#help-49
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but then how would it be at rest
Cause before t =0, there's no force being applied
So its at rest
Then at t =0, we apply a force
So its no longer at rest
I think u messing up F and V
Function of V need to be continuous, Function of F doesnt
i see, but what if it said starts at (0,0)
So t = 0, F= 0?
yea
Then solve like this
Since we know t = 0 => F =0 and t = 4 => F = 4, and F changes linearly
but hows that right considering that the impulse is mv which is 1(4) = 4, but i only got an impulse of 2
This the graph must be a triangle
Cause u made a wrong assumption
The initial problem clearly state that the force is steady, AKA F = const
And not at t = 0, F = 0
Thats a wrong assumption
At t = 0, F = 4 because, we know at t = 4, F = 4, and F is const!
ok imma change up the question
A smart cart is initially at rest and then is influenced by a increasing linear force. The cart has a mass of 1 kg. At 0 seconds, the force is at 0 N. At 4 seconds, the velocity of the cart is 4 m/s. What is the impulse?
now?
Then the impulse is 2Ns
Using your graph
The a is not const then
Sorry
a
not v
F is variable thus a is also changing according to F
I = m * deltaV
Well
Its just then u need to calculate dv over that 4s
which is not straight forward
At t = 0
F =0
F = ma
f = m * dv/dt
We might need to use jerk
Since its dF = m * da/dt
dF = m * d(dv/dt)/dt
but is the answer still 2Ns?
Yep
Using F-t graph now is more fissable then doing integral at this point
but i still dont get why we cant simply use m(vf - vi) = 1(4 -0) = 4
is it because there is a change in acceleration?
Yep
this is wrong btw
If F is linear
Then a is linear
But v will be not a linear
So over large time period (4s) we cant use v(at 4) - v(at 0)
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How do you figure out this problem? I just need help on what to find to get the answer.
I am thinking that I need to find M, then find that section of K, which then I add 8 to. Would that be correct?
did you try using similar triangles
i think this is wrong
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So with logarithms, we have (b^e = N ) = (log b of N = e) ... I know that logs with negative bases are undefined, but then why can we easily see that log (-4) of (-64) = 3 ? It's not undefined if I can calculate it, no ? Or am I missing something ?
Initial problem was this :
you dont usually want to only evaluate very specific inputs
you are often much more interested in all of the inputs
and for negative basis and negative inputs you get huge problems
(in real numbers)
yes you can define individual exceptions but those are very much exceptions
btw you can have negative logs if you deal with complex numbers. But the exact workings are pretty .. uhh... complex. 
so we just apply the blanket rule that log with negative bases are undefined because of the times it's impossible to calculate them, like for log-4 of -16 or any other of the same type ?
well logs of negatives work in specific cases, but again, they're specific
We leave negative logs as undefined because, for any $n<0$, $n^x$ will not be real for most $x$
yeah, I'm currently only working with real numbers, I think this is precalc for now
SWR
like (-2)^2 is real but (-2)^(1/2) isnt
ah gotcha, so really it's to avoid the complexity in real number systems... this feels like something the teacher is going to go "remember when I said that?... well it's not 100% true"
but thanks, that makes it somewhat better because I know the rule, I was wondering why we applied even for "solvable" cases. but what SWR said sounds good to me
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Convinced my book is wrong, ive come up with 439 every which way.
You have to evaluate ?
have you tried a calculator
Book giving answer as 443
I have no idea how to insert this on a phone calculator I havent done math in 20 years.
,calc 2 + 21^2
Result:
443
How is 6-8 = 2
abs value
Abs
Absolute value of 6-8
train abs
Nw
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How would i approach this problem?
@calm fiber Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
use the given informations. "the diagonals of any rhombus are perpendicular bisectors of ech other" - what does this mean to you?
@calm fiber Has your question been resolved?
that every side must be the same?
no.
why not?
each triangle has the two sides
and using pythagorean theorem each side should be the same
what does it mean for the diagonals?
they are at right angles? they have been cut into two equal halves?
yes. use this information.
would i first try to find the mid point in this case?
or the center
and then the distance from A or C to the center
you have A and C given, so it is clear to determine the point of intersection of the two diagonals.
yeah ik that i can do
but my main issue is where to go from there
i can also find the equation of the perpendicular line which consitutues of b and d
you started with the question "how would i approach tis problem?".
did you determine the point of intersection?
and now determine a perpendicular vector.
so whats the remaining question?
a) Determine possible coordinates for B and D 😭
any point on this line?
would i say any points in (said line)?
oh
oh my gosh
bruhhhhhhhhhh
thank you thank you
so turns out i basically solved this question
but i thought it had to be specific
😭
this is genuinely frustrating
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open
im doing this problem
ive done this bit so far
im stuck on the top right corner
im trying to simplify the root 6
and got root 3 x root 2
i dont know if ur supposed to get two of those prime numbers
you already have a root 3 in the denominator and the you can get a root 2 from the 14
i thought u can only do that to numbers in a surd
14 is like a normal number its not in the surd bracket thing
I've never heard of a surd in math before. What are you refering to?
gg
u dont know surds??
oh wait
u might call it something else to be fair
I probably do, but maybe they're called something different were you are from
surd is some weird way to refer to square roots
yeah
this i guess
are you surd?
@versed summit
yeah i am surd about it
I'm working on it, just slow in latex
You pinged?
essentially with your question, just simplify the square roots by factorizing. for example $\sqrt{28}=\sqrt{7\cdot 4}=2\sqrt{7}$
fish
Ok what've you done so far?
try getting both in terms of $\sqrt{3}$, so you can make it one term (your top part is correct)
fish
$14\sqrt{6} \cdot 5\sqrt{3} = 7 \sqrt{2} \sqrt{2} \sqrt{3} \sqrt{2} \cdot 5 \sqrt{3} = 7\sqrt{2} \cdot 2 \cdot 3 \cdot 5$
Alright what do you notice now?
That's for the denominator
Maybe something in the numerator wink wink?
that looks so cofnusing
Yeah agreed
ive tried simplifying this part of the numerator
but i got two prime numbers and dont know what to do now
Gruttan
The numerator is the one on top not the the one below
oh yeah i did that bit
Maybe that's sligtly better
Hold that thought. This is very useful
You can simplify it further?
heres what i did so far for the numerator but i know you can do 30 x 10 x 7
so 2100 on numerator
Good, so let's focus on the denominator now
ok
yea sort of but not really
it just looks confusing in text format if you get what i mean
It's not in text format tho, but I think I get what you mean
Also Idk latex yet, pls help me @silent elbow
the root 3
Yes, so that multiplies to become 3
wait where did u get that from
You said that 14root6 can be written as 14 times root3 times root2
Here
wait so we can do that?
Why not?
What law do you think we're breaking?
i didnt know u could have two primes when from when you simplify it
We can have as many as we like. Are you familiar with prime factorization?
yes
Because this is just that but with the square root sign on top
as in i didnt know u could simplify it and leave it as this
because isnt it basically root 6
Sure, I didn't know anything either a couple hours ago and I just searched up this tutorial on yt. https://youtu.be/ydOTMQC7np0?si=Nx9iN1ALJVE4N6yP
You can skip all the non-math stuff and skip straight to 36 minutes
But we multiply 5root 3 to it
It is
Thanks mate
Yep this is it
so the root 3 x root 3 gives us 3 on its own
Yes
Better!
We can do 14*5=70
70*3=210
That's better because we can directly cancel the 2100
oh ok
There would be a root 2 in the denominator though
so that would be better than the way i said?
It would mathematically be the exact same
its the same but this way is a bit longer?
Bingo
ah ok
If you think like this you can start solving these in your head and become a pro
Now all you got to do is get the final solution
Done
Good that you didn't make a single calculation error here
ggs guys😎
Yep we got em boys
oh wow
yeah ur explanation actually helped out a lot
i got a different type now
I'm glad
adding them
Ok what do you think?
this looks easier than the previous ones
you just add the normal numbers outside the surd?
I would suggest trying it on your own for a minute or two, and then if you get stuck ask for help
Yes
so in this case 7 root 3?
5+3=8
So 8root3
Alright if that's it, I gotta go now, I have to sleep
Gn y'all
this is how im gonna lose marks on the test 😭
thank you so much for your help and have a good night
Thanks
Yep keep double checking dw
My biggest advice for this kind of mistake is write every step down very neatly, good luck!
yeah you're right
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i need help
im not sure how to do scenario 1 question 6
and scenario idk how to do scenario 2 ques 4,5
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hi
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Why wouldn't choose 1 be optimal solution? You will always be part of the winning pair and receive payouts?
No. If the chosen numbers are 0.1, 0.7, 0.8, 1 for instance, the middle pair wins.
Ic, so the problem is about maximizing how big the number is without deviating too far away from 0.5?
@fresh abyss Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
@fresh abyss Has your question been resolved?
What about 0.5?
Why is it 0.5?
you have to set up some integrals and find the expected value of (X+A) - (B+C) with A,B,C being uniform random variables in [0,1] and X being the number you pick and then maximize its value
unfortunately i don't have the brainpower right now to explain better but i hope it works as a hint
Would you split this up into different cases for different values of X?
Bc I’m unsure how to take into considerations the value of X relative to the three others (since that affects which pairing is made)
i'd presume yes, assuming A is the partner number, case 1 being A >= B, C (or B,C >=A) and case 2 being B >= A >= C (can replace B and C)
i think you have to multiply by some constant somewhere because of the different possible orderings of A,B,C
take it with a grain of salt, i still haven't worked out a solution
The thing I don’t logically understand with this problem is how there can be an optimal answer. Isn’t the best value of X entirely dependent on what 3 numbers were drawn? Since it’s uniformly distributed, each number is equally likely, so if there is a high variance among the other numbers, you want to go for a middle value, but if there’s is small variance (all 3 numbers are around 0.2, say) then you go for a hig h value
it's uniform distribution, so the variance is known to be 1/12
var(A - B - C) = 3 * 1/12
Why did you subtract the variance of the three?
from here
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can someone explain why can we write Y1 = -2X1 +X2
AND Y2 = X1 +X2
like why they didnt give any explaination for that
Have you taken linear algebra
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how do u determine the power of x's n the answer
Starting with the right.
Rightmost: Remainder : 55
Next: x^0 [constant term] : 27
Next : x^1 : 11
Next : x^2 : 4
Next : x^3 : 2
is it always like that?
if you start with right and move in that order, yes
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hey hey, quick question. is this the right series of formulas for determining a riemann sum?
that is mostly correct for calculating a left- or right- riemann sum with equal-length subintervals
but you need to be consistent with the sum variables (the variable should be i, and the upper bound should be n)
and a left- riemann sum goes from i = 0 to n-1, whereas a right- riemann sum goes from i = 1 to n
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I'm trying to integrate this by converting it into polar coordinates
Getting really strange limits
I'm getting $\int_{0}^{\pi} \int_{0}^{\sin(\theta)}d(r)d(\theta)$
What a wonderful world!
What's wrong
I can see a few things
first of all why isn't it rdrdtheta
second of all how did you get the bounds
Why should it be rdrrdtheta
dxdy = rdrdtheta
oh, it;s the jacobian
and can you explain the bounds
Hmm
Oh right
okay
I see
The line r=1 is at at a constant distance from the origin
r=1
the line?
What a wonderful world!
This is the area of semicircle 😉 , so that's just π•1²/2
I know, I'm just learning polar substitutions now, so wanted to use that
Ahn alright sorry
so kinda different from your first bounds
this one works now
Got it
thanks
This feels really sus
I'm getting
$\int_{0}^{\pi}. \int_{-1}^{1} r^3 dr d(\theta)$
What a wonderful world!
Two things:
- why from 0 to π?
- r can't be negative
If you draw that region (in cartesian coordinates) what shape do you get?
A circle
Yep, so theta will go from 0 to 2π
There's no need
hmm and r
r goes from 0 to 1, right
so $\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \int_{0}^{1} r^3 dr d(\theta)$
right
What a wonderful world!
so I'm getting $4 \pi ^4$
What a wonderful world!
which feels sus
Is this right
huh
it's π/4

what am I doing wrong
Whit, won't this just be 2π/4 = π/2

That's wrong, is it not?
nvm
Got it

:| the bounds for theta is [0, π)
Mmh I don't think so
At least looking at these cartesian bounds
I feel like the bounds would be identical here
$\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \int_{0}^{1} \ln( 1+ r^2) dr dt$
What a wonderful world!
Rather messy
I know it's a standard result
but still
rln(1 + r²) - 2r + 2arctan r
0.5[(1 + r²)ln (1 + r²) - r² - 1]
Yeah
thanks
This is much more interesting
Here theta would vary from 0 to π/4 I think?
and r from 0 to 2
so $\int_{0}^{\pi/4} \int_{0}^{2} sin(\theta) + cos(\theta)$
What a wonderful world!
Or is that wrobng
anyway, I have a class now, will get back to this afte that
thanks
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how would you write this as a function?
'A taxi costs 6$ for the first 3 miles, with every mile after the third costing an extra $.20'
I got as far as y=.20x +6 but I don't know how to reflect the part that the taxi only costs $6 for the first 3 miles
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Let $f: \mathbb{R}^4 \to \mathbb{R}^4$ be the linear transformation defined by
[
f(\mathbf{x}) = (x_1 - x_3, x_3 + x_4, x_1 + 2x_2 + x_4, -x_1 - x_4)
]
and let
[
\mathbb{H} = { \mathbf{x} \in \mathbb{R}^4 \mid x_1 - x_4 = 0 }.
]
Then, $\operatorname{Ker}(f \circ f) \cap f^{-1}(\mathbb{H})$ is equal to
Select one:
\begin{enumerate}[label=\alph*)]
\item $\langle (1,0,0,0); (0,0,1,-1) \rangle$
\item $\langle (1,0,-1,1) \rangle$
\item ${0}$
\item $\langle (1,0,1,-1) \rangle$
\end{enumerate}
938c2cc0dcc05f2b68c4287040cfcf71
still has a kernel bro even if it's a subspace of R4
ker(H)=<(1,0,0,-1)>
like just evaluate (x1,x2,x3,x4) = (x1-x3,x3+x4,x1+2x2+x4,-x1-x4) bro then find the kernel of that
I got it i got it bro
I got the idea
I got it
let me draw it
I’m sorry
My nephews are screaming 🙀.
I meant what’s f-1(H). There’s no kerH
wdym there is no ker H?
wdym?
ker(H)=<(1,0,0,-1)>
still has a kernel bro even if it's a subspace of R4
not that the kernel of H is relevant to the Que, though
Kernel applies to a linear mapping , not a subspace
Kernel = Nullspace
No
is same thing, wdym the term is restricted to linear maps
anyways is not like I care, in spanish is "Nulo" for both linear maps and subspaces
in English maybe they invent more words
yeah, let's continue let me draw my idea
Now, what’s f-1(H)
why start with the preimage
can we start with the kernel, null or w/e is called of the linear composition
Ok

Write f as a matrix.
you are multiplying the matrix twice and then finding the nullspace of the resultant matrix?
yup
like i evaluate standards basis vectors under f?
and the outputs i place as columns in a matrix bro?
mmm fuck
damn bro, I am alone in my house, id wish I had a screaming nephew, or someone to talk to
I'm sorry I just can't focus, too much noise. I'll be back in 10 to 15
det([f]_EE)
Yeah
what about it
Can you compute it
,w det {{1,0,-1,0},{0,0,1,1},{1,2,0,1},{-1,0,0,-1}}
we have kernel of f with dim >= 1
,w rank {{1,0,-1,0},{0,0,1,1},{1,2,0,1},{-1,0,0,-1}}
kernel of f has dimension 1
Sorry I thought it was not 0 give me a moment
,w Nullspace[{{1,0,-1,0},{0,0,1,1},{1,2,0,1},{-1,0,0,-1}} * {{1,0,-1,0},{0,0,1,1},{1,2,0,1},{-1,0,0,-1}}]
ker(fof)=<(1,0,0,0),(0,0,-1,1)>
exactly as mines
my way or the highway
but atleast we verified ker fof is correct
@tidal turret Has your question been resolved?
Hey, still there ?
ye
Ok, take a look at this
Your solution is ker(f²)
@tidal turret since you computed ker(f²)
You got your answer
?
sorry i was in FaceTime with my sister
how do I find the preimage of H under f
bro in this case finding the inverse of A doesn't work because det(f)=0 remember
. . .
yeah
Yes any basis will do
Yes
Cause you can do that in a calculator right ?
sure but in the exam bro
In the exam you’re not allowed to use a calculator ?
The calculations you have to do here is finding both kEr f and kEr f^2
But if you want to be time effective without a calculator, that’s not the way to go.
is so confusing bro
If you look closely, you'll notice that answers b,c,d are included in answer a.
ker fof is not necessary bro
or yes?
no man, ker fof entirely contains ker f
ker(f) n H is a stronger implication
I mean
I am not even sure anymore
I messed up
I messed up
I messed up
Look
I love reasoning, much more than calculations. So I did a lot of reasoning, and they I do calculations when I have to
However
If you had to do this during an exam. You should do it differently
however what
You have to look at the answers, and test them
Do you want me to write how I would do that in an exam ?
You start by testing answer a, because you notice that all other answers are included in a
If a) fails (which it won't), you move on to (b) or (d).
If both fail, it has to be (c)
,w kernel {{1,0,-1,0},{0,0,1,1},{1,2,0,1},{-1,0,0,-1}}
ker(A) is not contained in H
any vector in ker(f) does not satisfy the equation of the plane H bro
ahh is so confusing i think I messed up again
fuck my life
I think I get it tho
x in ker fof iff f(x) in ker f
x in f^-1(H) iff f(x) in H
f(x) in H n Ker f
but H n Ker(f) ={0} only trivial intersection
ohh, I'm stupid
let me explain with drawing
I got it bro
it wasn't hard per se, it was just confusing
but naming f(x) = y clear things up
look if ker(f)=<(-1,0,-1,1)>
then f(-1,0,-1,1)=0, so if I create an alias for f(x), call it, f(x)=y
where x is (-1,0,-1,1) and y = 0
we want f(x) in H and f(x) in ker f
0 is in H and in ker f
but particularly
f(f(-1,0,-1,1))=0
so (-1,0,-1,1) in ker fof
Wait. You’re right but then the solution would be just ker f
solution is just ker f according to answers
how
Sorry I really struggled to focus today
no worries mate, I enjoy math when I struggle
Too much screaming at home
take care of your nephew bro
time is the only thing that doesn't go back
I appreciate the help I couldn't have done it without u bro, it wasn't hard, it was tricky
I do. He screams of excitement while playing Fortnite, and I can’t leave the room cause Fortnite should be supervised
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okay so how do i do this again can i just cancel the cosxcosy
I think you think too much
well can you help me think less
Use the cos(x-y) and cos(x+y) formula
try expanding cos(x-y) and cos(x+y)
Where
the direction is kind of correct if im following it right
it’s cosxcosy+sinxsiny
/
cosxcosy-sinxsiny
on my paper
$\frac{1+\tan x\tan y}{1-\tan x\tan y}=\frac{1+\frac{\sin x}{\cos x}\frac{\sin y}{\cos y}}{1-\frac{\sin x}{\cos x}\frac{\sin y}{\cos y}}=\frac{1+\frac{\sin x}{\cos x}\frac{\sin y}{\cos y}}{1-\frac{\sin x}{\cos x}\frac{\sin y}{\cos y}}\times\frac{\cos x\cos y}{\cos x\cos y}$
bruh
ok yeah
@chilly adder
this what i meant
this is "reverse-expanding" the angle sum identities if that makes sense
@oblique gyro have you solved any of your hw questions yourself? cause ive seen your previous ticket and it might be better for you to work on some easier problems
no not really
bull's shade!
tl:dr dont bite off more than you can chew
tl;dr start easy
tl;dr bruh moment
tl;dr hi
idk what u being shady for saying start easy as if i haven’t already started easy? i wouldn’t be working on these had i not done easier things before
like i’m confused on what this mentality of struggling on a problem equating to dropping the problem itself
I feel like you stick with one approach too long. Try to quit when one method stops working and try another
im not admonishing asking for help, its just that after finishing one question you asked for help on another not 5 minutes later
not trying to be hurtful here btw
no no no, its fine, its just that you overthink what could've been ended in 2 lines of reasoning
you should practice more about testing simple approach first then going for more complicated approaches when it fails
just work up in difficulty a bit slower
this
sometimes occam's razor works
we belive in you Jayiee!
yes because the chat was still open and i already had a specific question about cancelling a property
different questions regardless
and mind you idk why @chilly adder decided to jump in to throw shade
like let’s keep it civil
what did i do?
Shade 
Hey Jayiee! What do you need?
Can you speak clearly?
!topic
Please read the channel description before posting, and stay on topic.
going back to this
yes your approach of writing tan into sin/cos is valid
if you continue it this way
but what we recommend here is to go with the approaches that come to your mind the first time
sometimes the most intuitive approaches outshine some complicated manipulation
especially in these
This is very condescending. If you don't have anything relevant to the problem to say you should probably not chime in with things like this.
I don't really get what he's aiming at. Just looking for clarity in what he means, as I feel like what he's saying is scatterd. Might have been worded a bit harshly, but I had no negative intent
the one who asked the question started accusing people out of the blue
If they aren't asking multiple questions or breaking any obvious rules there is nothing wrong with opening channels back to back like this. Sometimes people want more support.
"Could you phrase that a little more clearly?" would be a nicer way of asking that question perhaps
Can we just stop here please
right
Let’s not redirect this at me when i asked a simple question for yall to go off track about how I shouldn’t do the problem if it’s too hard
The overall implication that they can't communicate clearly because you can't understand them is still just unproductive compared to you asking them to rephrase something specific
off-track?
sure, as I said. Worded it poorly, but that's what I meant
i suppose i answered your question already here: #help-49 message
it is you who pressed on
You don't need to pester them so much about their problem choice.
oh boy.
You can say it once and let them choose to take or leave your advice
lmao.
Pressed on what? My last message was very much minutes ago
No need for this to be drawn out
On track - Does what Shirihan said help you @oblique gyro ?
How about ya'll move on to the problem at hand rather than pedagogical meta-advice?
!topic
Please read the channel description before posting, and stay on topic.
Well what he said where because after he posted the image there was still a lot of rambling clearly off topic
Like this was posted 20 minute ago
And maybe where you left off with what you understand too ofc
rambling where?
is there a bot command to repeat the question?
Drop it
okay
i ask this question again
So that’s before you sent the image, let’s clock what you were doing in the 20 minutes between then and now
anywayy
You also drop it
question here
well
Answer:
- Expand numerator and denominator of LHS
- Divide numerator and denominator by cosxcosy
answering the exact question asked
yes you can cancel cosx cosy
assuming that gives you the desired result
Note:
- The idea of dividing cos to obtain tan doesn't only appear in this problem, it is more common than you think.
- Simple extra homework as an example:
Given tan(x) = 3/4. Calculate A = [sin(x) + cos(x)]/[3sin(x) + 2cos(x)]
In fact, this idea is so common that it can expand all the way to very advanced problems you can meet in the future (particularly calculus)
But that's a different topic for now
@oblique gyro Has your question been resolved?
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am i right with C here?
explain your thought process
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
i would but its on paper and i dont have a phone (ik its embarrasing)
but i got C
What did you do, though?
i used the law of cosine
Okay.
What is this for?
Can you type out your work? You asked this before in another channel with answer D that time (<#help-42 message>).
If you want to check it yourself, you can also use the law of cosines again and fill in all the values this time (including 81.325) and see if the sides equal each other.
If you do that, please say something like 6^2 = 5^2 + 3^2 - 2(5)(3) cos(93.82 degrees) or something.
That way, we can check to see if you have the right idea.
@umbral sparrow Has your question been resolved?
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I have to find the non-permissible values for x. This is what I got, but in the answer key, it's π/2 + 2πn, nEI. Why's that..?
show the answer key
11b
probably typo then unless the question asks for something else
Oh shoot, I just checked, and the teacher made some corrections in the answer key. I got a picture, but didn't correct it on the paper
It is + πn, ye
Thanks!!!!
What does $n \in \mathbb I$ mean?
King Leo
Like, what is the set I
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Let A and B be subspaces of X,then A $\cup$ B might not be a sub space of X.
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True or false
(k)
Oen min
$c_1(x-1) +c_2(x-1)^2+c_3(x-1)^3 = b_1x^3+b_2x^2+b_3x^2+b_4x+b_5$
And when I expanded the left side
I got
$c_3x^3+(c_2-3c_3)x^2+(c_1-2c_2+3c_3)x+(c_2-c_1-c_3)$
.close
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when x=-1 y=2.5 when x=0 y=4 when x=1 y=7 when x=2 y=13 find the relationship between x and y
Huh?
I suppose find the first, second, and third differences between the pairs?
their differecnes double but im not sure how to use it
srry i wasnt on discord
Okay.
So we have the first differences as 1.5, 3, and 6. Correct?
yeah
how do we use this to find the relationship?
Take the second and third differences.
3 and 6?

oh wait do u mean like 1.5 and 3 and then 1.5?
Yes.
Now that I see it, I don't know what to do with this information.
can you state all info given
look at the pattern in the differences
thats what i was given
what happens to the difference for each increase in x
it doubles righgt
yes
I've plugged it into desmos and found that it's cubic polynomial
what expression doubles each time x increases by 1
wdym by that?
like what type of function can double its value every 1 x
would it be like 2^n
hint it's an exponential equation
so its general term would be given by
now what's the difference at x = 0 (to x = 1)
3
that would be considered your base change/increase
yes
now you can get 3(2)^x
for each increase
at x = 0 this will be 3
what do you have to add to get y = 4
1
but why multiply by 3?
because 3 is the base change
3(2)^0 = 3(1)
3(2)^1 = 3(2) = 6
3(2)^-1 = 3/2 = 1.5
basically the value it should be at zero
it's just used to scale the exponential function
to the correct values
mb i had to do smt, so basically ur saying that the base for 2^n was 1 and now that its 3 we multiply it by that to get 3,6,12....
i guess better to say initial value
the y intercept of an exponential function is always the coefficient a in a*(b^x)
a in this case is 3 because we start with a difference of 3
as x increases, this doubles
as x decreases this halves
because of 2^x
the difference still follows the points you gave above
from x = 0 to 1
3*2^1 - 3*2^0 = 3*2 - 3*1 = 6 - 3 = 3
from x = 1 to 2
3*2^2 - 3*2^1 = 3*4 - 3*2 = 12 - 6 = 6
(the +1 would cancel out since you're subtracting anyway)
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I'm trying to understand how I solved his question. I have no clue how the + cos 2x in the denominator changed to smth I'm not even able to understand where I got from💀
cos2x doesnt even change
the actual thing that changes is cos4x
it's factorization
if you imagine in your head that u = cos 2x then the denominator becomes 2u^2 + u - 1
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,, \sum_{k=1}^n 2^k \ne 2^n
am i misunderstanding something in what you are writing?
Aero
You are erasing the sum entirely
and resolving it to just 2^n
how did you go from orange to green here
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hi do people in here know how to do boolean?
I personally dont, but lots of people do. Post your question and someone will help
X'Y' + Y'Z + XZ + XY + YZ'
What is the task?
@wet grail
Well first off Y'Z + XZ + XY have redundancy
The term Y'Z is redundant, so you can drop it.
Then, you can do it again with the last three terms.
so then would the answer be XZ?
No.
You can go from
X'Y' + Y'Z + XZ + XY + YZ'
to
X'Y' + XZ + XY + YZ'
Then use redundancy on the last three terms to drop another term (XY).
I don't think it simplifies to less than 3 terms
At least not with just OR, NOT and AND operators.
so would yz' be the redundant one
and then i keep going till i have one left?
sorry my teacher hasnt taught me this yet
You won't have one left
Yeah I don't think you can do much better afaik
A’BC + AB’C + ABC’ + ABC
Can you help answer this one as well
You can kind of factor things out a bit
For instance, the last two term can be "factored" as AB(C + C')
can you explain to me why
cuz I see it as A'BC + ABC
A'B(C) + AB(C)
but i dont know how it becomes AB(C + C')
ABC’ + ABC = AB(C' + C) = AB
You can see it as having the form XY + XY'.
This always simplifies to just X
Since it's telling you that the value of Y "doesn't matter"
You can see it like that, but it doesn't simplify as much
so what would i do next after i get ab from AB(C' + C)
You can factor again with the second term
So
A'BC + AB'C + AB
A'BC + A(B'C + B)
Then what do you think B'C + B is ?
C
Hmm not exactly
You can try and do a mini truth table for it
If B=C=0, then B'C + B = 0
If B=1, C=0, then B'C + B = 1
If B=0, C=1, then B'C + B = 1
If B=C=1, then B'C + B = 1
What does the expression behave like then?
Yes
So that means that you get A'BC + A(B+C) = A'BC + AB + AC
Then what do you get if you factor B out of the first two terms?
