameter?
Yes
so here if 0=<z=<h then the projection onto the xy plane is 0=<x^2+y^2=<R^2
but then when i found the intersections of the cone with the planes z=0 and z=h i got the same result
is this just a coincidence?
so the intersection with z=0 is the origin of the space and the intersection with z=h is the disk of radius R centered at (0,0,h)
ie the disk given by x^2+y^2=<R^2, z=h
along with the (x,y)=(0,0) from the intersection with z=0
i got this
i dont think it is just a coincidence, is it ?
because i just took the intersection of the cone with the boundaries of z that enclose the intended region right?
wait i thought that i mentioned integration but i didnt . So i am trying to find the volume of this using a triple integral
any idea about this ?
Projection onto plane won't work in this case because area will be distorted
i am not sure that i follow
so is this projection correct to begin with
if yes then can you explain to me what exactly you mean by this
Yes
What are you trying to do tho
i am trying to find the volume of the cone that is given by x^2/R^2+y^2/R^2=<z^2/h^2 , 0=<z=<h using a triple integral
Then do you know it's formula
the formula of what ?
∭_E dV, where E represents the solid region.
i want to find $\iiint_E\dd V$
pirateking0723
i rewrote as E to have the same notation
yea i know about this
so $\frac{x^2+y^2}{R^2}\leq\frac{z^2}{h^2}\implies\frac Rh\sqrt{x^2+y^2}\leq z$ (the other possible inequality is omitted since $z\geq 0$) and $z\leq h$ so $\frac Rh\sqrt{x^2+y^2}\leq z\leq h$
pirateking0723
so $\iiint_E\dd V=\iint_D\int_{\frac Rh\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}^h\dd z\dd A=\iint_Dh-\frac Rh\sqrt{x^2+y^2}\dd A$
pirateking0723
now i want to find region D which is the projection of the cone onto the xy plane
which is done above
but then comes my question
which is if i find the intersections of the cone with z=0 and z=h i am getting the same bounds
so is it a coincidence or am i interpretting something wrong after doing this or what
Yes that's what bounds mean
So the intersection points can be taken as bounds in this case
alright so why project the cone on the xy plane
No reason why would you that
exactly thats the normal thing to do usually right
i see
I find them that way
now i am talking about this btw
No need to project
yes there is no need
but it is correct because of this right?
or is the reason something else
I guess this is what you want:
The volume of the cone can be interpret as $\iiiint_E \dd V=\int_0^h \iint_D \dd A\dd z$ here D is the projection to the plane z = a
Micni9
ohh i see
so here there is no projection
D here is just the intersection of the cone with the planes z=0 and z=h
while here D is the projection of the cone onto the xy plane
is that it ?
no, it change as z changes
imagine you are summing the area of the projection from z=0 to z=h
isnt this change taken into consideration with the integrand ?
thats why the integrand depends on x and y
no ?
yes
but the bounds are z=0 and z=h
ah well what i said is wrong
what is correct to say is that the intersections with z=0 and z=h are the boundaries of D (?)
is that it ?
is that what you were trying to tell me ?
D is the projection
which D
z=0 and z=h are bounds of a
this?
or this ?
Yes
This
and this D here is the region bounded by the intersections of the cone with the planes z=0 and z=h?
Nope
then what is D here
so the slice of the cone bounded by these intersections ?
No cone's height is bounded by those intersections
because if no then what slice ? how is it determined ?
ok so D is the part of the cone bounded by the intersections with z=0 and z=h
because it starts at z=0
the intersection with z=0
the plane goes up
and keeps intersecting the cone
it stops at z=h
Yeah
But those are not bounds of D (ie slice itself)
Those are bounds of the blue plane
But the slice is region between the circle
And it's bound is the boundary of the circle
how do i find the equation of this circle ?
isnt it changing ?
it changes as z change, so it can be expressed in terms of z
i did that at first but then deleted it
because now there is no z right?
there shouldnt be z anymore
we integrated wrt z at first
there is
now there is only x and y , there shouldnt be z in the boundaries of the integral
Integrate dA first
dz is the outermost integral which you integrate last
ah i thought we were talking about this
in this case let me do it
each disk here is given by $x^2+y^2\leq\frac{z^2R^2}{h^2}$ so for each z, this is D and thus its boundary is given by $x^2+y^2=\frac{z^2R^2}{h^2}$
pirateking0723
now we can use polar coordinates with 0=<r=<zR/h and 0=<θ=<2π
so that our integral can be rewritten as $\iiint_E\dd V=\int_0^h\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^{\frac{zR}h}r\dd r\dd\theta\dd z=2\pi\int_0^h\frac{z^2R^2}{2h^2}\dd z=\frac{\pi R^2h}{3}$
pirateking0723
Yessss!!!!
Congratz
can we talk about this
this is also doable
give me a sec to think about it
Yes
it should be $\iiint_E\dd V=\iint_D\int_{\frac hR\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}^h\dd z\dd A=\iint_Dh-\frac hR\sqrt{x^2+y^2}\dd A$
Micni9
you make a mistake on the lower bound of z
yes R/h instead of h/R
so $\iiint_E\dd V=\iint_D\int_{\frac Rh\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}^h\dd z\dd A=\iint_Dh-\frac hR\sqrt{x^2+y^2}\dd A$
pirateking0723
what i am about to say is probably somehow inaccurate. So we know that $x^2+y^2\leq\frac{z^2R^2}{h^2}\leq\frac{h^2R^2}{h^2}=R^2$ so $D$ is the disk given by $x^2+y^2\leq R^2$
pirateking0723
i think that this is somehow incorrect/inaccurate
You're assuming z=h
because i disregarded the lower bound of z for example
z=a, where a is the height of disk
same trick
shouldnt D here be the projection onto the xy plane?
which is this disk here
now you assume z changes as D changes, D changes from a dot to a big circle
this is similar to previous case that we say z changes from 0 to h
D is indeeed this disk here right ?
because assuming that D is this then the integral becomes $\ \iint_Dh-\frac hR\sqrt{x^2+y^2}\dd A=\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^Rhr-\frac{hr^2}R\dd r\dd\theta=2\pi(\frac{hR^2}2-\frac{hR^3}{3R})=\frac{\pi R^2h}3$
pirateking0723
but this reasoning is wrong, right?
can you explain a bit more
in previous case, z is a moving coordinate point, we didn't treat it as a line segment
similarly, we treat D as a moving, expanding disk instead of simply the base of the cone
the base is indeed the "upper bound" of D
and i suppose that the lower bound is (0,0) at z=0?
yes
i think that i see the reason why D is the projection onto the xy plane
so we are moving up in disks
now if we draw all of these disks on the same plane
the boundaries of each of these disks will form concentric circles
with the largest circle being of radius h and the lowest of radius 0
and so this disk is formed
yup
the same thing is going to happen for any surface if integrated first wrt z
the region D will be its projection to the xy plane
similarly integrating first wrt x will lead to D being the projection onto yz plane and integrating wrt y first will lead to D being the projection onto the xz plane
as long as you can write out the innermost integral in terms of the plane
so what if you cant
then what should be done
first of all what is an example of this case
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My idea is to prove it's injective. So the only reasoning I have is T(v)=0 only if v=0 by defn all elements z_1 and onwards must be 0. The only vector with this property is the 0 vector.
injective things can have eigenvalues
I;m using this
but this is for T - lambdaI not T
so I consider T- \lambda I and show it's always injective then, for any lambda in R
okay, so this won't work for an infinite dim vector space

$\lambda(z_1,z_2,\dots)= (0,z_1,z_2,\dots)$
wai
wai
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got stuck

for (b)
Suppose ${a,b \in (n)}$ where ${(n) = {a: n|a}}$. Then, for some ${k, j \in \mathbb{Z}}$, ${a = nk}$ and ${a = nj}$. Therefore, ${ax + by = (nk)x + (nj)y = n(kx + jy)}$, meaning ${n | ax + by}$. Consequently, ${ax + by \in (n)}$. ${\square}$
k
this is for (a)
Assume ${(n) \subseteq (m)}$. Then, for all ${x}$ s.t. ${x = nk}$ for some ${k \in \mathbb{Z}}$, we also have ${x = mj}$ for some ${j \in \mathbb{Z}}$. Therefore, ${nk = mj}$.
k
Seems like i have to show that ${k / j \in \mathbb{Z}}$. However, division is not an operation here.
k
help b
K
nope im out

hint - n belongs to (n)
im sorry, i just didnt do set theory yet
this implies n belongs to?
$0 = mj - nk}$?
k
Compile Error! Click the
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(You may edit your message to recompile.)
ye, so m divides n
how so?
you just said that n is a multiple of m, right?
yup
what does m divides n mean?
(20) = ..., 20, 40, 60, ...
(4) = ..., 4,8,12,16, ...
n = mk for some k
yes so m divides n is same as n is a multiple of m...
yeah
and by being in m, it is multiple of m
so m divides n
yesss
for (c)
if m|n, then mk = n.
wait
if m divides n
then n is a multiple of m
since also n is a multiple of n
we have that if n is a multiple of n, then n is a multiple of m
thus the definition of subset?
is this right?
no here you have to prove this :
let x be ANY number in (n), then x will also be in (m)
you have only proved that the number 'n' will be in (m)
ok
so
if x is any number in (n)
then x is a multiple of n
also by defn of subset
x is a multiple of m
so x = mj for some j and x = nk for some k...
now
n is also in m
as proven
so
m = nb for some b
hence we have x = nbk = n(bk)
yes that's right now
basically
n=mk and x=an so
x=an=(ak)m
so x is a multiple of m => x is in (m)
oh ok
let me formalise it
Suppose ${(n) \subseteq (m)}$. Then, for all ${x}$ in ${(n)}$, we also have ${x \in (m)}$. In particular, for ${x=n}$, we have that ${n = mk}$ for some ${k \in \mathbb{Z}}$. By defn, ${m | n}$. ${\square}$
this is for b
k
For (c)
Suppose ${m|n}$ and let ${x \in (n)}$. Then, ${mk = n}$ for some integer ${k}$ and ${x = an}$ for some integer ${a}$. Therefore, ${x = an = a(mk) = (ak)m = mj}$ for some integer ${j}$. By defn ${m|x}$, so ${x \in (m)}$. Consequently, for any ${x \in (n)}$, also ${x \in (m)}$. Thus, ${(n) \subseteq (m)}$. ${\square}$
@chrome rain
yep 👍
thank u so much
oopsie
k

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how do you do the last part of this q?
i've found
(r^2-3)f(r)
(x+yi)^2f(r)
(x-yi)^2f(r)
(x+yi)zf(r)
(x-yi)zf(r)
but i still need a last basis vector
also how do i check that they're eigenstates of L^2 quickly? ig i could probs compute L_x and L_y for each of these 3 eigenstates but that feels like it would take quite a long time
uhhh did you already try https://discord.gg/physics
i'm not in that server but i can try
i mean my degree is just maths
hence why i posted in maths
then you should be explaining all the definitions in terms of math behind the problem. "angular momentum operator" is not defined in many math courses.
yh fair
L_x, L_y, L_z are the components of this operator
L^2 = L_x^2 + L_y^2 + L_z^2
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like can;t T have atmost dim range T eigenvectors
[0] has range {0} and n eigenvectors
nmm
wai
hi
hmm
i'll sleep over this
thanks
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I would think about a matrix but maybe you don’t want to do that
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bruh
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can someone help me
Uh so like what u want?
@fair frigate Has your question been resolved?
help
Is this a test?
nope
Is it a quiz?
no homeowrk
Do u know how to do Gaussian elimination?
not reslly
my teacher didnt teach
anything\
i did
@fair frigate Has your question been resolved?
Instead of posting the whole list of questions into one help channel, you may wanna post one by one instead
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why is the 3rd graph the graph of this inequality
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Hello everyone. I am having difficulty specifying the nature and geometric characteristic elements of the attached set E.
,rotate ccw
you are doing E and F, right?
Yes, but it's E that's the problem for me.
there's probably a few ways you could go about this
do you know how to classify a conic section?
you could either square both sides and expand it out in terms of x and y, where z = x + iy, that will give you a conic section equation in general form
or you can simplify it a bit and interpret it geometrically. for example, |z + 1 + i| is the distance to (-1 - i)
Yes
ok, then if you square both sides, you should get a quadratic in x and y on each side, and that'll give you a conic section
since |z|^2 = x^2 + y^2
might not be what they are looking for nor the easiest solution though
Ok I didn't understand it like that. In fact, by interpreting this geometrically, we will end up with the ratio of the geometric definition of an ellipse with eccentricity e = 1/2 (because 1/2 is positive and less than 1
i don't think it is an ellipse tbh
an ellipse would be like |z - a| + |z - b| = c right? sum of distances to foci is constant
the RHS has z and z^bar though
I spoke of ellipse for two reasons. The first is the fact that at the end of the manipulations we have a ratio of the form MB/MH=1/2 and since H is the orthogonal projection of M on a straight line (the axis of t which is in fact an orthogonal symmetry in the plane) and that B does not belong to this line, we can conclude from the geometric definition of a conic that (E) is an ellipse of Directrix the axis of orthogonal symmetry, with focus B. The second thing (which follows from the first) is that the eccentricity which is the result of this ratio is positive and less than 1
That's true, but I would like to obtain the geometric definition, that is to say with the points in the plane.
you're correct H is the orthogonal projection of M on a straight line yes, good job
but from what i remember, the set of points equidistant from a point (focus) and a line (directrix) is a parabola, i could be wrong though
Oh thank you very much
This is also true
Exactly what made me say it's an ellipse
Thank you very much for your valuable help.
no problem, good luck
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idk how to do part i
ik the 10 + t is the amount of water
and 2Q comes from the original 20kg salt divided by 10L, so it is the concentration?
or should i start to make an equation for Q first
or should i seperate the variables
@signal rock Has your question been resolved?
mhm
d/dt, or d/dx, or dy/dx, all the d/d forms are derivatives
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@signal rock
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PWICFOP on this polynomial:
x^3 - 48x + 128
what's that acronym
Idk bout PWI but i know whhat CFOP iis tho
It's quite famous:
PWICFOP = Peform What Is Called "Factorization of Polynomials (FOP)"
never seen that acronym before in my life
why not just use one word: factorise
anyway what gave yo tried?
It's written that way in my book.
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
start with rational root theorem
+- p/q is a root.
Then p divides 128
q divides 1
q = 1
128 = 2 * 2 * 2 * 2 * 2 * 2 * 2
Possible (rational) roots:
1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128.
And the negative version of these.
Now what.
test too see if they're roots,
usually start small
after you find one do polynomial division
it is decidedly not famous, and your jocular insistence to the contrary is decidedly unfunny.
x = 4 works.
Now I can divide the cubic by x - 4.
And get a quadratic equation to be solved.
And use the quadratic formula.
And get the other fruits.
Thanks.
I think I should close this channel now.
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@lyric charm i got 11 answer
Can we solve it by geometrically too?
Just curious to know
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Can anyone explain how did they find the points over grid?
In the second comment
Suppose if I am given three length √20,√26,√34
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can someone explain how the torque about the midpoint is that
shouldnt it be 2 into that
Should be twice right 
yeah thats what i thought as well
Oh actually
Let's say you have a single rod of uniform charge density lambda
What would be the torque about an end point?
You might have to do a bit of integration
because each point on the rod has some force on it
its not point masses at the ends
oh right
i assumed it was a dipole kind of thing
yeah its continuously distributed here
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I have no clue
you could try writing the first few terms
and find the pattern
There's none
what series did you get
whats the next term
a2 is 1
26 should be
Probably