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um whats the problem?
oh
wait so are you asking for help on what?
what do you not understand?
why it is option (3)?
@orchid grove Has your question been resolved?
|x|<1 has possible values in between [0,1) and (-1,0]
when x approaches 0, the piecewise takes the second case and 0/(1-0)=0 for left and right limit of x approaches 0
so it's continuous at x = 0
Ohh thank you very much @tidal turret
@orchid grove Has your question been resolved?
@orchid grove Has your question been resolved?
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the critical difference is in using the population vs sample standard deviation
so if a question gives observed SD then you would use the 2nd one
t-distribution
yes
@obtuse totem Has your question been resolved?
What is the problem here
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!original
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
Determine an equation for the tangent plane to the surface on the top left at the point (1,-1,1)
do tell.
huh
ok
soo
or how about we start with the tangent plane
what do you need to make a plane
2 things
gradient and the point?
we get that normal vector from the gradient
yessss
ok so find the gradient of your function
i mean im not going to check your work just walk you through it
but thats right
ok so now you take that vector and the point and make a plane
(3,3,2)*((x,y,z)-(1,-1,1))?
wheezy outta here
brrrrrrrrrrbrrrrrrrrrrrrr
its the same thing
this proof is what i was looking for though, thanks.
youre welcome ❤️
he got the wrong thing..
uh thats not a plane equation
well it wasn’t an equation at all
frs
lmao
but its ok you got it now 🙂
it legit works tho !
think i get a + for creativity
sure
but ill use the proof this time
we can go with that
bobby
might as well say ai did it for you 😭
nah i can show you gimme a sec
answer sheet
its in swedish but u can just look calculations
yea but you didn’t write = 0
wdym its there look
you didn’t
^
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do you know the elimination method?
Nope
what methods are you familiar with?
Trying to use random numbers to replace x and y with until I get the answer
that could take up lot of time potentially
What would you do
I would eliminate one variable from one equation
Oh
!nosols
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
(1) 7y + 10x = 8
(2) 2y - 5x = 18
that's your system
Ok
You are allowed to add one equation on to the other
Dip, let the person that started finish their job. (@dawn dagger)
I think it's fair.
So for number two can I do 2(1)-5(4) to get 18
For example getting rid of 10x seems reasonable because the other equation contains 5x which is a factor of 10x
So you could multiply the 2nd equation by 2 and add it to the first
Oh ok
Uh
i said 5 times
This is difficult because you could find infinite many variations that still doesn't satisfy the other one
you can ping mods
Which is the answer
Let's multiply the equation (2) by 2
Ok
what do you get then
from
(1) 7y + 10x = 8
(2) 2y - 5x = 18
what is the new system
<@&268886789983436800>
2y - 5x - 18 = 0 and then you said 2y = 18 - 5x
no sense
it was incorrect
you cant give solutions
and @dawn daggeralready started
so let him
finish
you can do it on your own but not give the solution here
erm so can return to problem now (It was wrong though fyi)
So again we were at
(1) 7y + 10x = 8
(2) 2y - 5x = 18
Yes
The next step was to multiply the 2nd equation by 2
I already told you.
Ok
what would you get?
<@&268886789983436800>

<@&268886789983436800>
You literally gave the answer and it wasnt even correct
ok im gonna break it down for you rq
K
just put one stranger on one side and remplace this stranger with the other stranger in the other equation
a lot of stranger
put all x on a side and all y on a side
w'ere extinguished
wrong person
what did you tell him btw
I was going to tell them to put it in the form
$ax_1+by_1=c_1
ax_2+by_2=c_2$
Banana Steeler
but they probably left after the spam
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please help me with this problem
@alpine oracle Has your question been resolved?
@alpine oracle Has your question been resolved?
@alpine oracle Has your question been resolved?
hm
pls help me
so wlog, a<=b<=c
lemme think of a soln
yeah!
so
ab<=ac<=bc
use lcmab * gcdab = ab
and we know
bc+ca<=3ab
yes
that doesnt always work for more than 2 numbers
hm
lcm(a,b,c)=lcm(lcm(a,b),c)=lcm(ab/gcd(a,b),c)=abc/gcd(ab,bc,ca)
that works tho
4*gcd(ab,bc,ca)=ab+bc+ca
let us say
gcd(ab,bc,ca) = k
ok
can u tell how u reached to 4 equality from 3rd one
basically
lcm(ab/gcd(a,b),c)
=abc/gcd(a,b)gcd(ab/gcd(a,b),c)
=
abc/(gcd(ab,c*gcd(a,b)))
=abc/gcd(ab,gcd(ac,bc))
=abc/gcd(ab,ac,bc)
ok
this
this
i dont understood actually how it came
i mean
did you get this?
yeah
ok
do you get this?
ok
kin/j = b^2
ok
ok
4(k^3ijn)^1/2=k^2i+k^2j+k^2n
ok
ya
ok
16(ijn)/(i+j+n)^2 is maximum at i = j = n
ya
hm
given ab and ac, what can we say about bc ?
only
that
(ab*ac)/bc is a perfect squae
or
their product divided by a perfect square
is bc
hm
ki, kij, kn, can be any values such that k^3ijn is a perfect square
or
kijn is a perfect square
yes
what ideas so you have?
i was thinking of some inequality ideas like trying to bound them
so that i could limit the value and then make some equation in ab, bc and ac
oh this is kinda useless, we know k <= n
what did you get yet?
i am trying different things like gcd >= a and trying to manipulate all that
I actually think i could provide some help, can i do that? Even tho i am not a helper
@alpine oracle Has your question been resolved?
you get helper from helping, so if you never help then you can never become a helper
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Hello, Im studying for a trigonometry test using some old tests to practice, and I cant figure this one question out:
From a ship located at a point P in the sea, two lighthouses situated on land at points A and B respectively are observed. The ship sails 4 km toward lighthouse A, reaching a point D in the sea (on the segment that connects P and A). The angle ∠APB is π/4[rad] and the angle ∠ADB is π/3[rad].
a) Draw a diagram of the described situation.
b) Calculate the distance between points
c) Calculate the distance between points
Im gonna edit the question cause the text got all messed up
This is what I think the problem looks like
That looks fine. Parts b and c look the same, though, so you may have left something out of them.
Well yes, Its only to illustrate, those are not the real proportions
No, I mean you say "b) Calculate the distance between points" and c is the same words.
oooh
1 sec
it was
b) Calculate the distance between points D and B.
c) Calculate the distance between points P and B.
OK, your part a looks good. Have you made any progress on part b?
I tried using the cos theorem ending up with d = sqrt(a^2-4sqrt(2)a + 16)
then I got a mental block
OK, but that has the problem that you don't know a yet.
yep
What you can do is use the BDA angle to get the BDP angle.
The problem with that is that, since its just a diagram, the triangle I made might not be actually representing the actual physical situation
Right, the lengths and angles are probably not drawn exactly.
Im lowkey thinking the problem might be wrong in some way
but I dont know, it was a test question
But the ship was heading directly toward A, right?
I mean yes
So, the angle PDA will be 180 degrees or pi radians.
Because it's a straight line and those are 180 degrees.
So, BDA + BDP = pi.
You might be right
My head was trying to imagine the boat just heading towards A
cuz since its water
its not perfect
Right, but the idea here is that we're pretending it's perfect.
In the real world, you might have to make some adjustments.
I hate when problems like these dont specify stuff like that
for me, it was hard to even get to the diagram I sent
I firstly thought about making it from a direct view
like from the coast
instead of looking down at the situation
Well, in math classes with trigonometry or geometry, the idea is that everything is perfect. Then, in physics classes, they start to add in the imperfections of the real world, like maybe the water is flowing in a certain direction at a certain speed or something.
Oh, I see.
You want to get it into the form of a triangle to use trigonometry.
So, you want it to be looking straight down at it.
Or straight up.
That is really helpful
Imma add it to my thought process
OK.
i mean the main thing to remember about math is that its an abstraction of a more general question
thats why its so "perfect"
I hate radians, Imma change everything to degrees
Radians will be important later, like if you get into calculus, they use radians instead of degrees.
TY @round parcel, that was it.
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.close
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can someone help with this question
What are you trying to do here
-# also did you take a screenshot of a photo 🤣
Your theta should be in the bottom right (because thats where john starts). this screws up your opposite and adjacent sides, which screws up your trigonometry
@cursive granite Has your question been resolved?
yes i did it was mine because i couldn't retake it sorry 🤣
ohh
wait
right
got it
and you place the bearing at theta to find the displacement
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✅
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Let $n$ be a positive integer. If $a\equiv (3^{2n}+4)^{-1}\pmod{9}$, what is the remainder when $a$ is divided by $9$?
938c2cc0dcc05f2b68c4287040cfcf71
!show
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6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
cant you just plug in like n=1 
1
cant you just plug in like n=1
wlog?
No, there's more to it
ok so ig it would be interms of n
but it always has the same value mod 9 regardless of n
I don't know how modular inverse works
it's the thing that you multiply to get 1
is it bad if I say that
so like the inverse of 2 is 5
9^n is 0 mod 9
since 2*5 is 1 mod 9
?
because n is positive integer
What you're asked is to find an a such that a(9^n + 4) is 1 (mod 9)
Well this means we need to find a*9^n + 4a is congruent to 1 mod 9
Obvious that first term is 0 mod 9
So ultimately 4a is congruent to 1 mod 9
So a is congruent to 4 inverse mod 9
What number times 4 gives you a number that is 1 mod 9
4 * 7 = 28 = 27 + 1
So the answer is 7
oh right lol i'm being dumb
nah my brain just didn't work
Fair enough lol
also i'm not the original helpee lol
I gotta be honest tho I wasn't aware that the -1 exponent here just meant that we need a number that multiples to 1 mod n
a = 4^-1 mod 9
I suppose but how do we know that holds for all n
4^-1 mod 9 is the same as 7 mod 9
you guess (try other values)
yeah, is just hard to grasp but I think I get what the modular inverse is now
Alright good stuff
@tidal turret Has your question been resolved?
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Prove that every convergent sequence is a Cauchy sequence.
\
Proof: Let $(a_n)$ be the seqeunce. As it converges, it follows that $\forall n >N, N \in \N$, $\abs{a_n-a}< \varepsilon; \forall \varepsilon >0$. Let $m>N$. It then follows thats $\abs{a_n-a_m+ a_m - a} < \varepsilon \implies \abs{a_n-a+a -a_m} + \abs{a_m-a} < \varepsilon \implies \abs{a_n-a}+ \abs{a-a_m}+\abs{a_m-a}<\varepsilon$.
I'm lost beyond this
math rocks(wai)
right general idea but try starting with $|a_n - a_m| = |a_n - a + a - a_m|$
Bungo
Hmm, yeah, that makes more sense
$\abs{a_n-a} +\abs{a_m-a} < \varepsilon/2 + \varepsilon /2 = \varepsilon$
math rocks(wai)
and we're done
yep
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the idea is that $a_n$ must be within $\epsilon/2$ of $a$ for all $n > N$
so the supremum of the distance between $a_m, a_n$ for any $m, n > N$ must be $(a + \epsilon/2) - (a - \epsilon/2) = \epsilon$
south
I like thinking about it this way
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Hi! I need help understanding the axiom of regularity in ZFC.
"Every non-empty set x contains a member y such that x and y are disjoint sets."
How is y and x disjoint if y is contained within x?
∀x[∃a(a ∈ x) ⇒ ∃y(y ∈ x∧¬∃z(z ∈ y∧z ∈ x))]
This is the formal definition but to be fair it just makes it more complicated...
for example let's say we have A = {1, 2, {3,4}}. A is disjoint from {3,4} because it does not contain 3 or 4
strictly speaking in ZFC we define the integers as sets
Or do we define 1 as a set
oh
this is from the construction of N?
so 1 would be {o,{o}}?
o being null
that's 2, but the same idea applies
oh yea my bad
is everything just a set then?
like what if i have A = {apple}
or is thay just not a set under ZFC
for the purposes of ZFC everything being discussed is a set
@gusty birch trivially this is to circumvent Russell's paradox.
oh so like in this case apple would be a set containing some amount of elements which for sure isnt contained in A since A contains only apple
Yes its written in the notes
Which part of it's complicated?
and we're guaranteed that apple cannot contain apple by the axiom
ohh right
by regularity?
yes, we're guaranteed that apple is disjoint from {apple} (whatever those things are) by regularity
but if apple = {apple, pear}, then apple is regular and it contains apple
(given that pear is disjoint from apple)
Axiom schema of specification with the axiom of regularity toghether eliminate russels paradox iirc
i'll close now, thanks for the help :)
.close
with the axiom of pairing we know that {apple} is a set (given apple is) then it must be that apple is disjoint with {apple} (so it cannot contain itself)
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Consider in $\mathbb{R}$ the equation (E): x^3 + 2 = 3x
Verify that 1 is a solution of (E).
Hence, solve (E).
prodigydude
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
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found my mistakes
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$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{x}{tan(x)} dx$
! AzizKitten
help pls
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
I have no idea how to solve it
im not sure either but i think i can give ideas
try putting the tan up
make it a cot
and then use uh
integration by parts
differentiate x and integrate cot
u will ln|sinx| as the integral of cot
and then try using substitution, u = sinx
i gtg
ok I'll try
Kings rule
what is that?
int 0 to pi/2 x/tanx = int 0 to pi/2 , pi/2-x/cotx
oh
i dont think u can use kings rule
u'll get tan(pi/2 - x²) in the denominator
tan(a-b) = (tana - tanb)/1 + tanatanb
and tan pi /2 is literally undefined or infinity
whichever u prefer
@delicate sage
wtf
x/tanx = xcosx/sinx = x(cos²z-sin²z)/2sinz cosz, z = x/2
= z(cotz-tanz)
Now apply kings rule.
This is from 0 to pi/4
Ig this should solve the integral, if not then ping me, shall try again
what is z
I haven't perfectly computed, I meant to apply the substitution x/2 = z
so dx = 2dz
$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-z\right) \left(cot\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-z\right) - tan\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-z\right)\right) dz$
! AzizKitten
like that?
tan(pi/4 -z) = 1-tanz/(1+tanz
0 to pi/4 he has done it
wonderful
did my method work?
I gotta study english so could u pls check if mine works
$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-z\right) \left(cot\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-z\right) - \frac{1-tan(z)}{1+tan(z)}\right) dz$
Hey i want you to write cot in the same way
! AzizKitten
x/tanx = xcotx,
apply integration by parts, dif x and inte cotx and then perform u sub with u = sinx
Integration of ln(sinx) seems rather difficult
then?
oof
didn't think about then
lnu / sqrt(1-u²) du
right
what about adding a parameter?
cot(pi/4 - z) = (1+tan(z))/(1-tan(z))?
I'(t) = u^t lnu / sqrt(1-u²) du
integrate with respect to t
and then perform trig sub
$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-z\right) \left(\frac{1+tan(z)}{1-tan(z)} - \frac{1-tan(z)}{1+tan(z)}\right) dz$
! AzizKitten
im kinda studying english rn cuz i got exam tmrw and its 11 PM for me
du = cos(x) dx
ok sorry if I dirturb you
after that?
ln(u) cos(x) du ?
ohh
I forgot /
integration of ln(sinx) over 0 to pi/2 gives - pi/2 ln2
If I remember correctly
also u gotta covert the x to u
our integral will gives pi/2 ln(2)
the original one
x/tanx
Maybe !
if you do IBP we get lnsinx and ik to integrate it, but I wanna try this method
but i wanna try ln|sinx| method
ln(u)/sqrt(1-u²) du
Do you mind if I come back after dinner ?
Bagel let me tell you, you can't indefinitely integrate that function
You will have to use the properties of definite integrals
$\int_0^1 \frac{ln(u)}{\sqrt{1-u^2}} du$
its a definite integral and a parameter should do the trick right
! AzizKitten
sure
ok u know how parameter works right
what do you mean? sorry I don't udnerstand english too much
hmm idk that
idk if it will work but try it
then integrate with respect to t
to get I(t)
then use x = sin(theta) and integrate with respect to x
then differentitate with respect to t
im not sure if it will get u to the answer cuz u gotta find 'c' and i forgot how to do that but its worth a shot
we'll just see where it gets us I guess
what is theta?
I have a question
does this is correct? and why?
$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} ln(sin(x)) dx = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} ln(cos(x)) dx$
! AzizKitten
We were on this step right ?
Can you simplify it*
4tanz/(1-tan²z) = 2tan2z
(tanz + tanz)/(1-tan²z)
@oak granite there ?
I am here
let me rewrite it
$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-z\right) \left(\frac{1+tan(z)}{1-tan(z)} - \frac{1-tan(z)}{1+tan(z)}\right) dz$
! AzizKitten
what did you do?
make both fractions in one?
(1+tanz)² - (1-tanz)² = 4×1×tanz
$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-z\right) \left(\frac{4tan(z)}{1-tan^2(z)\right) dz$
$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-z\right) \left(\frac{4tan(z)}{1-tan^2(z)\right) dz$
how?
Leave it
ok
ok
look what I got now
what is that?
Gives int 0 to pi/2 lnsinx
yes
Integration by parts
u = sinx
oh ok
No
ln sinx = ln cosx
I shall not write int okk
why is it correct
.
Now I+I = lnsinx + lncosx
yes i did
Kings rule
oh ok
2I = lnsin2x - ln2
Ok so int 0 to pi/2 ln2 gives us pi/2 ln2
That's our answer
We're left to prove int 0 to pi/2 lnsin2x = i
To do this
let me write on the paper to follow and I'll be back
Int 0 to pi ln(sinz) dz/2
no to pi !
Now if you know that
ok
Now you know that property?
int 0 to pi ln(sin z) dz
nope
f(a+b-x) = f(x)
then int 0 to 2a f(a-x) dx
u = a - x ?
Property 6 demonstrates
Idk most probably Jacks rule
Or queens rule, i really mess up
wait
Now look at property 1
we have int 0 to pi ln(sin z) dz right?
lnsinzdz/2
oh yes /2
Recall 2x = z so dx = dz/2
oh I got it
So yes we again have int 0 to pi/2 lnsinz dz = lnsizdx = I
= int 0 to pi/2 ln( sin z ) dz
which is I
So 2i-i = -pi/2ln2
Now put this in our integral
Ours was -I only ?
yes
Ours was xlnsinx - I
the first part = 0
with limit
But always know there's other reason
But no worries it will be zero in this case
Won't you like to
See how we define this in the case ?
I thought you would probably ask
🥲
wdym?
ln 0 case !
.
I don't understand the language
it is going to be
pi/2 * ln(sin(pi/2)) - ...
this first equal to 0
then the case of ln0
lim x->0+ -x ln(sin(x))
apply l'Hopital's rule twice and we get the result 0
I don't know how to say it in english
To apply L hopitals
it is not defined but it has a limit finit
What is the necessary condition
We need to apply L hopitals only once too
You're partially correct, L hopitals can only be applied
When we have 0/0 or ∞/∞ form
ln(sin(x))/(1/x)
Yeah now you got it !
Lmao, anyways ! Have a good day !
but it is clear 0 times infinity can be converted to 0/0 or inf/inf
have a good day!
thank you
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ok so here someone on yt solved it this way
probability of the 4 samples having defective bikes=5/30 X 4/29 X 3/28 X 2/27=1/5481
probability of having at most 3 defective bikes
1-1/5481=5480/5481
and i really dont understand how does he solve it that way like it doesnt make sense to me
i think i should use combinations however idk how exactly am i going to use them
The restrictions is that the max amount of defects is 3, ie 4 doesn't work
1 - not P= P
ie the probability of winning and losing, when added should be equal to 1
w+l=1
w=1-l
he found l which is the "loss", the one we don't want by calculating the probability of gaining 4 defects
so if we want to find the probability of the ones that do satisfy the condition we take 1-1/5481
ohh i get it now idk why but i thought that when we do 1- not P ill get the probabiliy of having 3 defects only and not the probability of having 0 defects and 1 and 2 defects
but i understand now
thank you 🙏
anytime♥️
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here question 21 why isnt the answer D (T4)
bc
if we expand (2x+1/x^2) ^3 the forth term will be
(2x)^0 + (1/x^2) ^3
Because it’s not the independent term
You will have 1 + 1/x⁶
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Oh okay thanks guys 🙏
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Hello I've been asking for help for like an hour now can you help?
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can i js say the probability of a boy and a boy is 1/4 and then since the probability of boy girl is 1/4 + boy boy is 1/4 + girl boy is 1/4, its [1/4]/[3/4]
so 1/3
im not sure if that reasoning would be correct
like cna you add branch probabaility like that
basically boy boy / all combos without girl girl ofc
i am nearly 100% sure that since those are two independent things the probability should just be 50%
if i throw a coin once and it lands heads, there is still a 50 percent chance it lands heads the next time
it has chances of GG, BG, GB, BB, GG isnt included so BG GB BB, BB is only one out of 3 so 1/3? or am i dumb
Think so
potentially my reasoning is incorrect
thats only true if you know the first one is heads no? for this question wouldnt it be more like 2 coins are thrown and one of them is heads, not the first one is heads
@vocal briar Has your question been resolved?
are u talking to me?
theres no coins in the question
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pretty sure i'm wrong, but not for that reason
✅
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If $(a_n)$ is a cauchy seqeunce, determine if $\floor{a_n}$ froms a cauchy seqeunce
oops
What a wonderful world!
Kind of unsure as to how I'd progress with a proof in this case
Makes sense, considering there isn't one
(-1)^n / n
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think what happens after folding
the point c goes to the midpoint of AD, which is E
then you get a right triangle
how so?
take a square papaer in your hand
and fold it the way it says
you'll understand well in that way
ok, ty
how did that happened
yeah i get that
we knew that CF + FD = 6
So, CF = EF
CF + FD = 6 (previously)
so EF + FD = 6
now EF = 6 - FD
now use the pythagorean theorem and solve for FD
(6-FD)^2 = FD^2 + ED^2
yeah
36 -12FD +FD^2 = FD^2 + 9
Or you can use this where ∆CXF ~ ∆CBE
So ||CX/CF = CB/CE and you know values for CX, CB, CE||
CX we don't know
CX = 1/2 CE
Because GF is perpendicular bisector of CE
Due to the folding condition
CX/CF=CE/CB or other way around
ohh
but isn't this approach a bit more complicated than just doing pythagoran theorem?
we dont know CE
Nay, it's the same whether you write (6 - FD)² = FD² + 9 or CX/CF = CB/CE.
It's just that the OP has been posting Qs relevant to the Similarity topic so I wanted to greet them with this other idea
CE² = 3² + 6² , notice E is a midpoint
your point is valid
,w 36 -12x= + 9
I appreciate it guys
I appreciate the idea but i wanted to ask, how do you know CX = 1/2 CE
I like the basic proportionality theorem but i am bad at using similar triangles
how come I never notice the similar triangles 🤭
.solved
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A sequence is said to be pseudo -Cauchy if $\forall \varepsilon >0$ , there exists an $N$ such that if $n \geq N$. Then $\abs{s_{n+1}-s_n} < \varepsilon$.
\
Determine if pseudo-Cauchy sequences are bounded.
What a wonderful world!
KInd of lost here
Try to ruin it.
I'm trying to
blast it with a water gun
Let's say we have n = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, etc.
The distance from a_1 to a_2 is 1, for example.
The distance from a_2 to a_3 is 1/2. The distance from a_3 to a_4 is 1/2.
The distance from a_4 to a_5, a_5 to a_6, a_6 to a_7 are all 1/3.
And so forth.
a_1 to a_2 moves us up by 1.
a_2 to a_4 moves us up by 1.
a_4 to a_7 moves us up by 1.
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8 + x > 10
10 + x > 8
18 > x
12 + x > 16
28 > x
16 + x >12
4 < x < 18
x in (4,18)
17-5+1
,calc 17-5+1
Result:
13
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How did you compute it? It might help showing your work
did you compute f(x) for all x (tiresome) or did you go for something else?
i put the value of x as 0
for f(0)
for f'(0), i differentiated all of them and then put the value of x as 0
uhhhh
what do you mean by that
just a quick tip
if f(x) = g(x)h(x)
is the derivative f'(x) = g'(x)h'(x)?
as in i differentiated all the terms in f(x), then put the value of x as 0 and found the value of the determinant
no
well
when you tell me that
you kinda did this
ahhhhhhh
depending on if you look at it in terms of rows or columns or whatever
but you have to differentiate row by row (or column by column)
icic
so if det(A) is det(Row1,Row2,Row3)